That duty was breached.
Duty of care was owed to the patient.
Specifically, nursing malpractice or negligence refers to a nurse failing to adequately complete his or her tasks, ultimately resulting in harm to the patient.
What are Malpractices and professional negligence ?A nurse's errors that are considered malpractice include administering the wrong medication, giving the wrong dosage, or giving the medication too early or too late.
A negligence claim may be in connection to variety of circumstances, including incorrect or delayed diagnosis, medication errors or administering the wrong treatment.Anyone suing a health care provider, including a nurse, for malpractice must prove four elements in order to prevail: duty, breach, causation, and harm.Learn more about Malpractices here:
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A family member brings the client to the clinic for a follow-up visit after a stroke. The family member asks the nurse what he can do to decrease his chance of having another stroke. What would be the nurse's best answer
The nurse’s best answer would be to advice the patient to stop smoking as soon as possible.
What are the main causes of stroke?A stroke is a medical emergency caused due to damage to the brain from interruption of its blood supply.Stroke is mainly caused due to a blocked artery (ischemic stroke) or due to bursting of a blood vessel (hemorrhagic stroke).Symptoms of stroke include trouble in walking, speaking and understanding and may also cause paralysis of the face, arm, or leg.Medications like tPA (clot buster) can minimize brain damage if given at early stages. Overall this disease is incurable.The main causes of a stroke are high blood pressure, tobacco, heart disease, weight, age, medications, and diabetes.Smoking is an important risk factor causing stroke and to prevent stroke a person must quit smoking.Learn more about stroke here:
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A community health nurse is reviewing information related to rural hospitals and closures. Which reason would the nurse most likely note as an issue that would force the closure of a rural hospital
Rural hospitals have a high risk for financial problems.
What is the reason there are so few hospitals in rural areas?
The population density is too low to support a large hospital. There are providers available to serve the population and residents are accepting of health care services, but not as many services are needed because of the lower population density.What defines a rural hospital?
According to the US Office of Management and Budget and the US Census Bureau, rural hospitals are those that are not found in a metropolitan area.
Do you think closures of rural hospitals impact hospitals in urban centers?
A study of hospital closures in California found that closing rural hospitals increased mortality for both heart attacks and strokes. This is because of the longer travel times in rural areas, which makes it more likely that closing a small rural hospital will have a negative impact than closing a small hospital in an urban area.Learn more about rural hospital
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Which BCBS program allows participating members to temporarily access health care from participating providers while away from their home service area for at least 90 days?
The away-from-home care plan allows the participating members to have access to healthcare when they are staying away from home for at least 90 days.
BCBS
The blue cross blue shield companies provide healthcare for their members. It is available in every state and allows its members to avoid unwanted and surprise medical bills. The insurance package covers the charges for hospitalization, various laboratory services, various care plans, etc.
Their away-from-home care plan allows the patients to get insurance when they are staying away from home for at least 90 consecutive days. If they are not staying for 90 consecutive days then they can rely on the Bluecar program. But it is necessary to alert the primary care provider so that they can direct the person to the care facility. The away-from-home care program is ideal for people with kids that reside in other states for various purposes such as studying.
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When the nurse observes that the client has extension and external rotation of the arms and wrists and plantar flexion of the feet, the nurse records the client's posture as
When the nurse observes the client has extension and external rotation of the arms and wrists and plantar flexion of the feet, the nurse records the client's posture as decerebrate posturing.
Decerebrate posture is an extraordinary body posture that involves the arms and legs being held straight out, the feet being pointed downward, and the head and neck being arched backward. The muscle mass is tightened and held rigidly. This form of posturing usually means there was severe harm to the brain.
even as decorticate posturing remains an ominous signal of intense brain harm, decerebrate posturing is typically indicative of greater extreme damage to the rubrospinal tract, and as a result, the crimson nucleus is likewise involved, indicating a lesion lower inside the brainstem.
The character will receive emergency treatment. This consists of getting a respiration tube and respiration help. The character will possibly be admitted to the health facility and positioned in the intensive care unit.
