A rope 40m long is used to form a rectangle. If the length of the rectangle formed is 4m longer than the width. Calculate the area of the rectangle

Answer: When x=2 and z = 1, then the value of y =4.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: y varies directly as x and z i.e. [tex]y\ \alpha \ xz[/tex]

[tex]y=k(xz)[/tex]      (i) , where k is the proportionality constant.

Put  Y=40 ,x =5 and z = 4, then we get

[tex]40=k(5\times4)\\\\\Rightarrow\ k=\dfrac{40}{20}\\\\\Rightarrow\ k=2[/tex]

Required equation: [tex]y=2(xz)[/tex]  [Put value of k in (i)]

Now put x=2 and z = 1, then we get

[tex]y=2(2\times1)=2(2)=4\\\\\Rightarrow\ y=4[/tex]

Hence, when x=2 and z = 1, then the value of y =4.

Answer:

2.23kg

Step-by-step explanation:

If you can get 1 kg for $4.50. You can perform a ratio to find out how much you get for $10.

1/4.50=x/10

.2222222=x/10

multiply the 10 on both sides

x=2.23 kg for $10

Answer:

A.       (-4,8) and (2,-4)

Step-by-step explanation:

Because you already have a value for "y" you can plug in that value of "y" into the next equation and then solve for Y and X

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

The degree is equal to the largest exponent on a variable. In this instance, it is 4.

Answer:

Slope is -.25 =

Minus 25%

Step-by-step explanation:

x1 y1  x2 y2

6 3.5  8 3

(Y2-Y1) (3)-(3.5)=   -0.5  ΔY -0.5

(X2-X1) (8)-(6)=    2  ΔX 2

slope= -  1/4    

B= 5          

Y =-0.25X +5    

The percentage change is -25% the price of fuel is decreased by 25%.

The equation of line is given as,

y = mx + c

Where m is the slope and c is the y-intercept.

Let the data is

x₁= 6 ,   y₁ = 3.5  

x₂ = 8 , y₂ =  3

Calculate the change,

(Y₂ -Y₁ ) = (3)-(3.5)

ΔY = -0.5

(X₂-X₁) = (8)-(6)

ΔX = 2

Calculate the slope,

Slope = ΔY/ ΔX

Slope = -0.5 / 2

Slope = - 1/4 = -0.25

The equation formed by using the above data is,

Y =-0.25X +5    

Therefore, the percentage change is -25% the price of fuel is decreased by 25%.

More about the equation of line link is given below.

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Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

A. Sin 42=0.669

Cos=52=0.617

B. Sin 90=1

cos 90=0

C. cos30=0.866

sin 70=0.940

D. sin80=0.985

cos 10=0.985

Answer:

72°

Step-by-step explanation:

From the figure given, angle D intercepts arc ABC. According to the Inscribed Angle Theorem:

m < D = ½(ABC) = ½(AB + BC)

Thus,

[tex] 56 = \frac{1}{2}(AB + 40) [/tex]

Solve for AB

[tex] 56 = \frac{AB + 40}{2} [/tex]

Multiply both sides by 2

[tex] 56*2 = \frac{AB + 40}{2}*2 [/tex]

[tex] 112 = AB + 40 [/tex]

Subtract both sides by 40

[tex] 112 - 40 = AB + 40 - 40 [/tex]

[tex] 72 = AB [/tex]

Arc AB = 72°

Answer:

7/8

Step-by-step explanation:

63 ÷ 9/72 ÷ 9

= 7/8

Answer:

7/8

Step-by-step explanation:

63/9 = 7

72/9 = 8

then:

63/72 = 7/8

Answer:

2.35 x 10^11

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for finding the nth term in a geometric sequence is ar^n-1.

a = 3, r = 23, and n = 9:

3(23)^9-1 = 3(23)^8 = 2.35 x 10^11.

Answer:

13 mi

Step-by-step explanation:

Since this is a right triangle, we can use the Pythagorean theorem

a^2+b^2 = c^2  where a and b are the legs and c is the hypotenuse

5^2 +12^2 = c^2

25+144 = c^2

169 = c^2

Taking the square root of each side

sqrt(169) = sqrt(c^2)

13 = c

Answer:

362

(8

10-7) - (-6.25 • 10-2)

Answer:

(5,3) and (5,9)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]T.S.A = \pi r(r+l)\\l = 10mm\\r = 7mm\\\\T.S.A = 3.14 \times 7(7 + 10)\\= 21.98(17)\\T.S.A = 373.66\\\\T.S.A = 373.66[/tex]

Answer:

Area = 13.5 cm^2

Step-by-step explanation:

When we know 2 sides and the included angle

the area is  =(½)ab sin C

where a and b are the side lengths and C is the angle between them

Area = 1/2 ( 13*7) sin 38

Area = 13.48477

Rounding to the nearest tenth

Area = 13.5 cm^2

Answer:

145.8

Step-by-step explanation:

l.s.f for the two is 3:5

volume scale factor will be 3³:5³ which us 27:125

so 27×675 / 125

= 145.8

Answer:

Tess wins the prize.

