The following client statements indicates to the nurse a need for further hygiene teaching "I should wash my hands until they appear clean".
Washing hands until they appear clean is not the correct way to maintain hygiene. Generally speaking, washing your hands with soap and water is recommended. Regular soap is just as good at fighting germs as over-the-counter antibacterial soaps.Clean, running water, either warm or cold, should be used to wet your hands.Apply soap and thoroughly lather.For at least 20 seconds, vigorously rub your hands. Keep in mind to scrub everything, including the wrists, between your fingers, and under your fingernails.Clearly rinse.Dry your hands using a fresh towel or let them air dry.learn more about hygiene here: https://brainly.com/question/13562099
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The first person to conduct a large-scale case-control study on the epidemiology of breast cancer was:
A ________ is not typically used in the prehospital setting for oxygen administration.
A partial re-breather mask is not typically used int he prehospital setting for oxygen administration. It is initiated for variety of reasons.
Increased metabolic demand , maintenance of oxygenation while proving anesthesia. This the most common method for home use and provide flow rate of 2 to 6 liter per minute. Allowing the delivery of oxygen while maintaining the patient's ability to utilize their mouth to talk, eat, etc.
The main purpose is treatment for patient with acute respiratory failure and those with chronic lung disease and hypoglycemia. The maintain normal hemoglobin saturation so as facilitate normal oxygen delivery to peripheral tissues.
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Because sedimentary rocks are formed at Earth's surface, they provide clues about past geologic events and settings. A low energy, quiet environment such as a lagoon or lake bed provide the perfect setting for the formation of
Shale and evaporites
What are shale and evaporites?In terms of stratigraphic and geochemical coherence, the relationships between oil shales, evaporites, and sedimentary ore deposits can be categorized. Evaporite deposition is frequently followed by oil shale and black shale deposition on continental red beds. This transgressive-regressive sequence produces stratigraphic coherence and depicts an orderly succession of depositional conditions in space and time.
The productivity and preservation of a sediment, both of which are aided by salty settings, determine how much organic carbon is present in that sediment. Through complexation by organic matter and scavenging by biogenic particles, oil shales and black shales are frequently enriched in heavy metals.
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The risk of getting lung cancer at some point in time in one's life for men who have never smoked is about 13 in 1000. The risk for men who smoke is just over 13 times the risk for non-smokers. What is the approximate lifetime risk of getting lung cancer for men who smoke
0.169 is the approximate lifetime risk of getting lung cancer for men who smoke.
In the United States, about 10 to 20% of lung cancer cases, or 20,000 to 40,000 lung cancers each year, occur in people who have never smoked or have smoked fewer than 100 cigarettes in their lifetime.
In this case, if we talk about the risk of smokers in terms of the risk of non-smokers, so the baseline risk is the risk for the non-smokers. So the baseline risk for lung cancer in men over an entire lifetime is the risk of lung cancer for men who have never smoked, over their lifetime, which is =0.013
The approximate lifetime risk of getting ling cancer, for male smokers, can be calculated as being 13 times the base risk= 0.169
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______ diets may lead to some immediate weight loss simply because daily energy intake is monitored and food choices are monotonous, but they rarely lead to lasting weight loss or help retrain eating and exercise habits.
Fad diets may lead to some immediate weight loss simply because daily energy intake is monitored and food choices are monotonous, but they rarely lead to lasting weight loss or help retrain eating and exercise habits.
Fad diets are plans marketed as the greatest and quickest way to lose weight. However, several of these diets demand for eliminating food items that include the nutrients that body needs to stay healthy. Some diets blame specific hormones for weight gain, implying that eating can alter the body's chemistry. These diets are frequently poorly or incorrectly researched.
These are the diets that are advertised in the media. Some promote specific foods, such as raw foods, probiotic-containing foods, or vegetables like cabbage. They could also consist of high-fat, low-carb, or high-protein diets. They take away significant food sources, including wheat or they remove certain ingredients, like lectins.
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Consider our Moon, a white dwarf, and a neutron star. Which of the following lists them in the correct order of size (diameter), from smallest to largest
Neutron star, moon and the white dwarf is the correct order from smallest to largest.
