A merry-go-round spins freely when Diego moves quickly to the center along a radius of the merry-go-round. As he does this, it is true to say that

Answer:

Explanation:

initial velocity u = 20 m /s

final velocity v = 36 m /s

time taken t = 4 s .

acceleration = (v - u) / t

= (36 - 20) / 4

a = 4 m / s ²

from the formula

v² - u² = 2 a s  , s is distance covered .

putting the values

36² - 20² = 2 x 4 x s

1296 - 400 = 8 x s

s = 112 m .

Answer:112

Explanation:

Answer:

-0.73mA

Explanation:

Using amphere's Law

ε =−dΦB/ dt

=−(2.6T)·(7.30·10−4 m2)/ 1.00 s

=−1.9 mV

Using ohms law

ε=V =IR

I = ε/ R =−1.9mV/ 2.60Ω =−0.73mA

Answer:

The induced current in the resistor is I = BLv/R

Explanation:

The induced emf ε in the long bar of length, L in a magnetic field of strength, B moving with a velocity, v is given by

ε = BLv.

Now, the current I in the resistor is given by

I = ε/R where ε = induced emf in circuit and R = resistance of resistor.

So, the current I = ε/R.

substituting the value of ε the induced emf, we have

I = ε/R

I = BLv/R

So, the induced current through the resistor is given by I = BLv/R

Answer:

In an electromagnetic wave in free space, the ratio of the magnitudes of electric and magnetic field vectors E and B is equal:  speed of light(c)

Explanation:

Generally the ratio of the E(electric field ) and  the B(magnetic field ) is  equal to the speed of the electromagnetic wave i.e the speed of  light (c) the value is

    [tex]c = 3.0 *10^{8} \ m/s[/tex]

Answer:

The movement of energy and matter in a system differs from one system to another. On the other hand, in open system both the matter and energy move into and out of the system. Therefore, matter and energy in a system naturally change over time will decrease in entropy.

Explanation:

Answer:

Decrease in entropy

Explanation:

Various systems which exist in nature possess energy and matter that move through these system continuously. The movement of energy and matter in a system differs from one system to another.

In a closed system for example, only energy flows in and out of the system while matter does not enter or leave the system.

On the other hand, in open system both the matter and energy move into and out of the system.

Explanation:

1.The light reflected from the CD/DVD or soap bubble or oil film forms an interference with the surrounding light. The inference both constructive and destructive making some color appear and some disappear.

2.As light behaves as wave it will interfere differently at different angles. At certain angle it will interfere constructively and at certain angle it will interfere destructively making some color brighter and some disappear. So, at different angles the color are different.

Interference pattern is responsible for the formation of different colour when a light reflected from CD or soap bubble.

We can see colors when we look at reflected light from a CD or DVD disk, or a soap bubble or oil film on water because of the interference pattern. The colors that we see on the CD are created due to the reflection of white light from ridges in the metal. When light passes through something with many small ridges or scratches, we often see rainbow colors and interesting patterns.

These patterns are called interference patterns. White light is made up of 7 colors i.e. red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo, violet. The CD converts or separates the white light into 7 colors so we can conclude that interference pattern is responsible for the formation of different colour when a light reflected from CD OR soap bubble.

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Answer:

The potential will be Va/b

Explanation:

So Let sphere A charged Q to potential V.

so, V= KQ/a. ....(1

Thus, spherical shell B is connected to the sphere A by a wire, so all charge always reside on the outer surface.

therefore, potential will be ,

V ′ = KQ/b = Va/b... That is from .....(1), KQ=Va]

Answer:

ejkshdkashalsflasfaksg

Answer:

[tex]\theta_1 = 0.400^o[/tex]

[tex]\theta_2 =0.378^o[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The  number of slits per cm is  k =  [tex]161\ slits\ per\ cm = 161 \ slits\ per\ 0.01 m[/tex]

