The nurse must include the information
If you have or have had alcohol-related problemsIf you have epilepsy or any liver problemsif you are pregnantif you are breastfeedingIf you are giving the drug to a childWhat are the side effects of cyclosporine?The evidenced reactions were:
arterial hypertension 40%renal alteration 20%nausea/vomiting 16%headache 12%recurrent herpes 12% and others 4%.Adverse events normalized after discontinuation of cyclosporine.
With this information, we can conclude that Cyclosporine is considered a disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) because it not only helps treat the symptoms of arthritis but also decreases the progression of the condition thereby reducing the risk of long-term joint destruction and disability.
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The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube and chest drainage system. Which action is most appropriate for the nurse to implement
Clamp the chest tubes when suctioning action is most appropriate for the nurse to implement.
Which should the nurse do when caring for a client with a chest tube attached to a chest drainage system?
Never lift drain above chest levelNever lift drain above chest level.The unit and all tubing should be below patient's chest level to facilitate drainage.Tubing should have no kinks or obstructions that may inhibit drainage.Ensure all connections between chest tubes and drainage unit are tight and secure.What steps should you take to ensure that chest tube drainage system is functioning properly?
Apply pressure to the area where the chest tube will be inserted as soon as possible, then cover the area with sterile gauze or a sterile Jelonet gauze and dry dressing to ensure a tight seal. When the patient exhales, clothe them. Call a code if the patient experiences respiratory distress.Learn more about drainage system
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Fluorouracil vs gemcitabine chemotherapy before and after fluorouracilbased chemoradiation following resection of pancreatic adenocarcinoma. A randomized controlled trial. J
Gemcitabine has been demonstrated to enhance outcomes in patients with locally advanced metastatic pancreatic cancer when compared to fluorouracil.
The goal of this study is to see if adding gemcitabine to adjuvant fluorouracil chemoradiation (chemotherapy with radiation) improves survival in patients with resected pancreatic adenocarcinoma. Patients with full gross total resection of pancreatic adenocarcinoma with no previous radiation or chemotherapy were included in a randomized controlled phase 3 study at 164 US and Canadian institutions between July 1998 and July 2002, with follow-up until August 18, 2006. Fluorouracil (continuous infusion of 250 mg/m2 per day; n = 230) or gemcitabine (30-minute infusion of 1000 mg/m2 once per week; n = 221) chemotherapy for 3 weeks before to and 12 weeks following chemoradiation treatment.
The addition of gemcitabine to adjuvant fluorouracil-based chemoradiation was related with improved survival in patients with resected pancreatic cancer, albeit this advantage was not statistically significant.
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A blood-borne pathogen training class might
include.
A bloodborne pathogen training class might include Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), hepatitis B virus (HBV), and hepatitis C virus (HCV) they are the most common bloodborne pathogens from which health care workers are at risk
Sudden cardiac arrest is an abrupt occurrence where the heart ceases to function and results in death within minutes. According to the explanation of basic cpr, what is the first step to begin administering cpr?.
Placing of the hand above the chest is the first step while administering CPR after ensuring that the environment is safe.
When the heart stops beating, CPR, or cardiopulmonary resuscitation, is a life-saving emergency operation. After cardiac arrest, immediate CPR can increase survival rates by a factor of two to three.
A person's heartbeat will cease if they are not breathing. To aid with circulation and to assist the body to receive oxygen, use CPR (chest compressions and rescue breaths). Following are the steps of CPR:
Placing of the hand above the chest. Interlocking of fingers.Giving chest compressions.Opening of the airway.Delivering rescue breathes. Watching the patient's chest fall.Repeat steps 3 and 4.Learn more about CPR here,
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Your patient was struck in the chest with a baseball bat during a bar fight. A crackling or crunching
The sensation that is felt when air escapes from its normal passageways and is trapped under the skin is called subcutaneous emphysema.
Subcutaneous emphysemaWhen air gets trapped under the skin, it's called subcutaneous emphysema. "Subcutaneous" refers to the area beneath the skin, whereas "emphysema" simply means "air." Emphysema, a lung condition that is frequently brought on by smoking, comes in two varieties. This variety is distinct from the other. Surgery, medical treatments, accidents, traumas, or infections can all lead to subcutaneous emphysema. Subcutaneous emphysema can cause complications, but they are actually relatively uncommon and the prognosis is good. These complications, however, can be fatal. According to one study, subcutaneous emphysema patients typically spent 16 days in the hospital, regardless of their severity level.