What is the size of Neutron star, moon and the white dwarf?The size of neutron star is 20 kilometers, the size of moon is 3,474.8 km and the size of a white dwarf is 4,300 kilometers. According to this data, neutron star is the smallest one which is followed by moon and the biggest one is the white dwarf star. We know that more in diameter represents more in size and less in diameter shows less in size.
So we can conclude that neutron star, moon and the white dwarf is the correct order from smallest to largest.
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which method of anesthesia is likley to be used for a 45-year-old alcohol-intoxicatted man closed reduction and cast application of a fractured forearm
The axillary block method of anesthesia is likely to be used for a 45-year-old alcohol-intoxicated man with closed reduction and cast application of a fractured forearm.
An axillary block is a term used for the axillary brachial plexus block. The terminal branches of the brachial plexus are rendered unconscious by the axillary block, a peripheral nerve block that is done in the axilla. Surgery on the forearm, wrist, hand, and fingers uses axillary blocks for anesthetic and/or analgesia.
The ventral rami of the upper thoracic and lower cervical nerve roots combine to produce the brachial plexus. The brachial plexus nerves pass via the neck, collarbone, and arm before entering the arm.
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The thermic effect of food (tef) is generally equivalent to __________ of the energy content of food ingested.
Generally speaking, the thermic effect of food (TEF) is equal to 10% of the energy content of the food consumed. However, the actual figure will vary on a variety of variables, including age, the timing of the meals, and the macronutrient makeup of the meal (carbs, fat, and protein).
The body uses some of the calories it consumes to digest, absorb, metabolise, and store the food it does not utilise right away, and it also burns some calories as heat. There are other names for this process, including the thermic effect of food (TEF), particular dynamic action, and diet-induced thermogenesis (DIT).
Although the thermic effect of food (TEF), defined as the rise in metabolic rate following the consumption of a meal, has been thoroughly investigated, its significance in controlling body weight is debatable.
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The nurse is conducting a postpartum examination on a client who reports pain and is unable to sit comfortably. The perineal exam reveals an episiotomy without signs of a hematoma. Which action should the nurse prioritize
Nurse should first prioritize to place an ice pack who is conducting a postpartum examination on a client who reports pain and is unable to sit comfortably.
Episiotomy :
An episiotomy is an incision performed between the vaginal opening and the anus. The perineum is the name of this region. The vaginal opening will be made larger during this surgery to prepare for childbirth.
The postpartum phase begins shortly after the baby is delivered and often lasts six to eight weeks. It ends when the mother's body is almost back to how it was before she became pregnant.
The weeks immediately following delivery establish the foundation for both the mother and her child's long-term health and wellbeing. In order to provide ongoing, continuous, complete care during the postpartum (afterbirth) time, it is essential to build a trustworthy postpartum period. The first month following birth is when most mother and newborn deaths happen. In order to improve the short- and long-term health effects on the mother and the newborn, effective postpartum care is therefore essential.
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Which scenario qualifies a patient for benefits from the Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Department of Veterans Affairs (CHAMPVA)
The spouse of a bedroom who has a disability rating.
What is CHAMPVA?
A comprehensive health care program for the husband, widow(er), and children of a qualified Veteran is the Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Department of Veterans Affairs (CHAMPVA). The cost of specific medical services and supplies is shared by the VA with qualified beneficiaries through CHAMPVA. The Caregiver Support Program of CHAMPVA may also offer benefits to the Primary Family Caregiver.
You must fall under one of the following categories to be eligible for CHAMPVA:
the surviving spouse or child of a veteran who died from a service-related disability that was rated permanently and totally disabled by a VA regional officethe surviving spouse or child of a veteran who was at the time of death rated permanently and totally disabled from a service-connected disabilitythe surviving spouse or child of a military member who died in the line of dutyLearn more about CHAMPVA here:
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A temporary permit to practice nursing issued to a graduate of a board-approved nursing educational program
A temporary permit to practice nursing issued to a graduate of a board-approved nursing educational program is denied based on a licensure candidate's criminal history.