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Even if an infant has begun eating other foods, experts recommend that the mother continue to breast feed until the baby is at least ______ old.
Even if an infant has begun eating other foods, experts recommend that the mother continues to breastfeed until the baby is at least two years old.
The process of changing baby habits from breastfeeding to self-nourishment is known as weaning. Breastfeeding should be recommended only for the first six months, but according to the American Academy of Pediatrics, at least one year of breastfeeding and food should be given. Breastfeeding for one year and beyond is healthy for a mother. According to the World Health Organization ( WHO), for up to 2 years mother should breastfeed the baby along with the food.
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which findings from the client's history would be symptoms of insomnia disorder select all the apply fatigue panic attacks acute pain
Answer:
symptoms Agoraphobia anxiety disorder due to a medical condition generalized anxiety disorder panic disorder selective mutism separation anxiety disorder
Insomnia is a sleep disorder in which a person is having trouble falling in sleep. Fatigue, panic attacks and acute pain- all of these are causes of insomnia. Thus, all the options are correct.
What is Insomnia?Insomnia is a sleep disorder in which an individual is facing trouble falling and staying asleep. The condition can be acute or chronic. It may also come and go on its own sometimes. Acute insomnia lasts from 1 night to a few weeks while chronic happens when it happens at least 3 nights a week for 3 months or more.
Causes of insomnia are stress, irregular sleep schedule, poor sleeping habits, mental health disorders, physical illnesses, pain, medications, and neurological problems.
Therefore, all the options are correct options.
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Elizabeth's fasting blood glucose was elevated at 210 mg/dL. Her doctor had been warning her for several years to manage her glucose levels, but she wouldn't listen. She now presents with hypertension, nausea/vomiting, proteinuria, and microalbuminuria. Renal biopsy shows glomerulosclerosis. What is Elizabeth's most probable diagnosis and what are some treatment options
Elizabeth's most probable diagnosis and some treatment options are diabetic nephropathy, diuretics, and dialysis.
What is the treatment of diabetic nephropathy?
As part of your diabetes management, routine testing is typically used to identify diabetic nephropathy. Starting five years following your diagnosis, screening for diabetic nephropathy is advised if you have type 1 diabetes. If you are given a type 2 diabetes diagnosis, the screening will start right away.
Regular screening exams could involve:
Test for urinary albumin: This test can find albumin, a blood protein, in your urine. Normally, albumin is not removed from the blood by the kidneys. A high level of protein in the urine can point to impaired kidney function.Diuretics are frequently administered to the general public to treat a variety of disorders. They can still assist dialysis patients in controlling extracellular fluid volume, hypertension, and the propensity for hyperkalemia.
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After instructing a mother about nutrition for a preschool-age child, which statement by the mother indicates correct understanding of the topic
Make sure you give your baby an iron-fortified formula to supplementany stored breast milk you have.
The nurse should not make the mother feel guilty about her decision to begin bottle feeding to supplement breastfeeding.
What statement by the mother indicates correct understanding of the topic ?She can give it to supplement any stored breast milk she might have in supply. She should emphasize the importance of giving the baby iron-fortified formula because fetaliron stores become depleted by 4 to 6 months of age
Infants younger than 1 year of ageshould not receive regular cow’s milk because it may place a strain on the immature kidneysBecause the baby weighs 14 pounds, he will require about 21 ounces of formula a day (not 36ounces), based on the nutritional recommendations that infants require 80 to 100 mL of formula or breast milk per kilogram of body weight per day.Learn more about Nutrition here:
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According to the data found in this chapter, which of the following is one of the biggest problems related to safe patient handling and mobility (SPHM)
The biggest problems related to safe patient handling mobility (SPHM) are equipment is unavailable and is underused.
Safe patient handling mobility (SPHM) is assistive handling and mobility technology which can make it safe for caregivers and patients to mobilize them without any injury.
This technology ensures independence and mobility to the quality of patients' life.
Using this technology in early and progressive mobility programs promotes patients' functional status and improves clinical outcomes.
The survey evidence shows that the biggest hurdle is that only 75% of the caretakers have access to this SPHM technology and 25% of them use it consistently.
