A square loop 16.0 cm on a side has a resistance of 6.35 Ω . It is initially in a 0.510 T magnetic field, with its plane perpendicular to B , but is removed from the field in 40.5 ms.

Required:
Calculate the electric energy dissipated in this process.

Answer:

The maximum wavelength of incident light that can produce photoelectrons from silver is 423.5 nm.

Explanation:

Given;

work function of silver, Φ = 2.93 eV = 2.93 x 1.602 x 10⁻¹⁹ J = 4.6939 x 10⁻¹⁹ J

Apply Einstein Photo electric effect;

E = K.E + Ф

Where;

E is the energy of the incident light

K.E is the kinetic of electron

Ф is the work function of silver surface

For the incident light to have maximum wavelength, the kinetic energy of the electron will be zero.

E = Ф

hf = Ф

[tex]h\frac{c}{\lambda} = \phi[/tex]

where;

c is speed of light = 3 x 10⁸ m/s

h is Planck's constant, = 6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ J/s

λ is the wavelength of the incident light

[tex]\lambda = \frac{hc}{\phi}\\\\\lambda =\frac{6.626*10^{-34} *3*10^8}{4.6939*10^{-19}} \\\\\lambda = 4.235 *10^{-7} \ m\\\\\lambda = 423.5 *10^{-9} \ m\\\\\lambda = 423.5 \ nm[/tex]

Therefore, the maximum wavelength of incident light that can produce photoelectrons from silver is 423.5 nm.

Answer:

The answer is "45.79 m/s"

Explanation:

Given values:

diameter= 25 cm

w= 3500 rpm

Formula:

[tex]\boxed{v=w \times r} \ \ \ \ \ \ _{where} \ \ \ w = \frac{rad}{s} \ \ \ and \ \ \ r = meters[/tex]

Calculating r:

[tex]r= \frac{diameter}{2}[/tex]

  [tex]=\frac{25}{2}\\\\=12.5 \ cm[/tex]

converting value into meters: [tex]12.5 \times 10^{-2} \ \ meter[/tex]

calculating w:

[tex]w= diameter \times \frac{2\pi}{60}\\[/tex]

   [tex]= 3500 \times \frac{2\times 3.14}{60}\\\\= 3500 \times \frac{2\times 314}{6000}\\\\= 35 \times \frac{314}{30}\\\\= 35 \times \frac{314}{30}\\\\=\frac{10990}{30}\\\\=\frac{1099}{3}\\\\=366.33[/tex]

w= 366.33 [tex]\ \ \frac{rad}{s}[/tex]

Calculating v:

[tex]v= w\times r\\[/tex]

  [tex]= 366.33 \times 12.5 \times 10^{-2}\\\\= 366.33 \times 12.5 \times 10^{-2}\\\\= 4579.125 \times 10^{-2}\\\\\boxed{=45.79 \ \ \frac{m}{s}}[/tex]

Complete question:

Two 10-cm-diameter charged rings face each other, 25.0cm apart. Both rings are charged to +20.0nC. What is the electric field strength at:

a) the midpoint between the two rings?

b) the center of the left ring?

Answer:

a) the electric field strength at the midpoint between the two rings is 0

b) the electric field strength at the center of the left ring is 2712.44 N/C

Explanation:

Given;

distance between the two rings, d = 25 cm = 0.25 m

diameter of each ring, d = 10 cm = 0.1 m

radius of each ring, r = [tex]\frac{0.1}{2} = 0.05 \ m[/tex]

the charge on each ring, q = 20 nC

Electric field strength for a ring with radius r and distance x from the center of the ring is given as;

[tex]E = \frac{kxQ}{(x^2 +r^2)^{3/2}}[/tex]

The electric field strength at the midpoint;

the distance from the left ring to the mid point , x = 0.25 m / 2 = 0.125 m

[tex]E = \frac{kxQ}{(x^2 +r^2)^{3/2}} \\\\E = \frac{8.99*10^{9}*0.125*20*10^{-9}}{(0.125^2 + 0.05^2)^{3/2}} \\\\E = 9210.5 \ N/C[/tex]

[tex]E_{left} = 9210.5 \ N/C[/tex]

The electric field strength due to right ring is equal in magnitude to left ring but opposite in direction;

[tex]E_{right} = -9210.5 \ N/C[/tex]

The electric field strength at the midpoint;

[tex]E_{mid} = E_{left} + E_{right}\\\\E_{mid} = 9210.5 \ N/C - 9210.5 \ N/C\\\\E_{mid} = 0[/tex]

(b)

The distance from the right ring to center of the left ring, x = 0.25 m.