    The order of the maxima is  n =  1

    The wavelength are  [tex]\lambda_1 = 434 nm = 434 *10^{-9} \ m \ \ \ , \lambda_2 = 410nm = 410 *10^{-9} \ m[/tex]

The  spacing between the slit is mathematically represented as

           [tex]d = \frac{ 0.01}{k}[/tex]

=>       [tex]d = \frac{ 0.01}{161}[/tex]

=>         [tex]d = 6.211 *10^{-5} \ m[/tex]

Generally the condition for constructive interference is  

        [tex]n\lambda = d \ sin \theta[/tex]

At  [tex]\lambda_1[/tex]

      [tex]\theta _1 = sin^{-1} [ \frac{1 * 434 *10^{-9}}{6.211 *10^{-5}} ][/tex]

      [tex]\theta_1 = 0.400^o[/tex]

At  [tex]\lambda_2[/tex]

       [tex]\theta _2 = sin^{-1} [ \frac{1 * 410 *10^{-9}}{6.211 *10^{-5}} ][/tex]

       [tex]\theta_2 =0.378^o[/tex]

Answer:

Yes.

Explanation:

This is because "negative velocity" just means it is in the negative in relation to the point of 0. Negative velocity doesn't equal a decrease in velocity. For example lets say you were parked next to a cone (this cone represents zero) if you accelerate forwards then that would be positive acceleration. If you were to accelerate backwards, this would be in the negative direction, aka negative velocity.

SUMMARY:

A negative velocity means that the object which has the negative velocity is moving in the opposite direction of an object moving at a positive velocity. This is a question of frame of reference. The possibility for the velocity is what makes it different to the speed. Speed is only positive.

Answer:

a) When moving body applies brake then velocity and acceleration would be in opposite direction

b) When body starts to increase velocity then velocity and acceleration would be in same direction

c) When body is circulating then velocity and acceleration would be perpendicular to each other

Explanation:

a) When body applies brake then its velocity starts decreasing, in this case its acceleration would try to stop the moving body. So direction of velocity would be same as direction of motion of body but direction of acceleration would be in opposite direction

b) When body starts to increase velocity, its acceleration would make the body to move faster. So direction of velocity would be the direction of motion of body and acceleration would also be in same direction

c) When body moves in circular path then its acceleration would be towards centre of circle and velocity would try to snap the body out of circle to straight line which in tangent to circle.

Answer:

The maximum force that can be lifted by this system is  51,478.4 kg

Explanation:

Given;

maximum gauge pressure of the hydraulic system, Hp = 15 atm = 1.52 x 10⁶ N/m²

diameter of the piston, d = 65 cm = 0.65 m

The maximum gauge pressure of the piston is given as;

[tex]Hp = \frac{F}{A}[/tex]

Where;

F is the maximum force of the piston

A is the area of the piston

[tex]A = \pi (\frac{0.65}{2} )^2\\\\A = 0.3319 \ m^2[/tex]

F = Hp x A

F = 1.52 x 10⁶N/m² x 0.3319m²

F = 504488 N

Force is given as;

F = mg

m = F/g

m = 504488/9.8

m = 51,478.4 kg

Therefore, the maximum force that can be lifted by this system is  51,478.4 kg

Answer: 156.02 metre.

Explanation:

Give that a certain car traveling 33.0mph skids to a stop in 39m from the point where the brakes were applied.

Let us use third equation of motion,

V^2 = U^2 + 2as

Since the car is decelerating, V = 0

And acceleration a will be negative.

U = 33 mph

S = 39 m

Substitute both into the formula

0 = 33^2 - 2 × a × 39

0 = 1089 - 78a

78a = 1089

a = 1089 / 78

a = 13.96 m/h^2

If we assume that the car decelerate at the same rate.

the distance the car will stop had it been going 66.0mph will be achieved by using the same formula

V^2 = U^2 + 2as

0 = 66^2 - 2 × 13.96 × S

4356 = 27.92S

S = 4356 / 27.92

S = 156.02 m

Therefore, the car would stop at

156.02 m

Answer:

All electromagnetic waves travel at the same speed in a vacuum

Explanation:

All the wave listed in the question are electromagnetic waves. The speed of electromagnetic waves (collectively called light) in a vacuum is fixed. Its value is 3×10^8 ms^-1. This is a constant for all electromagnetic waves irrespective of their frequency.

