Answer: Amikacin is given when infectious agents are involved.
Explanation:
Amikacin injection is used to treat serious bacterial infections in many different parts of the body. This medicine is for short-term use only (7 to 10 days). Amikacin belongs to the class of medicines known as aminoglycoside antibiotics. It works by killing bacteria or preventing their growth.
which of the following statements does not describe the consequence of inadequate calcium intake? a. low calcium intakes during the growing years limits the bones' ability to attain peak bone mass. b. a low-calcium intake during the growing years will not stunt the child's growth. c. by age 30, those with a high-peak bone mass will be well protected against age-related bone loss and fractures that can occur later in life. d. all adults lose bone as they grow older, beginning between 30 and 40.
The statements does not describe the consequence of inadequate calcium intake is by age 30, those with a high-peak bone mass will be well protected against age-related bone loss and fractures that can occur later in life. Thus, option C is correct.
Which food would suggested to the vegetarians to increase the calcium intake for adequate bone growth?
In such case dairy products such as calcium has been abundant in dairy products like milk, yogurt, and cheese, which are also frequently the best sources of calcium absorption. Fortified diets and foods made of plants do not absorb calcium as well.
As well as Calcium-rich meals are extremely important for developing and maintaining strong bones. It is also a key component for preserving regular cell activity. Your body needs calcium to support healthy muscle and neuron function, hormone levels, blood pressure, and cell-to-cell communication.
Therefore, The statements does not describe the consequence of inadequate calcium intake is by age 30, those with a high-peak bone mass will be well protected against age-related bone loss and fractures that can occur later in life. Thus, option C is correct.
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the nurse is caring for a client with suspected chronic pancreatitis. which diagnostic test or imaging does the nurse recognize as the most useful in diagnosing this condition?
The diagnostic test or imaging that would be the most useful in diagnosing chronic pancreatitis is ERCP.
ERCP, short for Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatogram, is a procedure used to diagnose problems in the gallbladder, liver, bile ducts, and pancreas. Several things that may be found using ECRP are:
TumorsBlockages or narrowing in the pancreatic ductsBlockages or stones in the bile ductsFluid leakageInfectionSince the client in the case above is suspected of chronic pancreatitis, which is a problem with the pancreas, it would make sense if the nurse finds ECRP as the most useful test to diagnose whether the client really does have chronic pancreatitis or not.
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a 13-year-old boy comes to the er reporting fatigue and a rapid heartbeat. in conversation with the parent, it becomes apparent that the boy has grown 2 in (5 cm) in the previous 5 months. what is the first condition the health care team would attempt to rule out?
Iron-deficiency anemia is the first condition the health care team would attempt to rule out.
What is the main cause of fatigue?Most of the time, one of your routines or behaviors, especially lack of exercise, can be linked to exhaustion. It frequently has a connection to depression. Sometimes, exhaustion is a sign of various underlying illnesses that need to be treated by a doctor.
What removes fatigue?Many people find that maintaining a healthy diet and engaging in regular physical exercise can help them feel less worn out. It also helps to address the underlying causes of weariness, whether they be insufficient sleep or a medical issue. When weariness compromises safety, it becomes a problem for everyone's health.
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a client has a myocardial infarction in the left ventricle and develops crackles bilaterally; 3-pillow orthopnea; an s3 heart sound; and a cough with pink, frothy sputum. the nurse obtains a pulse oximetry reading of 88%. what do these signs and symptoms indicate for this client?
The development of left-sided heart failure signs and symptoms indicate for this client.
What is the main cause of myocardial infarction?A myocardial infarction, also referred to it as a heart attack, happens when there is insufficient blood flow to a section of the heart muscle. The longer the heart muscle continues without therapy to increase blood flow, more the damage is done. Coronary artery disease is the main cause of heart attacks (CAD).
How does a myocardial infarction happen?An acute myocardial infarction can be recognized by symptoms including chest discomfort, nausea, and/or diaphoresis. A myocardial event (myocardial infarction) happens when the oxygen supply to the heart muscle is insufficient in one or more locations. This happens when the blood flow to the heart muscle is impeded.