[tex]E = \frac{KxQ}{(x^2 +r^2)^{3/2}} \\\\E = \frac{8.99*10^{9} *0.25*20*10^{-9}}{(0.25^2 + 0.05^2)^{3/2}} \\\\E = 2712.44 \ N/C[/tex]

Answer:

8.28 V

Explanation:

Using,

N2/N1 = V2/V1.................. Equation 1

Where N2/N1 = Turn ratio of the transformer, V1 = primary/input voltage, V2 = output/secondary voltage

make V2 the subject of the equation

V2 = (N2/N1)V1............ Equation 2

Given: N2/N1 = 2:29 = 2/29, V1 = 120 V

Substitute these values into equation 2

V2 = (2/29)120

V2 = 8.28 V

Hence the rms output voltage of the transformer = 8.28 V

Answer:

From fastest speed to slowest speed, the electromagnetic waves are ranked as(up to down):

d. X-ray

c. Green light

a. Yellow light

f. Infrared wave

b. FM radio wave

e. AM radio wave

Explanation:

Electromagnetic waves are waves produced as a result of vibrations between an electric field and a magnetic field. The waves have three properties and these properties are frequency, speed and wavelength, which are related by the relationship below

V = Fλ

where:\

V = speed (velocity)

F = frequency

λ = wavelength.

From the relationship above, it is seen that the speed of a wave is directly proportional to its frequency. The higher the frequency, the higher the speed. Therefore, from the list given, the waves with  the highest to lowest frequencies/ from left to right are:

X-ray (3×10¹⁹ Hz to 3×10¹⁶Hz), Green light (5.66×10¹⁴Hz), Yellow light (5.17×10¹⁴Hz), Infrared wave (3×10¹¹Hz), FM radio wave (10.8×10⁸Hz to 8.8×10⁷Hz), AM radio wave (1.72 × 10⁶Hz to 5.5×10⁵Hz).

This corresponds to the speed from highest to lowest from left to right.

Explanation:

Distance = speed × time

d = (340 m/s) (9.6 s)

d = 3264 m

Answer:

Hi I hope this is correct!

Explanation:

To find average velocity you can use the formula av = (v1 + v2) / 2

*I converted everything into m/s because that it usually the measurement for velocity*

v1 = initial velocity = 8.49376 m/s , v2 = final velocity = 33.528 m/s

av = 8.49376 + 33.528 / 2

    = 21.01088 m/s

*If you were required to leave the final answer in mph here it is

av = 19 + 75 / 2

    = 47 mph

Hope this helps! Best of luck <3

Explanation:

hope it helps you

...

...

..

We have that the total distance covered by the runner is

[tex]d_t=20.723miles[/tex]

The total distance covered by the runner is a sum of all miles covered by the runner

Therefore

With

[tex]d_t[/tex]=Total distance

[tex]d_t=d_1+d_2+d_3\\\\d_t=9.5+8.89+2.333[/tex]

[tex]d_t=20.723miles[/tex]

in conclusion

The total distance covered by the runner is

[tex]d_t=20.723miles[/tex]

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Answer:

The answer is A

Explanation:

Answer:

implausible or untestable scientific claims

Explanation:

Using Equations of Motion :

[tex]s = ut + \frac{1}{2} g {t}^{2} [/tex]

Height = 0 * 4 + 4.9 * 16

Height = 78.4 m

Answer:

a) m = 0.626 kg , b) T = 2.09 s , c)   a = 1.0544 m / s²

Explanation:

In a spring mass system the equation of motion is

        x = A cos (wt + Ф)

with      w = √(k / m)

a) velocity is defined by

        v = dx / dt

        v = - A w sin (wt + Ф)          (1)

give us that the speed is

        v = 26.1 m / s

for the point

        x = a / 2

the range of motion is a = 11.0 cm

       x = 11.0 / 2

       x = 5.5 cm

Let's find the time it takes to get to this distance

       wt + Ф = cos⁻¹ (x / A)

       wt + Ф = cos 0.5

        wt + Ф = 0.877

In the exercise they do not indicate that the body started its movement with any speed, therefore we assume that for the maximum elongation the body was released, therefore the phase is zero f