What about nursing license?After deciding that an applicant has obtained the competency required to conduct a certain scope of practice, nursing boards issue approval for the applicant to engage in nursing practice through the licensing procedure.According to the new regulations, temporary practice licenses may be granted to competent candidates who have undergone a background check on a nationwide level. They need to fulfill all other licensing standards, have a valid license in another state without any restrictions, and have no prior criminal convictions in Washington.Must earn a postgraduate diploma in nursing or a nursing undergraduate degree to become a nurse.Despite the fact that there are other ways to enroll in a course, this is a necessity.It cannot become a nurse without one of those qualifications.Learn more about nursing license here:
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3 types of muscle tissue Skeletal muscle Cardiac muscle Smith muscle
Answer:
Skeletal muscle – the specialised tissue that is attached to bones and allows movement.
Smooth muscle – located in various internal structures including the digestive tract, uterus and blood vessels such as arteries.
Cardiac muscle – the muscle specific to the heart.
True or False: The cycle of malnutrition often begins with an infectious disease such as diarrhea or malaria.
The correct answer is True.
Infectious diseaseDisorders produced by organisms like bacteria, viruses, fungus, or parasites are known as infectious diseases. Our bodies include a variety of living things. In most cases, they're helpful or even innocuous. Some micro-organisms, however, have the potential to cause disease in specific situations. There are some contagious diseases that can be transmitted from person to person. Insects and other animals can spread several diseases. Furthermore, you could contract others if you drink tainted water or food or come into contact with environmental micro-organisms.
Fever and exhaustion are two signs and symptoms that can vary depending on the organism that is infecting you. While certain infections that can be fatal may require hospitalization, mild infections may improve with rest and home remedies.
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which component of cultural competence is being demonstrated when the nurse motivates the immigrant to accept differences in the way a pregnant women is cared for in her current residence
The nurse is using cultural desire as a part of cultural competence. This component is related to motivation and commitment towards the care of an individual.
What is cultural competence?Cultural competence helps the nurse to understand, communicate, and interact with people effectively. More specifically, it centers around:
Understanding the relationship between nurses and patientsAcquiring knowledge of various cultural practices and views of the worldDeveloping communication skills to promote and achieve interaction among culturesEnsuring a positive attitude is displayed toward differences and various culturesCultural competence expects more than just tolerating another’s cultures and practices. Instead, it aims to celebrate them through bridging gaps and personalizing care.
Practicing culturally competent care in nursing means taking a holistic approach that spans across all parts of the world. As a nurse, you should always work to respect the diverse cultures you come across when handling patients. It goes a long way to impact the capability and quality of your work.
What are the components of cultural competence?Culturally competent care consists of five core building blocks.
Cultural knowledge involves searching for information about the culture and beliefs of your patients to better understand and interact with them.Cultural skills involves your ability to collect relevant data and process it to help engage a patient in meaningful cross-cultural interaction.Cultural encounter encourages nurses to venture out of the environment they are conversant with and try new cultures and places. They improve their competence by interacting with people from different backgrounds, cultures, and ethnicities.Cultural desire requires a strong motivation to learn more about other cultures. It is a strong force that involves the ability to be open to new people, to accept and understand cultures that are different from yours, and be willing to learn.Cultural awareness involves examining yourself, dropping prejudices that you have previously formed against foreign cultures, and developing the right attitude toward giving the best health service to all patients and clients.learn more about cultural incompetence- https://brainly.com/question/20222316
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When a client has undergone a laryngectomy and there is evidence of wound breakdown, the nurse monitors the client very carefully because of the high risk for
Carotid artery hemorrhage.
It is caused when a portion of the artery wall weakens. Like a balloon, as the aneurysm expands, the artery wall grows progressively thinner, increasing the likelihood that the aneurysm will burst.
What is Carotid artery hemorrhage ?Rupture of the carotid arteries, which provide blood supply to the head and neck, results in massive haemorrhage leading to death within a matter of minutes in 33% of cases.