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Approximately how many grams of protein per day should a healthy 24-year-old male who weighs 182 pounds consume to meet the RDA for protein for an adult who is not an athlete? (Tip: One kilogram = 2.2 pounds.)
Approximately 66 grams of protein per day should a healthy 24-year-old male who weighs 182 pounds consume to meet the RDA for protein for an adult.
Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA):
The average daily dietary nutrient intake level which is sufficient to fulfill the nutrient needs of nearly all (97-98 %) healthy individuals in a particular life stage and gender group.
Protein needs depend on a number of factors, such as:
weight and composition of the body (increased muscle mass)Level of physical activityEnergy and carbohydrates intake of an individualDisease or injury present (e.g. recovering from trauma or operation)Rate of growth for the person (e.g. greater during childhood )Estimated protein requirements in accordance with US and Canadian Dietary Reference Intake recommendations:
46 grams of protein per day for women between the ages of 19 and 70. (based on 57.5 kg individual).56 grams of protein per day for men ages 19 to 70. (based on 70kg individual).Learn more about Protein here :
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What program is available to support c-snp and d-snp members who may have unique health care needs?.
The nurse is assessing the stools of a 36-hour-old neonate who is being breastfed. The nurse determines that the stools are within normal parameters based on which finding
Narisety SD, Frischmeyer-Guerrerio PA, Keet CA, Gorelik M, Schroeder J, Hamilton RG, et al. A randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled pilot study of sublingual versus oral immunotherapy for the treatment of peanut allergy. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2015;135:1275-82
The FDA has approved the first medication to treat children's peanut allergies. Palforzia has been approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration today to lessen allergic reactions, including anaphylaxis, that may arise from unintentional exposure to peanuts.
What is peanut allergy?Immune system misinterprets peanut proteins as being toxic, which leads to peanut allergy. Immune system releases substances into your bloodstream that lead to symptom onset whether you come into direct or indirect contact with peanuts. There are numerous ways to become exposed to peanuts: Direct interaction.The reaction is brought on by an excessively vigilant immune system that views the proteins in peanuts as a threat. Chemicals are released as a result of the immunoglobulin E antibody's synthesis. An allergic reaction, which could possibly be lethal, is the result.A common food allergy is a sensitivity to peanuts. In the US, about 1 in 50 kids suffer from a peanut allergy. By maturity, only approximately 1 in 5 people will still have their allergy. Anaphylaxis, a potentially fatal allergic reaction sign, can result from peanut allergies.Learn more about peanut allergy here:
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A nurse on a psychiatric unit is planning care for an unconscious teenage client who ingested a non-corrosive substance that has no recommended antidote. Which of the following methods for gastric emptying is appropriate
The most appropriate gastric emptying in someone who ingested a non-corrosive substance that has no recommended antidote is activated charcoal.
What is Activated charcoal?This is the type of charcoal formed when it is heated in the presence of a gas thereby creating pores or spaces in its structure.
Since the substance is non corrosive and has no antidote then it is best to use activated charcoal as it helps to filter the contaminants or toxic substance thereby making it the most appropriate choice.
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The remaining part of the question is:
The nurse should recommend performing gastric lavage with which substance?
Low fiber intake can cause constipation and force parts of the large intestine wall out from between the surrounding bands of muscle, forming many small pouches called?
Low fiber intake can cause constipation and force parts of the large intestine wall out from between the surrounding bands of muscle, forming many small pouches called diverticula
Diverticula are tiny pouches with protruding edges that can develop in the lining of your digestive tract. The bottom portion of the large intestine is where they are most frequently detected (colon). Diverticula are typical, particularly after the age of 40, and rarely create issues. Diverticula are tiny pouches that protrude from the big gut or colon. Diverticulosis is a condition where you have these pockets. As people age, it becomes increasingly prevalent. It affects almost half of all adults over 60. A low-fiber diet, according to doctors, is the primary culprit. Diverticulitis has the potential to be a catastrophic, even fatal, consequence. Rectal bleeding is one health issue that diverticulitis can cause. Fistulas and abscesses
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which behvaiors would the nurse include i na teaching plan to eduactre a relative of a client with schoziphrenia baout the early sing swof relaspe
The early warning behaviours the nurse should include in educating a relative of a client with schizophrenia before relapse are trouble sleeping, staying away from people and mood changes.