       Ф = 0

       wt = 0.877

       t = 0.877 / w

we substitute in equation 1

       26.1 = -11.0 w sin (w 0.877 / w)

        w = 26.1 / (11 sin 0.877))

        w = 3.096 rad / s

from the angular velocity equation

       w² = k / m

       m = k / w²

       m = 6 / 3,096²

       m = 0.626 kg

b) angular velocity and frequency are related

       w = 2π f

frequency and period are related

        f = 1 / T

we substitute

        w = 2π / T

        T = 2π / w

        T = 2π / 3,096

        T = 2.09 s

c) maximum acceleration

 the acceleration of defined by

        a = dv / dt

        a = - Aw² cos (wt)

the acceleration is maximum when the cosine is ±1

         a = A w²

          a = 11  3,096²

        a = 105.44 cm / s²

we reduce to m / s

        a = 1.0544 m / s²

Answer:

Explanation:

The force experienced by the moving electron in the magnetic field is expressed as F = qvBsinθ where;

q is the charge on the electron

v is the velocity of the electron

B is the magnetic field strength

θ is the angle that the velocity of the electron make with the magnetic field.

Given parameters

F =  1.40*10⁻¹⁶ N

q = 1.6*10⁻¹⁹C

v = 3.94*10³m/s

B = 1.23T

Required

Angle that the velocity of the electron make with the magnetic field

Substituting the given parameters into the formula:

1.40*10⁻¹⁶ =  1.6*10⁻¹⁹ * 3.94*10³ * 1.23 * sinθ

1.40*10⁻¹⁶ = 7.75392 * 10⁻¹⁹⁺³sinθ

1.40*10⁻¹⁶ = 7.75392 * 10⁻¹⁶sinθ

sinθ = 1.40*10⁻¹⁶/7.75392 * 10⁻¹⁶

sinθ = 1.40/7.75392

sinθ = 0.1806

θ = sin⁻¹0.1806

θ₁ = 10.4⁰

Since sinθ is positive in the 1st and 2nd quadrant, θ₂ = 180-θ₁

θ₂ = 180-10.4

θ₂ = 169.6⁰

Hence, the angle that the velocity of the electron make with the magnetic field are 10.4⁰ and 169.6⁰

Answer:

The intensity is  [tex]I_2 = 1654 \ W/m^2[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The intensity of the unpolarized light is  [tex]I_o = 4000 \ W/m^2[/tex]

    The  angle between the ideal polarizing sheet is  [tex]\theta = 0.429 \ rad = 0.429 * 57.296 = 24.58^o[/tex]

Generally the intensity of  light emerging from the first polarizer is mathematically represented as

               [tex]I_2 = \frac{I_o}{2}[/tex]

substituting values

               [tex]I_1 = \frac{4000}{2}[/tex]

                [tex]I_1 = 2000 \ W/m^2[/tex]

Then the intensity of  incident light emerging from the second polarizer is mathematically represented by Malus law as

                 [tex]I_2 = I_1 cos^2 (\theta )[/tex]

substituting values

                [tex]I_2 = 2000 * [cos (24.58)]^2[/tex]

                [tex]I_2 = 1654 \ W/m^2[/tex]

Answer:

The average power dissipated is 72 W.

Explanation:

Given;

peak voltage of the AC circuit, V₀ = 120 V

resistance of the resistor, R = 100 -ohm

The average power dissipated by the resistor is given by;

[tex]P_{avg} = \frac{1}{2} I_oV_o= I_{rms}V_{rms} = \frac{V_{rms}^2}{R}[/tex]

where;

[tex]V_{rms}[/tex] is the root-mean-square-voltage

[tex]V_{rms} = \frac{V_o}{\sqrt{2}} \\\\V_{rms} = \frac{120}{\sqrt{2}}\\\\V_{rms} = 84.853 \ V[/tex]

The average power dissipated by the resistor is calculated as;

[tex]P_{avg} = \frac{V_{rms}^2}{R}\\\\P_{avg} = \frac{84.853^2}{100}\\\\P_{avg} = 72 \ W[/tex]

Therefore, the average power dissipated is 72 W.