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A 6-year-old patient is seen in the office for acute otitis media, coded as H66.90. This is an example of what ICD-10-CM convention
A 6-year-old patient with acute otitis media is examined in the office; the diagnosis is H66.90. This is an example of the ICD-10-CM Not Otherwise Specified (NOS) convention.
Not Otherwise Specified (NOS)Not Otherwise Specified (NOS) is a subtype of diseases and disorders in medical classification schemes such as the ICD-9, ICD-10, or DSM-IV. When a particular diagnosis was not determined but the symptoms were enough to generate a broad diagnostic, it is usually used to highlight the presence of an ailment.
According to the DSM-IV, for instance, "an illness or disturbance that does not fit the criteria for the specific disorders already addressed is referred to as not otherwise specified (NOS)". The phrase was created as a result of the fact that "it is sometimes difficult for the practitioner doing the diagnostic evaluation to group all of the symptoms that a client is experiencing into one diagnostic category."
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What is one way nursing assistants can assist residents with normal changes of aging related to the urinary system
Nursing assistants can assist residents with normal changes of aging related to the urinary system by helping the residents go to the bathroom frequently.
Nursing assistants complete an education program that is state approved and need to pass their state's competency exam to become licensed.
Hospitals and residential care are the workplaces for nursing assistants. they work in nursing at these places. They are a part of a big care team.
Nursing assistants, help patients in their daily activities like eating, bathing, dressing, etc. They attend to the needs of patients and help them. They also observe and record the conditions of patients.
During aging, there are changes related to the urinary system. People face bladder control issues and cannot hold urine for a much longer time, so nursing assistants can assist residents who face such issues by helping them go to the bathroom frequently.
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A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who has a gunshot wound to the abdomen.which of the following should the nurse take first
Initiate airborne precautions should nurse take first.
What is airborne?Pathogenic bacteria tiny enough to be released from an infected person through coughing, sneezing, laughing, intimate personal contact, or aerosolization of the germ are what cause airborne infections. The released bacteria hang about in the air on dust, water, and respiratory droplets.Infectious illnesses frequently target the thymus as a target organ.Cough or sneeze into your elbow or a handkerchief. Always wash your hands. Clean common areas frequently, including handles, counters, and doorknobs.When an infected individual sneezes or coughs, tiny respiratory droplets get aerosolized, which allows bacteria or viruses to spread through the air. The infectious droplets can land on healthy people's eyes, noses, and mouths or they can inhale them.Learn more about airborne here:
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PBS The Amazing Human Body: Survive Viewing Guide Answer the following questions as you watch the video. 1. What is the body's number one priority in maintaining homeostasis? 2. The body needs to be at a constant temperature. What are some ways the body does this? 3. Draw the feedback loop that happens when the muscles produce CO2. 4. Describe how infection is a threat to homeostasis. 5. How does the body react to infection? 6. What are some defenses the body has to keep invaders out? 7. Draw infection as a feedback loop. 8. Can we manage pain and if so, how? 9. What is the pain study about? 10. What is the benefit of fear? When do we become fearful in human development?
In this question we watched the PBS The Amazing Human Body: Survive Viewing Guide and answered the following questions while watching the video.
What is homeostasis?Currently, homeostasis is understood as the tendency that a system has to act to maintain its own stability, even under adverse conditions and exposed to changes.
1. What is the body's number one priority in maintaining homeostasis?
Liquid balance2. The body needs to be at a constant temperature. What are some ways the body does this?
sweating and changes in blood circulation4. Describe how the infection is a threat to homeostasis.
unbalancing body temperature and balance5. How does the body react to infection?
It activates primary and secondary immune protections6. What are some defenses the body has to keep invaders at bay?
primary, secondary and tertiary immune system8. Can we control pain, and if so, how?
pain control by analgesics becomes effective according to pain intensity.9. What is the study of pain about?
the body's sensory response to an injury10. What is the benefit of fear?
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The nurse educator is preparing an in-service on administration of sustained-release tablets. Which true statement about sustained-release tablets would the educator include in the preparation
The true statement about sustained-release tablets in which the educator would include in the preparation is that they should never be split, crushed, or chewed is what the educator should include in the preparation of sustained-release tablets.
What is Sustained-release tablets?These are the medications which are very potent and dissolve at a slow rate over an extended period of time thereby releasing small amounts at a time for optimal function.
Having it crushed or chewed will allow for more absorption of the medication into the bloodstream as a result of the surface area being increased which could lead to incidences of overdose or side effects being experienced.
This is therefore why Sustained-release tablets should be ingested as a whole substance.
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A nurse is giving shift report using SBAR to the oncoming nurse on a client who has a traumatic brain injury. When reporting information about the client, which of the following are included in the situation segment of SBAR
The patient's code status needs to be included in the background section of the SBAR by the nurse.