This condition is often caused by a neck injury. The injury may be due to a car accident. The survival rate of penetrating carotid injuries is very low due to active arterial bleedingLearn more about Carotid artery hemorrhage here:
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Dr. K's sister asks her to prescribe antibiotics to her minor child. Dr. K does not believe that antibiotics are indicated, but her sister is insistent so Dr. K writes the prescription. Is this a violation of the Medical Practice Act or Board rules
This is typical violation of the Medical Practice Act.
What is Medical Practice Act?Medical Practice Act is are rules and regulations that are governing and monitoring the practice of medicine in a particular state or country.
The are different types of medical practices that is being governed by this act and they Include:
Private PracticeGroup practiceLarge HMOHospital Based andLocum.The prescription of drugs should not depend on what the patient wants but on what would actually cure the health needs of that patient.
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Erikson's final adult developmental life stage involves reevaluating what we have done in our lives. If we feel we have done well, we have a sense of integrity. Otherwise, we have a sense of
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a client who had a myocardial infarctionr eceives a prescription for nitroglycerin patch. which statement would the nurse identigy as the purpose
Decreased cardiac preload reduces cardiac workload
Nitroglycerin remains a first-line treatment for angina pectoris and acute myocardial infarction. Nitroglycerin achieves its benefit by giving rise to nitric oxide, which causes vasodilation and increases blood flow to the myocardium.
What is Myocardial infraction ?A heart attack (myocardial infarction) happens when one or more areas of the heart muscle don't get enough oxygen. This happens when blood flow to the heart muscle is blocked.
Most myocardial infarctions are due to underlying coronary artery disease, the leading cause of death in the United States. With coronary artery occlusion, the myocardium is deprived of oxygen.Learn more about Myocardial infraction here:
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Mark has type 2 diabetes. For the past two weeks, his fasting blood glucose level has been below 130 mg/dl. Today, Mark's physician tested his blood. Although the fasting value was 125 mg/dl, she reported that he needs to do a better job of controlling his blood glucose level. Why would the physician make such a recommendation to Mark
Mark's HbA1c is 8.5. So the the physician make such a recommendation to Mark.
What is type 2 diabetes?Type 2 diabetes is a problem in the body's capacity to regulate and use sugar (glucose) as fuel.This chronic (long-term) disorder causes the bloodstream to circulate with an excessive amount of sugar. Over time, cardiovascular, neurological, and immune system issues might result from excessive blood sugar levels.Even though not all people with type 2 diabetes are overweight, obesity and a sedentary lifestyle are two of the most typical risk factors.Type 2 diabetes does not have a known treatment. But it is manageable. And occasionally it enters remission. Some people can manage their blood sugar levels by leading a diabetes-friendly lifestyle.Learn more about diabetes here:
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What fitness rating indicates that you have the level of fitness needed to live a full, healthy life
Answer:
Between 20 and 25
Explanation:
Your BMI is the percentage of fat in your body in relation to the lean muscle mass and is one of the best indicators of fitness levels in healthy individuals. If your BMI falls between 20 and 25, then you are healthy with appropriate fat and muscle mass.
A consultant is hired by a small company to configure an AWS environment. The consultant begins working with the VPC and launching EC2 instances within the VPC. The initial instances will be placed in a public subnet. The consultant begins to create security groups. What is true of the default security group
It is possible to specify allow rules but not deny rules is accurate about the default security group.
What is the Amazon Web Services?The Amazon Web Services (AWS) is a series of services provided by Amazon that also includes a Private Cloud (Amazon VPC) to customers.
The AWS Elastic Computer Cloud is a cloud based internet service based on renting computers and PCs to run heavy applications.
In conclusion, it is possible to specify allow rules but not deny rules is accurate about the default security group.
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Describe the most important personal value to you that is based on your culture.
A nurse who is utilizing the Stetler model for the implementation of EBP would recognize that the model provides a method for conducting which of the following processes
The goal of the model is to ensure that the latest research findings and best practices are quickly and appropriately incorporated into patient care.
Evidence-based practice (EBP) improves the quality of patient care and helps control healthcare costs
What is Stetler model for the implementation of EBP ?The Stetler model of evidence-based practice outlines criteria to determine the desirability and feasibility of applying a study or studies to address an issue.