Answer:

Explanation:

150/5  = 30

30mph per 1 second

Answer:

[tex]N = 208 \ turns[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The  rate of  current change is  [tex]\frac{di }{dt} = 0.0200 \ A/s[/tex]

    The  magnitude of the induced emf is  [tex]\epsilon = 12.7 \ mV = 12.7 *10^{-3} \ V[/tex]

     The  current is  [tex]I = 1.50 \ A[/tex]

      The  average  flux is  [tex]\phi = 0.00458 \ Wb[/tex]

Generally the number of  turns the number of turn the solenoid has is mathematically represented as  

            [tex]N = \frac{\epsilon_o * I}{ \phi * \frac{di}{dt} }[/tex]

substituting values

           [tex]N = \frac{ 12.7*10^{-3} * 1.50 }{ 0.00458 * 0.0200 }[/tex]

            [tex]N = 208 \ turns[/tex]

Answer:

english

Explanation:

Answer:

The magnitude of the magnetic flux through the loop is 0.0982 T.m²

Explanation:

Given;

magnitude of magnetic field, B = 0.5 T

radius of the loop, r = 0.25 m

Area of the loop is given by;

A = πr²

A = 3.142 x (0.25)²

A = 0.1964 m²

The magnitude of the magnetic flux through the loop is given by;

Ф = BA

Where;

B is the magnitude of the magnetic field

A is area of the field

Ф = 0.5 x 0.1964

Ф = 0.0982 T.m²

Therefore, the magnitude of the magnetic flux through the loop is 0.0982 T.m²

Answer:

Explanation:

Time is not part of the Work equation. That's the only conclusion that you can come to.

Work = Force * distance.

Not enough information is given to go any further. You don't have enough information to calculate the distance.

We don't know if the box can be moved or not. It says heavy. 50 N is really not very much.

I would guess that you are intended to answer that the box didn't move, but it's really hard to tell.

Answer:

D. It does not emit greenhouse gases.

Explanation:

D. It does not emit greenhouse gases.

Answer: F

Out of the page.

Explanation:

For an electron with a charge of -e, the magnitude of the force on it is F = BeV

Where

F = force on the electron

e = charge ( electrons )

V = velocity

B = magnetic field

F is the force acting on all the electrons in a wire which gives rise to the F = BIL

Where

I = current

L = length of the wire

The force F is always at the right angle to the particle's velocity and its direction can be found using the left hand rule.

When the electron is moving in the plane of the page in the direction indicated by the arrow, the force on the electron is directed out of the page.

Answer:

The speed of the electron is 1.371 x 10⁶ m/s.

Explanation:

Given;

wavelength of the ultraviolet light beam, λ = 130 nm = 130 x 10⁻⁹ m

the work function of the molybdenum surface, W₀ = 4.2 eV = 6.728 x 10⁻¹⁹ J

The energy of the incident light is given by;

E = hf

where;

h is Planck's constant = 6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ J/s

f = c / λ

[tex]E = \frac{hc}{\lambda} \\\\E = \frac{6.626*10^{-34} *3*10^{8}}{130*10^{-9}} \\\\E = 15.291*10^{-19} \ J[/tex]

Photo electric effect equation is given by;

E = W₀ + K.E

Where;

K.E is the kinetic energy of the emitted electron

K.E = E - W₀

K.E = 15.291 x 10⁻¹⁹ J - 6.728 x 10⁻¹⁹ J

K.E = 8.563 x 10⁻¹⁹ J

Kinetic energy of the emitted electron is given by;

K.E = ¹/₂mv²

where;

m is mass of the electron = 9.11 x 10⁻³¹ kg

v is the speed of the electron

[tex]v = \sqrt{\frac{2K.E}{m} } \\\\v = \sqrt{\frac{2*8.563*10^{-19}}{9.11*10^{-31}}}\\\\v = 1.371 *10^{6} \ m/s[/tex]

Therefore, the speed of the electron is 1.371 x 10⁶ m/s.