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the nurse is caring for a woman who just delivered a healthy 7-pound baby 8 hours ago and is experiencing episodes of palpitations, heart rate is fluctuating between 90 and 120, blood pressure is 100/70. the client is questioning the nurse about her palpitations. what would be the most accurate response?
Answer:
Were keeping a check on it
Explanation:
With Hallucinogen use you develop a false sense of ______.
a nurse is teaching a client about the importance of checking the skin for changes that might suggest skin cancer. after describing the typical lesions associated with melanoma, the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the client identifies which characteristic? select all that apply.
Edges with irregularities larger than a quarter-inch diameter
The molecular structure has shifted are the characteristics that show melanoma.
Melanoma, the worst form of skin cancer, grows in the cells (melanocytes) that create melanin, the pigment that gives your skin its color. Melanoma can also develop in the eyes and, in rare cases, within the body, such as the nose or throat.
Although the specific etiology of all melanomas is unknown, exposure to ultraviolet (UV) radiation from sunshine or tanning lights and beds raises your chance of acquiring melanoma. Limiting your exposure to UV light may help lower your chance of developing melanoma.
Melanoma risk appears to be rising in those under the age of 40, particularly among women.
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after several weeks, the bladder training program is unsuccessful in stopping mr. ellis' incontinence. mr. ellis appears withdrawn and states that he is frustrated at the number of episodes that he is having.which nursing diagnoses are appropriate for mr. ellis?
The appropriate diagnosis for Mr. Ellis is the danger of reduced skin integrity due to incontinence and inadequate coping due to inability to regulate urine leaks.
The involuntary flow of urine is known as urinary incontinence. It denotes urinating when one does not like to. Due to impairment or lost of urinary sphincter's control. It can occur as a result of stress causes such as coughing, during and after pregnancy, and is more common in pathological conditions and older age group. The skin of the patient with urinary incontinence is regularly exposed to urine, which irritates the skin and puts the patient at risk for decreased skin integrity. The nurse understands that the Braden scale evaluation should be conducted on this patient and that every effort should be made to prevent the formation of pressure ulcers. Mr.Ellis's distant conduct and frustrated words suggest that he is having difficulty dealing with his incontinence.
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a 45-year-old client is admitted to the facility with excruciating paroxysmal facial pain. he reports that the episodes occur most often after feeling cold drafts and drinking cold beverages. based on these findings, the nurse determines that the client is most likely suffering from which neurologic disorder?
Based on these findings, the nurse determines that the client is most likely suffering from Trigeminal neuralgia.
A persistent illness known as trigeminal neuralgia, sometimes known as tic douloureux, results in recurring episodes of excruciating facial agony. The capacity to operate and enjoy everyday activities can both be greatly impacted by this pain. A multispecialty team with extensive training in this challenging and frequently disabling ailment is assembled for the Stanford Health Care Trigeminal Neuralgia Program.
In order to relieve your symptoms and enhance your quality of life, we collaborate with you to create a specialized treatment plan. The trigeminal nerve is a member of one of the 12 pairs of cranial nerves that link the brain to the head, neck, and torso.
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a nurse is caring for a patient in hospice care. which changes to the sensory system indicate the patient is approaching death? select all that apply. diminished taste or smell hypersensitive cough reflex difficulty hearing soft sounds persistent stare with no blinking lack of sensation when skin is touched
Diminished taste or smell, hypersensitive cough reflex, difficulty hearing soft sounds, persistent stare with no blinking and lack of sensation when skin is touched, all these options indicate patient is approaching death.
The patient approaching death is seen to lose the taste, smell and hearing abilities for soft sounds. They also experience absent blink reflex and sensation for pain and touch.
The active dying phase is seen for around three days close to death. It can be identified through irregular breathing pattern, patient seems to be in coma, their skin changes colour, decrease and discolouration in urine, fluid buildup in lungs evident by gurgling sounds and hallucinations.
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when preparing to wean a patient off positive pressure ventilation, which nursing intervention would benefit the patient the most
When preparing to wean a patient off positive pressure ventilation Ongoing emotional support.