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\boxed{\text{Indi}: 2-3}[/tex]

[tex]\boxed{\text{Mark}: -7-(-4)}[/tex]

[tex]\boxed{\text{Tess}: -1-(-7)}[/tex]

The expression of Indi's card is 2 - 3 = -1

The expression of Mark's card is -7 - (-4) = -7+4= -3

The expression of Tess's card is -1 - (-7) = -1+7= 6

Answer:

19/25

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

It's actually: None of these.

Think about it: In this case we have an inequality, of x ≤ 0.

This basically means, that x can be less than OR equal to 0.

But 0 is neither negative or positive, so we can eliminate the following answer choices:

- all positive integers

- all negative real numbers

- all positive real numbers

- all negative integers

And we are left with "None of these"

Let me know if this helps!

Option B is correct. None of these options is the right answer since zero is neither an integer nor a real number

Before we can decide which option is correct, first we must integers and real numbers are.

Given the set of numbers {x | x ≤ 0}. The set of numbers in the set will be all integers less than zero including zero (zero is not an integer)

Hence the set of numbers are not all negative integers since 0 is not a negative integer.

They are not all positive integers rather they are mostly negative integers

They are not all positive and negative real values because zero is not a real integer.

Hence we can conclude that None of the options is correct.

Learn more here: https://brainly.com/question/2691012

Answer:

we have to add (-b) to get (a)

Step-by-step explanation:

a+b+(-b)=a

a+b-b=a

a=a

Hence verified.

Hope this helps you. Have a nice day^_^

Answer:

B. False

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given a graph of a function. Shown graph represents a function because there is only unique value of y for each unique value of x.

So, it would pass the vertical line test.

All the vertical lines on the graph would cross the graph at only single point (unique) point.

But if we draw the inverse function graph, each of (x,y) coordinate would switch to (y,x) and the graph would flip to right side.

And if we draw any vertical line on the graph, it could cut the graph at two or more points.

Therefore, it would not pass the vertical line test and it would not be a graph of a function.

The inverse of the function graphed below is not a function as it fails to pass the horizontal test. Hence, B. False is the right option.

A function is a relation between a dependent and an independent variable, say y and x respectively, written as y = f(x). Any such relationship will be called a function if and only if, there is only one value of y corresponding to every x.

We check for a graphed relation to be a function using the vertical test.

The inverse of a function, say y = f(x), is given as x = f⁻¹(y), is also a function when f⁻¹(y) passes the vertical test, or simply y = f(x) passes the horizontal test.

In the question, we are asked to tell whether the inverse of the given function graphed is also a function or not.

To check if the inverse is a function, we perform the horizontal test.

The given graph fails to pass the horizontal test, as for almost every line, the graph intersects two times to the line.

For example, the horizontal line y = 5, the graph intersects at two points.

Thus, the inverse of the function graphed below is not a function as it fails to pass the horizontal test. Hence, B. False is the right option.

Learn more about functions and inverse of functions at

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Answer:

1≤f(x)≤5

Step-by-step explanation:

-1≤x≤1

-2≤2x≤2 (Multiplied by 2 both side)

-2+3≤2x+3≤2+3 (Adding three both sides)

1≤f(x)≤5

Answer:

I'm not so sure but i guess it's option D y=5x-3

the question said that the number of box of nails are purchased depending on how many houses they planned to build. so for knowing the boxes of nails they need to purchase they need to subtract the boxes which were left and the boxes we need now

Answer:

i think it is true

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A correlation coeff close to +1 would have a positive slope, and all dots representing the data set would be quite close to the regression line.  

Correlation is a measure of association between two variables. IF there is a perfect linear association then correlation would be nearer to 1.  

Correlation always lies between -1 and +1.

If between-1 and 0 we say there is a negative correlation.

If nearer to 1 than to 0 then we say strong correlation

Here given correlation is 0.95 i.e. positive and have almost perfect linear relation.