It can be simple to believe schizophrenia is behind you when the condition is under control and the symptoms stop or improve. Relapses, however, can occur. That indicates that the symptoms return. By keeping an eye out for early warning signals, you can aid in their prevention.
Avoid using illegal substances and alcohol. They increase the chance of a relapse. Find healthy coping mechanisms for stress. It can make symptoms worse. Schizophrenia sufferers may have trouble sleeping. Caffeine restriction and exercise are helpful. Support groups offer a vital forum for family members of people with schizophrenia to exchange experiences, suggestions, and knowledge. Consult dependable friends.
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It is recommended to close off areas used by ill persons and wait before beginning to clean and disinfect to minimize potential for exposure to respiratory droplets. If possible, you should wait up to ______ before beginning to clean and disinfect.
It is recommended to close off areas used by ill persons and wait before beginning to clean and disinfect to minimize potential for exposure to respiratory droplets. If possible, you should wait up to 24 hours before beginning to clean and disinfect.
What is disinfection?Disinfection is defined as the reduction of the presence of disease causing microorganisms such as bacteria, fungi, and viruses to a less virulent amount.
When a patient that is affected by communicable disease is discharged, the area where the patient stayed must be disinfected.
It is recommended by the center for disease control (CDC) that a waiting period of up to 24 hours should be done to minimize potential exposure to respiratory droplets.
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The primary health care provider (PHCP) has prescribed codeine sulfate for a client with a nonproductive cough to suppress the cough reflex. The nurse should teach the client to monitor for which side effect of the medication
The nurse should teach the client to monitor for constipation side effect of the medication.
What is constipation?Patients with constipation may experience abdominal tightness or a severe, cramping discomfort in the middle of their gut.Even though they haven't eaten in several hours, they could constantly feel as though they have just had a substantial meal.Additionally, patients may feel gassy, yet passing gas does not make them feel better.When you have difficult or infrequent bowel movements, you are constipated. Most people eventually go through it.Even while it's generally nothing serious, once your body is back on track, you'll feel considerably better. Individual differences in the average interval between bowel motions are significant.Additionally lacking in fiber, these foods can significantly slow down the passage of food through your intestines.Learn more about constipation here:
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The nurse notes the listed assessment findings in a newborn. Which finding correlates with a glucose level for a newborn is 39 mg/dl (2.16 mmol/l).
Because the glucose level of the infant or baby described is lower than the normal level, following are likely to be observed:
Depression of brain functionOverstimulation of brain functionExcessive sweating.What is normal glucose level for a newborn?Typically, the concentration of glucose in newborn babies' blood ranges from 2.5 mmol/l (45 mg/dl) to 7.0 mmol/l (126 mg/dl).
The condition of glucose deficiency is called Hypoglycemia. This can be prevented by:
Feeding the infants as soon as they are delivered;Ensure that their glucose levels are monitored;For babies at risk, glucose testing should be done 30 minutes after the first meal; andSupplements at a young age for infants who have eating issues.What are the common causes of hypoglycemia in new born?PrematuritySmall for gestational ageMaternal hyperglycemia, and Perinatal asphyxia are risk factors that can predispose an infant to hypoglycemia.It is also important to note that:
Delay in meals.Inadequate glycogen storage and hyperinsulinemia, are the most frequent causes.Other symptoms are:
TachycardiaCyanosisConvulsions, and Apnea.Learn more about glucose level at;
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Michael was recently diagnosed with a tumor of the pituitary gland and underwent surgery to remove the entire mass. After surgery the nurse noted that michael was producing an extremely large volume of urine. What might be causing michael to do this?.