What is positive pressure ventilation?Positive pressure ventilation is the example of physical ventilation that is used most frequently today. During pressured ventilation, its ventilator pushes airflow into the upper airway, and the resulting pressure gradient propels airflow into the minuscule airways and alveoli.
What are some instances of ventilation with positive pressure?Noninvasive positive pressure breathing can take many different forms, such as CPAP, BiPAP, and APAP. Despite having different settings, all three of them use a mask to supply compressed oxygen. When flashovers and conditions of severe heat are no longer a concern, they work best for clearing smoke from a space or building.
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which range of h 20 pressures would the nurse utilize to maintain the patient's endotracheal (et) tube cuff inflation, stabilize the tube, and ensure adequate tracheal perfusion?
The range of H2O pressures that the nurse would utilize to maintain the patient's endotracheal (ET) tube cuff inflation, ensure adequate tracheal perfusion, and stabilize the tube is 20 - 30 cm.
What is endotracheal intubation?Endotracheal intubation, or ETT, is one of the airway management interventions that can be performed. ETT intubation could be conducted on individuals who are aware or unconscious. This procedure is typically performed as part of a preoperative or emergency step to save the airway; therefore, all medical workers have to be skilled in endotracheal intubation. The tube cuff is used to stabilize the endotracheal tube and also maintain an adequate airway seal, enabling air to pass through the tube and move into the lungs.
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a 30 year-old male has a history of weakness without pain on the left side of his face for the past 4 days. physical examination of the face reveals unilateral weakness to the left side, but not complete paralysis. the left eye does not close completely. the most appropriate initial treatment is to
His clinical course is quite acute. The facial weakness implies a central lesion, and as his weakness is on the same side as his arm and leg.
A lesion is any deterioration or abnormal change in an organism's tissue, typically brought on by illness or trauma. Lesion comes from the Latin word laesio, which means "injury." Research on humans who have had brain lesions frequently focuses on determining the function of the region of their brain where the lesion originated. : of, relating to, or conducted in or as if in a clinical; as.: involving or concerned with the direct observation and treatment of living patients.
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10 mL of a 20% (w/v) solution of a drug is added to 500 mL of dextrose 5% in water. What is the percentage strength (in % w/v) of the drug in the dextrose solution?
The percentage strength (in % w/v) of the drug in the dextrose solution 188.5g of dextrose are needed.
What is concentration?In Weight per volume percentage - %(w/v) -, the concentration is defined as the mass of solute in grams -In this case, dextrose-, in 100mL of solution. As you want to prepare 725mL of a 26.0% (w/v) solution. you need:
725mL * (26g / 100mL) = 188.5g of solute =
10 mL of a 20% (w/v) solution of a drug is added to 500 mL of dextrose 5% in water. In Weight per volume percentage - %(w/v) -, the concentration is defined as the mass of solute in grams -In this case, dextrose-, in 100mL of solution.
Therefore, The percentage strength (in % w/v) of the drug in the dextrose solution 188.5g of dextrose are needed.
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the nurse is planning interventions for a client with impaired vision. which intervention should the nurse select when assisting this client with meals?
The nurse is preparing intervention for a client who has vision impairment. She will use the format of a clock face to describe the placement of food on lunch trays.
What causes vision impaired?Cataracts and untreated refractive errors are the main causes of vision loss and blindness. However, loss of vision can afflict individuals of any age. The majority of persons with impaired vision and blind are over the aged of 50. The person's eyesight cannot be corrected to a "normal" level if they have vision impairment. Loss of eyesight, which occurs when the eye cannot see objects as well as it once could, may contribute to vision impairment.
What are the types of visual impairments?Loss of central vision The cells that are in charge of visual acuity & peripheral vision loss are concentrated in the central region of the retina. The visual field is reduced in those with poor peripheral vision, who also tend to have blurry vision & visual abnormalities after head trauma.
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A patient sustained an electric shock when she accidentally touched live wires following a severe storm. The shock affected her urinary function and resulted in oliguria and uremia. How will the patient’s symptoms be treated if she develops anuria?.