Why is SBAR important?
When communicating with doctors, participating in handoffs, and providing attendant-to-nurture move reports, medical caregivers use the SBAR process to report concise, correlated, and complete verbal data. Nursing assessments and handovers should be handled carefully since they provide us the ability to ask questions, inquire for clarification, and confirm information. When we must inform doctors of a routine situation, SBAR can be especially important because effective communication is crucial to the patient's health outcomes and wellness. The main purpose of using SBAR is to express a developing situation and obtain arrangement-specific critique.Original question:
A nurse is giving a change-of-shift report using SBAR to the oncoming nurse on a client who has a traumatic brain injury. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the background segment of SBAR?
a. Glasgow results
b. Intracranial pressure readings
c. Code status
d. Plan of care changes for upcoming shift
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During a well child examination of a 2-year-old child, the primary care nurse practitioner palpates a unilateral, smooth, firm abdominal mass that extends to the flank and does not cross the midline. What is the next course of action that
Refer the child to an oncologist immediately.
Who is an oncologist?A physician who treats cancer and offers medical attention to someone who has been diagnosed with cancer is known as an oncologist. A cancer specialist is another name for an oncologist.
Unilateral, smooth, and firm abdominal mass indicates the signs of cancer in the patient. Therefore the child must be referred to an oncologist who is a cancer specialist.
They'll make a cancer diagnosis and suggest potential treatments. The advantages and drawbacks of each choice will be discussed. Additionally, they coordinate your post-treatment care and supervise your treatment.
I understand the question you are looking for is this:
During a well-child examination of a 2yearold child, the primary care pediatric nurse practitioner palpates a unilateral, smooth, firm abdominal mass that does not cross the midline. What is the next course of action?
a. Order a CT scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis
b. Perform urinalysis, CBC, and renal function tests
c. Reevaluate the mass in 1 to 2 weeks
d. Refer the child to an oncologist immediately
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The nurse is reviewing home instructions with a client who just underwent cataract surgery with intraocular lens implantation. Which of the following client statements indicate appropriate understanding of the teaching
The client must be advised that lifting, pulling, or pushing anything heavier than 15 pounds may put pressure on the affected area of the eyes after surgery.
What is meant by cataract surgery?
Cataract surgery entails removing the clouded, opacified lens that causes blurry and perplexing vision and replacing it with an optical device (an intraocular lens, commonly known as an IOL).Advice for the patient:
After surgery, the individual is mandated to wear sunglasses outdoors and a cap at bedtime.Post-surgery, the client must notify their physician if they develop any new symptoms, including a reaction to light or any other ailment. During the first week, avoid getting liquid, soaps, conditioner, spray, and creams in the eyes.Learn more about the surgery here:
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4. A health and safety concern during debris operations includes _______________materials exposure, such as asbestos and household hazardous waste:
A health and safety concern during debris operations includes building materials exposure, such as asbestos and household hazardous waste.
Debris operations are the waste management operations to keep the human inhabiting societies clean and disease free. This occurs in two phases, the initial and recovery phases. A variety of heat- and corrosion-resistant, naturally occurring minerals are collectively referred to as asbestos (for example building or construction materials). The waste generated from the homes of human beings is called household waste. For example, fruit and vegetable waste.
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A nurse is reviewing the medical records of several patients who have had their intraocular pressure (IOP) measured:
The patient the nurse would identify as having an increased IOP suggesting glaucoma is patient D with an Increased IOP greater than 24 mmHg.
What is intraocular pressure?This is known as the fluid pressure of the eye. This is the amount of force the internal fluid is applying inside of the eye.
As pressure is a measure of force per area, IOP is a measurement involving the magnitude of the force exerted by the aqueous humour on the internal surface area of the anterior eye.
Hence, a high IOP greater than 24mmHg in a patient suggests glaucoma, therefore, the correct answer is option D.
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The complete question
A nurse is reviewing the medical records of several patients who have had their intraocular pressure (IOP) measured:
Patient A: IOP 12 mm Hg
Patient B: IOP 15 mm Hg
Patient C: IOP 21 mm Hg
Patient D: IOP 24 mm Hg
Which patient would the nurse identify as having increased IOP suggesting glaucoma?
The fastest growing segment of the population in the united states is:______.
a) 65-75 year olds.
b) 75-85 year olds.
c) 85 and older.
d) none of the above.