The removal of Michael's tumour may have rendered him incapable of producing antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
The pituitary gland is known as the "master gland" because the hormones it generates regulate so many distinct bodily processes. It detects the body's demands and sends messages to various organs and glands to control their activity and maintain a suitable environment. It secretes hormones into the bloodstream that act as messengers to transfer information from the pituitary gland to distant cells, so controlling their activity. For instance, the pituitary gland generates prolactin, which stimulates milk production in the breasts.
The pituitary gland also helps store and secrete two important hormones - Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin. Anti-diuretic hormone aids in blood pressure regulation by working on the kidneys and blood arteries. Its most significant function is to conserve fluid volume by decreasing the amount of water lost through urine.
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A nurse is caring for a client experiencing nausea, vomiting and anorexia due to chemotherapy treatment. What actions should the nurse take to treat this side effect
The actions which a nurse which is caring for a client experiencing nausea, vomiting and anorexia due to chemotherapy treatment should take to treat this side effect are:
Avoiding smellsAvoid anything that triggers nauseaTaking water in between mealsTaking appropriate medicationsWhat is nausea?Nausea is feeling or a sensation of illness or discomfort in the digestive system, usually characterized by a strong urge to vomit.
Vomiting means to regurgitate or eject the contents of the stomach through the mouth.
Anorexia is the loss of appetite, especially as a result of disease.
So therefore, the actions which a nurse which is caring for a client experiencing nausea, vomiting and anorexia due to chemotherapy treatment should take to treat this side effect are avoiding smells, avoid anything that triggers nausea, taking water in between meals and taking appropriate medications.
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What type of muscular assessment is the bench press test? Muscular strength assessment Muscular size assessment Muscular endurance assessment Muscular metabolic assessment
The bench press test is upper body muscular strength endurance test.
what is bench press ?
The bench press, often known as the chest press, competitive intensity a weight upward while laying on a weightlifting bench. Spite of the fact that the bench press exercises the full body.
what is muscular strength ?
The force you can produce or the weight you can lift is a measurement of your muscular strength.
what is muscular endurance ?
How many times you can raise that weight before you become exhausted is a measurement of muscular endurance (very tired).
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A patient has questions regarding a recently prescribed antitussive agent. Which response by the nurse is the best
A patient has inquiries about a recent antitussive agent. The best response by the nurse is that it will reduce the frequency of your cough
Antitussives, commonly referred to as cough suppressants, are medications that reduce coughing. Although the precise mechanism of action is uncertain, antitussives are assumed to function by blocking the cough reflex arc in the brain stem's coordinating region.
The best medicine to try if you have a dry cough is one that contains an antitussive, like dextromethorphan or pholcodine. The best medicine to try if you have a chesty cough is one that contains an expectorant, like guaifenesin or ipecacuanha. taking this medication orally, with or without a meal, as recommended by your physician, typically every four hours
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Some older adults are unable to meet nutrient needs because of __________________ and may need supplements of ________________and ______________
Some older adults are unable to meet nutrient needs because of a decrease in appetite and may need supplements of vitamins and calcium.
Nutrition is important to live a healthy life. Eating healthy nutritious food gives proper growth and development to the body and brain. With aging the proper functioning of the body declines due to deficiency of nutrients. This decrease in nutrition in the old adult is due to less appetite. This results in diseases like weaker bones, in females osteoporosis, osteoarthritis, etc. To meet all their nutrition old adults require intake of supplements having vitamin D, vitamin B12, and calcium for healthy bones.
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A nurse is triaging clients after a local disaster. Which of the following clients should the nurse recommend to discharge first
A nurse is triaging clients after a local disaster. The nurse should recommend that patients who have not suffered any blows and have only superficial cuts should be discharged first.
What is the role of nursing in a situation of public calamity?The role of nurses in urgent and emergency situations is quite broad, as they work by evaluating the assistance provided, performing risk classification, supervising and training the health team, performing arterial and venous puncture, among others.
With this information, we can conclude that Disaster nursing refers to a situation in which a health professional, usually a registered nurse or nurse practitioner, responds to a crisis situation.
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The nurse working in the emergency department places a client in anaphylactic shock on a cardiac monitor and sees the cardiac rhythm shown. Which dysrythmia should the nurse document
The dysrhythmia the nurse should document is the heart rate, peak airway pressure, and blood pressure.