Answer: Hemodialysis
Explanation:
an infant has an obstructed airway but is responsive. which technique should you use when administering back blows to the infant?
The technique which should be used while administering back blows to the infant by placing the heel of the hand between the scapulae.
Follow these steps to open an infant's airway who has obstructed airway:
1. Hold the baby on your forearm while sitting. On your thigh, place your forearm. Hold the baby's jaw and chin to support his or her head. The Head should be lower than the trunk.
2. Five times on the center of the back, softly but forcefully thud the baby. Make use of your hand's heel. To avoid hitting the baby's head on the back, point your fingers upward. The obstruction needs to be released by gravity and back thumps.
3. If breathing hasn't started yet, place the baby face-up on your forearm. Your arm should be on your thigh. The Baby's head should be lower than its trunk. Five chest compressions with your fingertips should be light but strong.
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what is the dietary reference intake for protein? if a person consumed an 1800 calorie diet, how many grams of protein this per day? show your work. (hint these are ranges). what is the rda for protein? using this value, calculate the rda for a 220 lb. person.
Protein requirements for a 220 lb. 80g per person per day.
Dietary Reference Intakes (DRI): Set of four reference values: Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDA), Estimated Average Requirements (EAR), Tolerable Upper Intake Levels (UL), and Adequate Intakes (AI).
DRIs establish the bare minimum nutritional requirements while adhering to the suggested dietary patterns. RDS stands for sufficient intake, tolerated upper intake level, and estimated average demand.
The recommended daily intake is between 45% and 65%.
1800 × 0.10 = 180
1800 × 0.35 = 630
180 ÷ 4 = 45
630 ÷ 4 = 157.5
220 ÷ 2.2 = 100kg
100kg × 0.8 = 80g a day
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a study sample who were free of bowel cancer were questioned extensively about their diet. they were followed for several years to see whether their eating habits will predict their risk of developing bowel cancer: this is an example of a:
To avoid getting sick with colon cancer, you have to maintain your diet. For those who have a history of bowel cancer or in order not to get colon cancer, it is necessary to avoid foods that are high in sugar and processed foods, such as snacks, smoked/processed meats, and ready-to-eat foods.
Colon cancer is a malignant tumor in the large intestine, which is characterized by changes in the pattern of bowel movements continuously.
Colon cancer can occur due to a lack of fiber diet, eating too much red meat and fat, smoking habits, and consumption of alcoholic beverages. Colon cancer is a dangerous disease because cancer cells that are not treated properly can spread to other organs and parts of the body.
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a client who had a prosthetic valve replacement was taking warfarin to reduce the risk of postoperative thrombosis. the client visited the nurse at a clinic once a week. what inr level would alert the nurse to notify the health care provider?
For a client taking warfarin after prosthetic valve replacement, the INR should be between 2 and 3.5.
What is INR?
International Normalized Ratio (INR) is an international standardized normal ratio recommended by WHO which is often used to measure the prothrombin mass and as a guideline for anticoagulant therapy. INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy in heart patients, stroke, artificial heart valves, and short-term therapy after surgery
Internationally, under normal conditions (people who do not have blood clotting disorders or are taking blood-thinning drugs) the normal INR value is in the range of 0.8-1.1
The anticoagulant effect of warfarin is achieved through the inhibition of vitamin K epoxide reductase. The target INR for warfarin administration is in the range of 2.0 to 3.0 depending on the indication. If the patient's INR exceeds 3.5, then the patient is supratherapeutic and at risk of bleeding complications
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a client has been diagnosed with major depression. the client reports that the client often wakes up during the night and has trouble returning to sleep. the nurse interprets this finding as suggesting what?
The nurse interprets this finding as suggesting Middle insomnia
What is major depression ?Depression is a mood illness that results in a constant sense of melancholy and boredom. It affects how you feel, think, and behave and can cause a variety of emotional and physical issues. It is also known as major depressive disorder or clinical depression.