Hence we see that Graph C shows almost linear relationship with slope positive

So option C is answer

Answer:

If the order doesn't matter then we have a combination, if the order do matter then we have a permutation. One could say that a permutation is an ordered combination. The number of permutations of n objects taken r at a time is determined by the following formula: P(n,r)=n!

Step-by-step explanation:

To calculate the probability of a combination, you will need to consider the number of favorable outcomes over the number of total outcomes. Combinations are used to calculate events where order does not matter. In this lesson, we will explore the connection between these two essential topics.

Answer:

combination : If the order of numbers  or  operations does not matter

Permutation : when the order of numbers matter ( common example most teachers use : a code of 4 numbers has to be in a certain order and the numbers are from 0 to 9 , how many permutation can you make if you use the number one time)

P=n!/(n-r)!

n! ( are number from 0-9 we have 10 numbers)

r is the number of digits in the code = 4

n!=10*9*8*7*6*5*4*2*1

(n-r)!=(10-4)!=6!=6*5*4*3*2*1

P=5040 ways ( if the order matter)

If the order does not matter

Combination C(n,r)=n!/(n-r)!r!

C(10,4)=(10*9*8*7*6*5*4*2*1)/[(6*5*4*3*2*1)(4*3*2*1)]

Answer: 60

Step-by-step explanation:

So easy so the n is 9 so 9 plus 1 is 10 6(10) then multiply so 60

Answer:

-10 & -40

Step-by-step explanation:

the last number before you get to 0 when continuing the -30 trend is 20. 20-30= -10. Then to get the next number simply subtract 30 again to get -40. Therefore, your answers are -10 & -40.

Answer:

-10 and - 40

Step-by-step explanation:

If 30 is subtracted.

30×6= 180

200-180=20

20-30= - 10

-10-30= - 40.

.:the first two numbers less than zero are. - 10 AND - 40

Answer:

c is the answer

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Answers                                                     Work

a.60 miles in one hour                               420/7                

b.12 customers in one day                        360/30

c.2.5 meters in I second                            40/16

d.$1.59 for 1 pound                                   7.96/5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

(C) [tex]y = 2x+5[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Looking at this graph, we can see that the slope of it is 2. We know this because for every time x increases by 1, y increases by 2.

We also know that the y-intercept of this graph is 5, since it intercepts the y-axis at the value 5.

We can easily create an equation with this info.

[tex]y = 2x + 5[/tex].

Hope this helped!

Answer:

C. y= 2x+5

Step-by-step explanation:

y=mx+b

(+b) is y- intercept

(mx) is the slope.

plot the y- intercept first which the line starts at (0,5)

since the slope isn't a fraction you turn it into one which would be

[tex] \frac{2}{1} [/tex]

Answer:

(a) 283 days

(b) 248 days

Step-by-step explanation:

The complete question is:

The pregnancy length in days for a population of new mothers can be approximated by a normal distribution with a mean of 268 days and a standard deviation of 12 days. ​(a) What is the minimum pregnancy length that can be in the top 11​% of pregnancy​ lengths? ​(b) What is the maximum pregnancy length that can be in the bottom ​5% of pregnancy​ lengths?

Solution:

The random variable X can be defined as the pregnancy length in days.

Then, from the provided information [tex]X\sim N(\mu=268, \sigma^{2}=12^{2})[/tex].

(a)

The minimum pregnancy length that can be in the top 11​% of pregnancy​ lengths implies that:

P (X > x) = 0.11

⇒ P (Z > z) = 0.11

⇒ z = 1.23

Compute the value of x as follows:

[tex]z=\frac{x-\mu}{\sigma}\\\\1.23=\frac{x-268}{12}\\\\x=268+(12\times 1.23)\\\\x=282.76\\\\x\approx 283[/tex]

Thus, the minimum pregnancy length that can be in the top 11​% of pregnancy​ lengths is 283 days.

(b)

The maximum pregnancy length that can be in the bottom ​5% of pregnancy​ lengths implies that:

P (X < x) = 0.05

⇒ P (Z < z) = 0.05

⇒ z = -1.645

Compute the value of x as follows:

[tex]z=\frac{x-\mu}{\sigma}\\\\-1.645=\frac{x-268}{12}\\\\x=268-(12\times 1.645)\\\\x=248.26\\\\x\approx 248[/tex]

Thus, the maximum pregnancy length that can be in the bottom ​5% of pregnancy​ lengths is 248 days.