Hence for any electromagnetic wave, its speed is 3×10^8 ms^-1, this will be the common velocity of all the electromagnetic waves listed in the question in a vacuum thus we can not rank them according to speed.

Answer:

ΔP.E = 6.48 x 10⁸ J

Explanation:

First we need to calculate the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of moon:

g = GM/R²

where,

g = acceleration due to gravity on the surface of moon = ?

G = Universal Gravitational Constant = 6.67 x 10⁻¹¹ N.m²/kg²

M = Mass of moon = 7.36 x 10²² kg

R = Radius of Moon = 1740 km = 1.74 x 10⁶ m

Therefore,

g = (6.67 x 10⁻¹¹ N.m²/kg²)(7.36 x 10²² kg)/(1.74 x 10⁶ m)²

g = 2.82 m/s²

now the change in gravitational potential energy of rocket is calculated by:

ΔP.E = mgΔh

where,

ΔP.E = Change in Gravitational Potential Energy = ?

m = mass of rocket = 1090 kg

Δh = altitude = 211 km = 2.11 x 10⁵ m

Therefore,

ΔP.E = (1090 kg)(2.82 m/s²)(2.11 x 10⁵ m)

ΔP.E = 6.48 x 10⁸ J

Answer:

[tex]r=4.24\times 10^{11}\ m[/tex]

Explanation:

Given that,

Orbital time period, T = 3.75 earth years

Mass of star, [tex]m=3.23\times 10^{30}\ kg[/tex]

We need to find the radius of the exoplanet's orbit. It is a concept of Kepler's third law of motion i.e.

[tex]T^2=\dfrac{4\pi^2}{GM}r^3[/tex]

r is the radius of the exoplanet's orbit.

Solving for r we get :

[tex]r=(\dfrac{T^2GM}{4\pi^2})^{1/3}[/tex]

We know that, [tex]1\ \text{earth year}=3.154\times 10^7\ \text{s}[/tex]

So,

[tex]r=(\dfrac{(3.75\times 3.154\times 10^7)^2\times 6.67\times 10^{-11}\times 3.23\times 10^{30}}{4\pi^2})^{1/3}\\\\r=4.24\times 10^{11}\ m[/tex]

So, the radius of the exoplanet's orbit is [tex]4.24\times 10^{11}\ m[/tex].

Answer:

-50N

Explanation:

F=ma=m(Vf-Vi)/t

F=(10)(-10)/(2)=-50N

So the force acting on the block is -50N, where the negative sign simply tells us that the force is opposite to the direction of movement.

Complete question is;

A rope, under a tension of 153 N and fixed at both ends, oscillates in a second harmonic standing wave pattern. The displacement of the rope is given by

y = (0.15 m) sin[πx/3] sin[12π t].

where x = 0 at one end of the rope, x is in meters, and t is in seconds. What are (a) the length of the rope, (b) the speed of the waves on the rope, and (c)the mass of the rope? (d) If the rope oscillates in a third - harmonic standing wave pattern, what will be the period of oscillation?