Depression has a variety of causes. It can happen for a multitude of reasons and has a wide range of triggers. An traumatic or stressful life event, like a death in the family, divorce, illness, job loss, or financial difficulties, can be the culprit for some people.For the majority of depressed individuals, medication and psychotherapy are helpful. Medication to treat symptoms may be prescribed by your primary care physician or psychiatrist. But many depressed individuals also gain from consulting a psychiatric, psychological, or other mental health expert.Learn more about Major depression here:
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a client who is receiving anticonvulsant therapy develops a serious skin reaction involving red wheals and blisters on the face, neck, and extremities. which drug would the nurse likely expect the client to report being prescribed?
Many skin conditions such as red wheals and blisters on the face, neck, and extremities. are treated with oral antibiotics.
What tends to happen if you take an anticonvulsant in excess?
Anticonvulsant toxicity manifests itself as central nervous system depression, motor tics, and ataxia. Numerous agents are relatively harmless in the presence of toxicity, and yet severe toxicity can result in seizures, coma, and death.
Dicloxacillin, erythromycin, and tetracycline are examples of common antibiotics for a client who is receiving anticonvulsant therapy to develop a serious skin reaction involving red wheals and blisters on the face, neck, and extremities.
Therefore, antibiotics can help reduce the symptoms of serious skin reactions.
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a client comes to the clinic reporting fever, chills, and sore throat and is diagnosed with streptococcal pharyngitis. a nurse knows that early diagnosis and effective treatment is essential to avoid which preventable disease?
Answer:
Rheumatic fever hope this helps
an adult client has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism and has been prescribed an initial dose of po levothyroxine of 1.7 mcg/kg/day. the hospital nurse obtains a weight of 130 lb and would obtain levothyroxine in which available dose from the pharmacy?
Levothyroxine should be obtained in 1.47 mcg/kg/day available dose from the pharmacy
What is hypothyroidism ?A common condition known as hypothyroidism occurs when the thyroid does not produce and release enough thyroid hormone into the bloodstream. Your metabolism is slowed by this. Hypothyroidism, also known as an underactive thyroid, can cause you to feel exhausted, put on weight, and have trouble handling cold weather.
Hashimoto's thyroiditis, an autoimmune condition, is the most typical cause of hypothyroidism. When antibodies made by your immune system target your own tissues, autoimmune illnesses develop. Your thyroid gland is sometimes a part of this process.The simplest way to treat hypothyroidism is with medication that raises your thyroid hormone levels. It won't make your condition go away, but it can keep it under control for the rest of your life.Learn more about Hypothyroidism here:
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the student nurse is collecting a sputum sample from a patient that is intubated and ventilated. which action requires prompt intervention from the nurse?
The color, volume, or consistency of a sputum that was collected should all be noted by the nurse. To get accurate results, they must send your sample to the lab for analysis right away.
What does ventilated mean in medical terms?Air exchange between both the lungs and the atmosphere enables the alveoli to convert carbon dioxide into oxygen (the tiny air sacs in the lungs). Ventilation, which is also referred to as breathing, is the movement of air through the conduction tubes between the lung and the atmosphere. Air moves through the channels as a result of pressure gradients produced by the contraction of the thoracic and diaphragmatic muscles. Due to the breathing tube, patients undergoing mechanical ventilation are unable to vocalize. Additionally, patients on ventilation could be sedated or experience varying levels of consciousness; this may affect their capacity to understand or pay attention to conversations.
Why do patients get ventilated?When individuals will be unable to breathe sufficiently on their own, a ventilator pushes air into their airways, generally with supplemental oxygen. A ventilator may be necessary for people whose lung function has indeed been significantly compromised by an illness or accident like COVID-19. Ventilators, commonly referred to as life-support devices, can keep the patient alive while they battle an infections or their body recovers from an accident, but they cannot treat illness.
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a client presents to his physician with a red face, hands, feet, and ears; a headache; and drowsiness. a blood smear reveals an increased number of erythrocytes. based on the laboratory results, the nurse prepares teaching material for which disease process?