What is anaphylactic shock?It is the most serious form of hypersensitivity reaction (allergy), triggered by various agents such as drugs, food and radiological contrast agents. Signs and symptoms may begin within seconds of exposure to the agent or up to an hour later.
With this information, we can conclude that Anaphylactic shock occurs when a person comes into contact with a substance that excites the immune system, causing the body to overreact.
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The creation of an illegal drug market controlled by organized crime was the result of?
The creation of an illegal drug market controlled by organized crime was the result of the existence of a huge profit opportunity.
A drug is a medicine or other substance which has a physiological effect when ingested or otherwise introduced into the body. A drug is defined as A substance recognized by an official pharmacopeia or formulary.
people use for loads of reasons: they need to revel in suitable, prevent feeling drugs terrible, or carry out higher in college or at art work, or they're curious because of the reality others are doing it and they need to in shape in. The ultimate purpose can be very not unusual amongst teens. pills excite the components of the mind that make you sense correct.
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Which types of motor vehicle collisions present the greatest potential for multiple impacts?
A. Lateral and rollover.B. Frontal and rotational.C. Rear-end and rotational.D. Rotational and rollover.
D. Rotational and rollover motor vehicle collisions present the greatest potential for multiple impacts
Close to one-third of all fatalities involving motor vehicle occupants are caused by rollover crashes (ROCs). ROCs are underreported even though they represent a frequent and significant mechanism of damage.The primary cause of illness and mortality in the young population is motor vehicle collisions (MVCs). One of the deadliest types of MVCs are rollover collisions (ROCs). A crash is considered to have occurred when the vehicle rotated by less than 90 degrees around any longitudinal or lateral axis. Because most ROCs occur on highways, there are significant concerns about driving safety. Every year, ROCs involving 350,000 passengers in 220,000 light motor vehicles occur in the US. These crashes resulted in 9000 occupant deaths and 14,100 serious injuries, while 224,000 victims had mild to moderate injuries.learn more about multiple impacts here: https://brainly.com/question/15834716
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Which of the following factors play a major role in determining that a clinical practice guideline is credible
It is clear that the developers attempted to conducts a systematic review for each important issue the guideline will address and use that evidence to formulate recommendations. Option C
What is clinical practice guideline ?The term clinical practice guideline refers to those set of standards of conduct that guide the relationship of the professionals with the client. They deal more with the ethics of the profession. The ethics of the profession has to do with what is right or wrong in the practice of the profession. Since nursing is a very noble profession, it is also guided by the known clinical practice guideline.
Certain factors play a major role in determining that a clinical practice guideline is credible. Hence, the factor that makes the clinical practice guideline credible is that; " It is clear that the developers attempted to conducts a systematic review for each important issue the guideline will address and use that evidence to formulate recommendations."
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Missing parts;
Which of the following factors plays a major role in determining that a clinical practice guideline is credible?
A. Findings with high correlations with patient characteristics were weighted heavily
B. It is clear that the developers met fact to face while developing the guideline and had candid discussion of the issues the guideline will address
C. It is clear that the developers attempted to conducts a systematic review for each important issue the guideline will address and use that evidence to formulate recommendations.
D. Only recommendations that were supported by a majority of the development team were included in the final guideline.
A nurse is preparing to discharge a client with coronary artery disease and hypertension who is at risk for type 2 diabetes. Which information is important to include in the discharge teaching
How to control blood glucose through lifestyle modification with diet and exercise
Physical activity reduces the risk of coronary artery disease. Heart-pumping aerobic exercise is the kind that doctors have in mind when they recommend at least 150 minutes per week of moderate activity.
What is Coronary artery disease ?Disease in which there is a narrowing or blockage of the coronary arteries (blood vessels that carry blood and oxygen to the heart).
Coronary artery disease is usually caused by atherosclerosis (a buildup of fatty material and plaque inside the coronary arteries).Treatment can include: lifestyle changes, such as regular exercise and stopping smoking, medicines.Learn more Coronary artery disease here:
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