The fastest growing segment of the population in the United states is:85 and older.
c) 85 and older.Which segment of the U.S. population is the fastest growing?The fastest growing segment of the older population is the oldest old — that is, those ages 85 and older. They are projected to total 6 million as early as 2010, twice their 1990 level. Beginning in 2031, when the baby boomers will begin reaching 85, the number of oldest old will increase rapidly.
With this information, we can conclude that The fastest growing segment of the older population is the oldest old — that is, those ages 85 and older.
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The nurse is caring for a client who has sustained severe burns to 50% of the body. The nurse is aware that fluid shifts during the first week of the acute phase of a burn injury cause massive cell destruction. What should the nurse report if it occurs immediately after burn injury
The nurse should report Hyperkalemia if it occurs immediately after burn injury.
HyperkalemiaPatients with electrical burns have traditionally been thought to develop hyperkalemia as a consequence. The breakdown of red blood cells, rhabdomyolysis, metabolic acidosis, and the onset of renal failure are all contributing factors to hyperkalemia. In this study, the prevalence of hyperkalemia within the first 24 hours following electrical burn injury was examined, as well as any potential relationships between serum potassium concentration and cutaneous burn size (percent TBSA) and serum creatine phosphokinase (CPK) concentration.
First off, hyperkalemia is a rare occurrence in patients who are hospitalized to our burn center with electrical injury along with extensive skin and muscle injuries. Second, whether or not is present is unrelated to the degree of rhabdomyolysis or the size of the burn.
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The nurse wants to maintain a neutral thermal environment for her assigned neonatal clients. Which intervention would best ensure that this goal is met
Mrs. Rainwater has been diagnosed with hypertension. This is documented in which section of the patient record
Mrs. Rainwater has been diagnosed with hypertension. This is documented in Problem list and assessment field of the progress note.
An itemized list of a patient's health issues, such as nontransitive illnesses or diseases, wounds they have sustained, and other issues that have harmed them or are still bothering them, is known as a problem list.By highlighting the most significant health aspects of each patient, the problem list enables clinicians to deliver individualized therapy.The issue list aids in locating people affected by particular diseases. It is simpler to review medical histories in the electronic health records (EHR) system or analyze medical information and identify all individuals who share a common condition using ICD-11 coded disorders.Using the problem list, the care team can carry out quality-improvement initiatives by identifying patient populations with certain diseases, offering follow-up care, and making sure all patients receive treatment that complies with their needs.learn more about diagnosed here: https://brainly.com/question/3787717
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which of the following statements regarding interaction with the caregiver of a child or adult with special health care needs is correct
The correct answer is communication with the patient's caregiver or family members is important because they are the most familiar with the patient's condition.
CaregiverA caretaker is simply someone who attends to the needs or worries of a person who has temporary or permanent limits due to illness, accident, or disability. Family caregivers include people who look after members of their family of origin as well as those who look after their family of choice. As the primary source of crucial information about the patient, family caregivers play a key role in healthcare. The care recipient is the third leg of the stool, which also includes professional carers and family caregivers. The three legs are necessary for health care to be as effective as it needs to be.
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The nurse is caring for a client with a history of transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) and moderate carotid stenosis who has undergone a carotid endarterectomy. Which postoperative finding would cause the nurse the most concern
The postoperative finding that would cause the nurse the most concern is difficulty in swallowing.
What are transient ischemic attacks?
An episode of transient ischemic attack (TIA), which has symptoms resembling those of a stroke, occurs suddenly. A TIA typically lasts only a few minutes and has no lasting effects.
What is carotid endarterectomy?Carotid endarterectomy is a surgical procedure to remove a build-up of fatty deposits (plaque), which cause narrowing of a carotid artery.
The carotid arteries are the main blood vessels that supply blood to the neck, face and brain.
Carotid endarterectomies are carried out when 1 or both carotid arteries become narrowed because of a build-up of fatty deposits (plaque).
This is known as carotid artery disease or carotid artery stenosis.
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Raj is considering ways to lose weight. Which weight-loss activity should be classified as unsupported
The weight-loss activity that should be classified as unsupported is the targeted fat removal.
What is weight-loss activity?Weight-loss activity is the type of structure activity that helps to reduce the weight and fat accumulation in the body.
When an individual wants to lose weight, the supported healthy activities include:
prescription weight loss drugs,exercise plans, and eating low cholesterol meals such as vegetables.Fat removal is unhealthy and can put the life of the individual in danger and complications.
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a nurse is assesing a newborn who was born at 29 weeks of gestation. which of the following findings should nurse expect quizlt
Ineffective thermoregulation related to decreased amount of subcutaneous fat
Subcutaneous tissue also regulates body temperature by making sure your internal temperature isn't too high or too low.