Polycythemia vera is a kind of persistent leukaemia (blood cancer) in which your bone marrow produces an abnormally large number of red blood cells. It advances slowly and is frequently detected beyond the age of 60.
Most people can live with their symptoms for many years. Blood clots are the most dangerous side effect of having too many red blood cells. Polycythemia vera causes your body to create an abnormally large number of red blood cells. The presence of extra blood cells increases the chance of bleeding, bruising, and clotting. Polycythemia thicken your blood and decrease your circulation, delivering less oxygen to your body's tissues and organs than they require. They also put undue strain on your spleen, which is in charge of filtering your blood and removing old blood cells.
Polycythemia might cause it to grow bloated and painful (splenomegaly). As a result of your disease, you may experience a number of unpleasant symptoms over time. PV can also cause a number of secondary diseases.
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56-year-old type 2 DM patient on metformin, NPH and enalapril presented with bilateral leg swelling of 2 weeks duration. BP-150/90, 5Cr-3.4mg/dl and K+= 6.5 ECG shown peaked T waves. What is the next initial step in management? A Hold metformin and enalapril B. Give Calcium gluconate 1096 C. Intravenous Lasix D. Repeat serum electrolyte and RFT
Since the 56-year-old type 2 DM patient on metformin, NPH and enalapril presented with bilateral leg swelling of 2 weeks duration, the next initial step in management is option D. Repeat serum electrolyte and RFT.
Does metformin have an impact on kidney function?In individuals with intermediate CKD, metformin-associated lactic acidosis can result in metabolic acidosis, which has been demonstrated to have a negative impact on renal function and accelerate the progression of CKD [17–19].
Therefore, Every three to six months, fasting blood sugar, postprandial blood sugar, and hemoglobin A1C (HbA1c) levels are monitored for any oral antidiabetic medications. Long-term metformin use has been linked sporadically to vitamin B12 insufficiency.
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john, the compliance officer at abc internal medicine, explained to the new employees at the new hire orientation that emtala refers to what? a. emergency medical treatment and active labor act b. emergency medical treatment act long area c. emergency medical treatment abandonment leave act d. emergency medical treatment abandonment labor act
John, the compliance officer at ABC internal medication Emergency medical treatment and active abandonment Act.
choice d. emergency medical remedy abandonment hard work act.
Job abandonment is an employee who does no longer touch his/her supervisor for three or more operating days and who isn't always on legal go-away both cases are crimes, passives and punishments, and even imprisonment.
Job abandonment An employee who's absent from work for 5 or greater consecutive work days and who without correct cause fails to inform the organization of the reasons for his or her absence will be considered to have deserted his or her employment.
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is not a very important reason to do fitness testing for comprehensive program. a. comparison of personal results to other participants in the program b. education regarding the various fitness components c. identification of weakness areas for training emphasis d. motivation to start and continue the exercise program
a) The comparison of the personal results to other participants in the program is not very important to do in fitness training for a comprehensive program.
Fitness training involves the work of the heart and lungs, as well as the muscles of the body. And, since what we do with our bodies also affects what we can do with our minds, fitness to some extent affects qualities like mental alertness and emotional stability.
Regular physical activity can improve your muscle strength and increase your endurance. Exercise will deliver oxygen and nutrients to the tissues of the body and helps the cardiovascular system work more efficiently. And as your heart and lung health improves, there will be more energy to tackle everyday tasks.
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a medical assistant is caring for a child who has varicella zoster virus. the assistant should recognize that varicella is transferred
The helper should be aware that airborne forms of transmission are how varicella is spread.
What harm does varicella do?The varicella-zoster virus, which causes chickenpox, is a highly contagious illness (VZV).It might cause a rash with burning blisters. Around 250 and 500 irritating blisters are produced by the rash, which initially occurs on the chests, back, and face before spreading across the entire body.
When does varicella become contagious?A patient with chickenpox is thought to be contagious from one to two days before the rash appears until all lesions are crusted (scabbed). Those who have received the chickenpox vaccine may experience non-crusting lesions. Until no new tumors have emerged for 24 hours, these patients are regarded as contagious.
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