Answer:

A) Length of rope = 4 m

B) v = 24 m/s

C) m = 1.0625 kg

D) T = 0.11 s

Explanation:

We are given;

T = 153 N

y = (0.15 m) sin[πx/3] sin[12πt]

Comparing this displacement equation with general waveform equation, we have;

k = 2π/λ = π/2 rad/m

ω = 2πf = 12π rad/s

Since, 2π/λ = π/2

Thus,wavelength; λ = 4 m

Since, 2πf = 12π

Frequency;f = 6 Hz

A) We are told the rope oscillates in a second-harmonic standing wave pattern. So, we will use the equation;

λ = 2L/n

Since second harmonic, n = 2 and λ = L = 4 m

Length of rope = 4 m

B) speed is given by the equation;

v = fλ = 6 × 4

v = 24 m/s

C) To calculate the mass, we will use;

v = √T/μ

Where μ = mass(m)/4

Thus;

v = √(T/(m/4))

Making m the subject;

m = 4T/v²

m = (4 × 153)/24²

m = 1.0625 kg

D) Now, the rope oscillates in a third harmonic.

So n = 3.

Using the formula f = 1/T = nv/2L

T = 2L/nv

T = (2 × 4)/(3 × 24)

T = 0.11 s

Answer:

Explanation:

Given that

Effort = 40N

Load = 16ON

M.A = load/effort

M.A= 160N/40N

M.A = 4

Velocity ratio = V.R =radius of the wheel/radius of the axel

= 25cm/5cm

= 5

Efficiency = mechanical advantage/velocity ratio × 100/1

= 4/5 × 100/1

= 0.8×100/1

= 80%

Hence, the mechanical advantage of the machine is 4 while the efficiency is 80%.

Answer:

if this surface has a higher index than in the medium where the light travels, the reflected wave has a phase change of 180º

Explanation:

When a ray of light falls on a surface if this surface has a higher index than in the medium where the light travels, the reflected wave has a phase change of 180º this can be explained by Newton's third law, the light when arriving pushes the atoms of the medium that is more dense, and these atoms respond with a force of equal magnitude, but in the opposite direction.

When the fractional index is lower than that of the medium where the reflacted beam travels, notice a change in phase.

Also, when light penetrates the medium, it modifies its wavelength

              λ = λ₀ / n

We take these two aspects into account, the condition for contributory interference is

            d sin θ = (m + 1/2) λ

for destructive interference we have

            d sin θ = m λ

in general this phenomenon is observed at 90º

           2 d = (m +1/2) λ° / n

          2nd = (m + ½) λ₀

Answer:

4 / 7

Explanation:

1/total resistance = 1/1 + 1/2 + 1/4

= 1¾

total resistance = 1 ÷ 1¾

= 4/7

Answer:I don’t know

Explanation:

Answer:

N2 = ¼N1

Explanation:

First of all, let's define the terms;

N1 = number of electric field lines going through the sphere of radius R

N2 = number of electric field lines going through the sphere of radius 2R

Q = the charge enclosed at the centre of concentric spheres

ε_o = a constant known as "permittivity of the free space"

E1 = Electric field in the sphere of radius R.

E2 = Electric field in the sphere of radius 2R.

A1 = Area of sphere of radius R.

A2 = Area of sphere of radius 2R

Now, from Gauss's law, the electric flux through the sphere of radius R is given by;

Φ = Q/ε_o

We also know that;

Φ = EA

Thus;

E1 × A1 = Q/ε_o

E1 = Q/(ε_o × A1)

Where A1 = 4πR²

E1 = Q/(ε_o × 4πR²)

Similarly, for the sphere of radius 2R,we have;

E2 = Q/(ε_o × 4π(2R)²)

Factorizing out to get;

E2 = ¼Q/(ε_o × 4πR²)

Comparing E2 with E1, we arrive at;

E2 = ¼E1

Now, due to the number of lines is proportional to the electric field in the each spheres, we can now write;

N2 = ¼N1

The resistance R = 20 Ω

The capacitance C = 106.1 μF

The current, I is 2.773 A at 56.31°.

The phase angle of the between the current and the voltage is 56.31° leading.

Since the impedance Z = 20 - j30 Ω, the resistance, R is the real part of the impedance. So R = ReZ = 20 Ω

So, the resistance R = 20 Ω

To find the capacitance, we need first to find the reactance of the capacitor X. Since the impedance Z = 20 - j30, the reactance of the capacitor X. is the imaginary part of the impedance. So X = ImZ = 30 Ω.