What is Ineffective thermoregulation ?ineffective thermoregulation a nursing diagnosis accepted by the North American Nursing Diagnosis Association, defined as a state in which an individual's temperature fluctuates between hypothermia and hyperthermia.
Extremely low-birthweight infants have inefficient thermoregulation due to immaturity—and caregiver procedures such as umbilical line insertions, intubations, and chest x-rays can lead to heat loss as well.As a result, infants may exhibit cold body temperatures after birth and during their first 12 hours of lifeLearn more about Ineffective thermoregulation here:
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Which is an acceptable method of selecting an appropriately sized oropharyngeal airway?.
By measuring the anatomical landmark from the earlobe to the nose of the patient.
The oropharyngeal airway is an intraoral J-shaped medical device, which is inserted in the mouth of a patient who is unconscious like in paralysis condition etc. It is important to select the appropriate size of the oropharyngeal airway tube before inserting it into the patient's mouth to avoid any complications. The airway device prevents the closure of the epiglottis and opens the mouth for breathing. It is mainly used when the patient is at respiratory obstruction by the formation of excessive mucous or blockage of the airway by the tongue.
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The motor pathway of the autonomic nervous system usually involves __________ neurons.
The motor pathway of the autonomic nervous system usually involves two neurons.
The part of the nervous system that controls involuntary functions is called the autonomic nervous system (ANS). It is made up of autonomic neurons, which are neurons that carry impulses from the brain and/or spinal cord to glands, smooth muscle, and cardiac muscle. ANS neurons are responsible for a wide variety of tasks, including the regulation of heart rate and peristalsis (the movement of smooth muscle in the digestive tract), as well as the regulation of the secretions of some glands, such as the salivary gland.
The preganglionic and the postganglionic neuron make up the connection in the ANS between the Central Nervous System and its effector. This connection is found in the autonomic nervous system. An autonomic ganglion serves as the location of the synapse that connects these two neurons, which are located outside of the CNS.
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Which nutrient should all women of childbearing age consume in adequate amounts to reduce the risk of birth defects
All women of childbearing age should consume folic acid in adequate amounts to reduce the risk of birth defects.
Folic acid should be taken in adequate amounts along with food during childbearing age. Folic acid helps in the prevention of some major neural tube defects of the baby, mainly those defects of the baby's spine or brain.
Anencephaly can be caused in which the formation of baby's skull and brain does not take place correctly. Spina bifida is also a serious birth defect in which the formation of the spine does not occur correctly.
Women of childbearing age should consume 400 micrograms of folic acid each day in order to remain healthy and thereby reduce the risk of birth defects.
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Can the pupillary response be inhibited?
The pupillary response may be inhibited by problems with the photomotor reflex and/or specialized drugs.
What does pupillary reaction mean?The pupillary light reflex or photomotor reflex is part of a standard neurological examination. It evaluates the constriction reflex of the pupil, called miosis, in view of the incidence of direct light in the eye to be tested.
With this information, we can conclude that Pupillary response varies the size of the pupil of the eye via the iris dilator muscle, which dilates in response to a stressor.
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N
which would most likely be a routine risk? check all that apply.
earthquakes
o regular fire drills
quarantined patients
o "wet floor" signs
barricades in construction zones
Routine risk include the following below such as:
"Wet floor" signs.Barricades in construction zones.What is Routine risk?This is defined as the routine exposures which are easier to control than others and is usually man made.
The options listed above can be easily controlled through proper attention and observation and is predictable unlike fire and earthquakes which aren't as a result of their natural causes.
This is therefore the reason why they were chosen as the most appropriate choice.
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At the time of a home visit, the nurse notices that each parent and child in a family has his or her own personal online communication device. Each member of the family is in a different area of the home. Which nursing actions are appropriate
Nursing actions should be taken in order to minimize the use of cell phones by the family members.
As each parent and child in the family have their own personal online communication device, they remain busy with their own communication device and interact less among themselves.
According to research, excessive use of these devices can have a negative effect on all the members of the family. Parents may become distracted and become less responsive towards children. It can also effect the mental growth of the children.
Nursing actions should be should be to minimize the use of cell phones by family members and increase interactions among the family members.
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A nurse is assessing a client who has insomnia. Which of the following questions is the highest priority for the nurse to ask the client
The question which should be asked if the individual is if the individual feels tired after waking up.
What is Insomnia?This is referred to a condition in which an individual finds it very difficult to fall asleep.
Asking if the person feels tired will help prevent complication as a result of that by determining appropriate sleep patterns, diet etc for the patient.
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