The Stetler Model enables practitioners to assess how research findings and other pertinent evidence are implemented in clinical practice. The model examines how to use evidence to create change that fosters patient-centered care.Learn more about Evidence based practice here:
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The LPN is assessing a 1-day-old newborn and notices a large amount of white drainage and redness at the base of the umbilical cord. What is the best response by the nurse
To request intravenous antibiotics and to report the finding, call the doctor right away.
What is umbilical cord?During pregnancy, a tube called the umbilical cord joins you to your unborn child. It has three blood vessels: two arteries transfer waste from your baby back to the placenta and one vein carries food and oxygen from the placenta to your baby.Because it transports the baby's blood back and forth between the newborn and the placenta, the cord is sometimes referred to as the "supply line" for the infant. It provides the newborn with nourishment, oxygen, and waste product removal. The umbilical cord begins to grow five weeks after conception.Wharton's jelly, a gelatinous substance primarily formed of mucopolysaccharides that shields the blood vessels inside the umbilical cord, is present there.Learn more about umbilical cord here:
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Eating a well-balanced diet, getting regular exercise, not smoking, and avoiding high-risk behaviors are all elements of ________.
Answer: Adopting a healthy lifestyle
Explanation:
The nurse asks a patient to smile, blow out his cheeks, raise his eyebrows, and close his eyes tightly. The nurse is assessing which cranial nerve
The nurse is assessing the Seventh cranial nerve for the facial expressions and movement such as smiling, raising eyebrows, blowing out cheeks and closing eyes tightly.
The Seventh cranial nerve is responsible for the sensory and motor functions in which it transmits the signal from the pons of our brain stem to the different facial muscles for the respective movement and expressions as follows.
Frontalis muscle (raising eyebrows)Orbicularis oculi and zygomaticus major (Smiling)Buccinator (Blow out cheeks)The orbicularis oculi (closing eyes tightly)Learn more about the cranial nerve on https://brainly.com/question/13982064
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A 55-year-old client admitted with a DVT is prescribed Xarelto. Upon discharge, which of the following teaching statements should the nurse be sure to include
Bed rest to prevent clot dislodgment
If you can't get up, wiggle your toes, move your ankles and tighten your calves to keep your blood moving. If you have to stay in bed, do leg exercises. Wear support or compression stockings, if prescribed by your healthcare provider. Rest and put your legs up whenever they feel swollen or heavy
What is DVT ?Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) occurs when a blood clot (thrombus) forms in one or more of the deep veins in the body, usually in the legs.
The main causes of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) are damage to a vein from surgery or inflammation and damage due to infection or injury.Most people are fully healed from a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) within a few weeks or months.Lear more about DVT here:
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A nurse is completing a physical assessment on a client who has osteoarthritis. Which of the following physical manifestations may the nurse expect to find
The nurse may expect to find the client suffering from atrophy in the muscles.
What is atrophy?Atrophy is the weakening or decrease in size of a cell, an organ or a tissue due to lack of use.Initially the atrophied part is in normal condition but due to no use for a long time, it starts degenerating.Example: Atrophy in the muscles of an arm after it has been dislocated or broken and thus is not used for a long time.According to studies, after 3 to 5 weeks of being bedridden, there is a loss of almost half of the muscle strength.As the patient is suffering from osteoarthritis (degeneration of joints) and has trouble in moving painful joints, he is expected to have atrophied muscles in that area.Learn more about muscle atrophy here:
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Which of the following is a common fitness assessment used for senior fitness clients? Sit-up test 1RM squat 1.5 mile run 30-second chair stand
Is a common fitness assessment used for senior fitness clients the 30 second chair support test.
30-second chair standWhat is the name of the physical fitness test for seniors?The Physical Fitness Test for the Elderly (TAFI) was used, which includes 6 tests:
Getting up from the chairArm flexionStationary Walking 2minSit and Reach the FeetGet Up and Walk and Reach Back.With this information, we can conclude that Senior fitness is fitness designed for people over the age of 55 that improves their overall health.
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Side effects associated with keratolytics include _______
Answer:
Explanation:
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