Now the reactance of the capacitor X = 1/ωC where ω = angular frequency of the circuit = 2πf where f = frequency of the circuit = 50 Hz and C = capacitance  

So, C = 1/ωX = 1/2πfX

Substituting the values of the variables into the equation, we have

C = 1/2πfX

C = 1/(2π × 50 Hz × 30 Ω)

C = 1/3000π

C = 1/9424.778

C = 1.061 × 10⁻⁴ F

C = 106.1 × 10⁻⁶ F

C = 106.1 μF

So, the capacitance is 106.1 μF

The current I = V/Z where V = voltage = 100 V at 0° and Z = impedance.

The magnitude of Z = √(20² + (-30)²)

= √(400 + 900)

= √1300

= 36.06 Ω

and its angle Φ = tan⁻¹(ImZ/ReZ)

= tan⁻¹(-30/20)

= tan⁻¹(-1.5) = -56.31°

So, V = 100 ∠ 0° and Z = 36.06 ∠ -56.31°

So, the current, I = V/Z =  (100 ∠ 0°)/36.06 ∠ -56.31°

= 100/36.06 ∠(0° - (-56.31° ))

= 2.773 ∠ 56.31° A

So, the current is 2.773 A at 56.31°.

Since the current is 2.773 A at 56.31°, the phase angle of the between the current and the voltage is 56.31° leading.

So, the phase angle of the between the current and the voltage is 56.31° leading.

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Answer:

In a tuning fork, two basic qualities of sound are considered, they are

1) The pitch of the waveform: This pitch depends on the frequency of the wave generated by hitting the tuning fork.

2) The loudness of the waveform: This loudness depends on the intensity of the wave generated by hitting the tuning fork.

Hitting the tuning fork harder will make it vibrate faster, increasing the number of vibrations per second. The number of vibration per second is proportional to the frequency, so hitting the tuning fork harder increase the frequency. From the explanation on the frequency above, we can say that by increasing the frequency the pitch of the tuning fork also increases.

Also, hitting the tuning fork harder also increases the intensity of the wave generated, since the fork now vibrates faster. This increases the loudness of the tuning fork.

Answer:

They both have the same total K.E at the bottom

Explanation:

This Is because If assuming no work is done by non conservative forces, total mechanical energy must be conserved

So

K1 + U1 = K2 + U2

But If both hoops start from rest, and and at the bottom of the incline the level for gravitational potential energy is zero for reference

thus

K1 = 0 , U2 = 0

ΔK = ΔU = m g. h

But if the two inclines have the same height, and both hoops have the same mass m,

So difference in kinetic energy, must be the same for both hoops.

Answer:

your question answer is 22°

Answer:

Campbell-Stokes sunshine recorders or modern sunshine sensors.

Explanation:

Answer:

modern sunshine sensorssunshine recordersCampbell-Stokes

Cold water kept in an open container acquires heat from the warmer surrounding becomes warm like the air around it due to the transfer of thermal energy

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Answer:

The energy of one of its photons is 1.391 x 10⁻¹⁸ J

Explanation:

Given;

wavelength of the UVC light, λ = 142.9 nm = 142.9 x 10⁻⁹ m

The energy of one photon of the UVC light is given by;

E = hf

where;

h is Planck's constant = 6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ J/s

f is frequency of the light

f = c / λ

where;

c is speed of light = 3 x 10⁸ m/s

λ  is wavelength

substitute in the value of f into the main equation;

E = hf

[tex]E = \frac{hc}{\lambda} \\\\E = \frac{6.626*10^{-34} *3*10^{8}}{142.9*10^{-9}} \\\\E = 1.391*10^{-18} \ J[/tex]

Therefore, the energy of one of its photons is 1.391 x 10⁻¹⁸ J