Answer:

The moment of inertia is  [tex]I= 312.09 \ kg \cdot m^2[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The  mass of the platform is   m =  137 kg

     The radius is  r  =  1.53 m

    The mass of the person is  [tex]m_p = 68.7 \ kg[/tex]

    The distance of the person from the center is  [tex]d_c =1.19 \ m[/tex]

    The mass of the dog is  [tex]m_d = 25.9 \ kg[/tex]

     The distance of the dog from the person [tex]d_d = 1.45 \ m[/tex]

Generally the moment of inertia of the system is mathematically represented as

      [tex]I = I_1 + I_2 + I_3[/tex]

Where [tex]I_1[/tex] is the moment of inertia of the platform which mathematically represented as

          [tex]I_1 = \frac{m * r^2}{2}[/tex]

substituting values

           [tex]I_1 = \frac{ 137 * (1.53)^2}{2}[/tex]

           [tex]I_1 = 160.35 \ kg\cdot m^2[/tex]

Also  [tex]I_2[/tex]  is the moment of inertia of the person about the axis which is mathematically represented as

          [tex]I_2 = m_p * d_c^2[/tex]

substituting values

          [tex]I_2 = 68.7 * 1.19^2[/tex]

          [tex]I_2 = 97.29 \ kg \cdot m^2[/tex]

Also  [tex]I_3[/tex]  is the moment of inertia of the dog about the axis which is mathematically represented as

          [tex]I_3 = m_d * d_d^2[/tex]

substituting values

          [tex]I_3 = 25.9 * 1.45^2[/tex]

          [tex]I_3 = 54.45 \ kg \cdot m^2[/tex]

Thus  

        [tex]I= 160.35 + 97.29 + 54.45[/tex]

        [tex]I= 312.09 \ kg \cdot m^2[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]v_B/v_A=\sqrt{3}[/tex]

Explanation:

Consider the two kinematic equations for velocity and position of an object falling due to the action of gravity:

[tex]v=-g\,t\\ \\position=-\frac{1}{2} g\,t^2[/tex]

Therefore, if we consider [tex]t_A[/tex] the time for the object to reach point A, and [tex]t_B[/tex] the time for it to reach point B, then:

[tex]v_A=-g\,t_A\\v_B=-g\,t_B\\\frac{v_B}{v_A}= \frac{-g\,t_B}{-g\,t_A} =\frac{t_B}{t_A}[/tex]

Let's work in a similar way with the two different positions at those different times, and for which we have some information;

[tex]x_A=-x=-\frac{1}{2}\, g\,t_A^2\\x_B=-3\,x=-\frac{1}{2}\, g\,t_B^2\\ \\\frac{x_B}{x_A} =\frac{t_B^2}{t_A^2} \\\frac{t_B^2}{t_A^2}=\frac{-3\,x}{-x} \\\frac{t_B^2}{t_A^2}=3\\(\frac{t_B}{t_A})^2=3[/tex]

Notice that this quotient is exactly the square of the quotient of velocities we are looking for, therefore:

[tex](\frac{t_B}{t_A})^2=3\\(\frac{v_B}{v_A})^2=3\\ \frac{v_B}{v_A}=\sqrt{3}[/tex]

Answer:

The amplitude of the resultant wave is 12.93 cm.

Explanation:

The amplitude of resultant of two waves, y₁ and y₂, is given as;

Y = y₁ + y₂

Let y₁ = A sin(kx - ωt)

Since the wave is out phase by φ, y₂ is given as;

y₂ = A sin(kx - ωt + φ)

Y = y₁ + y₂ = 2A Cos (φ / 2)sin(kx - ωt + φ/2 )

Given;

phase difference, φ = 45°

Amplitude, A = 7.00 cm

Y = 2(7) Cos (45 /2) sin(kx - ωt + 22.5° )

Y = 12.93 cm

Therefore, the amplitude of the resultant wave is 12.93 cm.

a) y(max)  = 337.76 m

b) t₁ = 5.30 s  the time for y maximum

c)t₂ =  13.60 s  time for y = 0 time when the fly finish

d) vₓ = 30 m/s        vy = - 81.32 m/s

e)x = 408 m

Equations for projectile motion:

v₀ₓ = v₀ * cosα          v₀ₓ = 60*(1/2)     v₀ₓ = 30 m/s   ( constant )

v₀y = v₀ * sinα           v₀y = 60*(√3/2)     v₀y = 30*√3  m/s

a) Maximum height:

The following equation describes the motion in y coordinates

y  =  y₀ + v₀y*t - (1/2)*g*t²      (1)

To find h(max), we need to calculate t₁ ( time for h maximum)

we take derivative on both sides of the equation

dy/dt  = v₀y  - g*t

dy/dt  = 0           v₀y  - g*t₁  = 0    t₁ = v₀y/g

v₀y = 60*sin60°  = 60*√3/2  = 30*√3

g = 9.8 m/s²

t₁ = 5.30 s  the time for y maximum

And y maximum is obtained from the substitution of t₁  in equation (1)

y (max) = 200 + 30*√3 * (5.30)  - (1/2)*9.8*(5.3)²

y (max) = 200 + 275.40 - 137.64

y(max)  = 337.76 m

Total time of flying (t₂)  is when coordinate y = 0

y = 0 = y₀  + v₀y*t₂ - (1/2)* g*t₂²

0 = 200 + 30*√3*t₂  - 4.9*t₂²            4.9 t₂² - 51.96*t₂ - 200 = 0

The above equation is a second-degree equation, solving for  t₂

t =  [51.96 ±√ (51.96)² + 4*4.9*200]/9.8

t =  [51.96 ±√2700 + 3920]/9.8

t =  [51.96 ± 81.36]/9.8

t = 51.96 - 81.36)/9.8         we dismiss this solution ( negative time)

t₂ =  13.60 s  time for y = 0 time when the fly finish

The components of the velocity just before striking the ground are:

vₓ = v₀ *cos60°       vₓ = 30 m/s  as we said before v₀ₓ is constant

vy = v₀y - g *t        vy = 30*√3  - 9.8 * (13.60)

vy = 51.96 - 133.28         vy = - 81.32 m/s

The sign minus means that vy  change direction

Finally the horizontal distance is:

x = vₓ * t

x = 30 * 13.60  m

x = 408 m

Answer:

B.

Explanation:

The water collects in the ocean; it is then evaporated by the sun. After evaporation the water turns into water vapor, it then condenses to form clouds.

The ocean water prior to the part of the water cycle should be option B.

The ocean water should be collected back in the ocean prior to the part of the water cycle.

Because this should be done when it is evaporated by the sun.  When the evaporation is done so the water should be transformed into water vapor.

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Answer:

d' = 75.1 cm

Explanation:

It is given that,

The actual depth of a shallow pool is, d = 1 m

We need to find the apparent depth of the water in the pool. Let it is equal to d'.

We know that the refractive index is also defined as the ratio of real depth to the apparent depth. Let the refractive index of water is 1.33. So,

[tex]n=\dfrac{d}{d'}\\\\d'=\dfrac{d}{n}\\\\d'=\dfrac{1\ m}{1.33}\\\\d'=0.751\ m[/tex]

or

d' = 75.1 cm

So, the apparent depth is 75.1 cm.

Answer:

The value of de Broglie wavelength is 14.0 pm

Explanation:

Given;

mass of proton, m = 1.673 x 10⁻²⁷ kg

velocity of the proton, v = 2.83 x 10⁴ m/s

De Broglie wavelength is given as;

[tex]\lambda = \frac{h}{mv}[/tex]

where;

h is planck's constant = 6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ kgm²/s

m is mass of the proton

v is the velocity of the proton

[tex]\lambda = \frac{6.626*10^{-34}}{(1.673*10^{-27})(2.83*10^4})} \\\\\lambda = 1.40 *10^{-11} \ m\\\\\lambda = 14.0 \ pm[/tex]

Therefore, the value of de Broglie wavelength is 14.0 pm

Answer:

v₀(1 + B²L²t/mR)

Explanation:

We know that the force on the loop is F = BIL where B = magnetic field strength, I = current and L = length of side of loop. Now the current in the loop I = ε/R where ε = induced e.m.f in the loop = BLv₀ where v₀ = velocity of loop and r = resistance of loop

F = BIL = B(BLv₀)L/R = B²L²v₀/R  

Since F = ma where a = acceleration of loop and m = mass of loop

a = F/m = B²L²v₀/mR

Using v = u + at where u = initial velocity of loop = v₀, t = time after t = 0 and v = velocity of loop after time t = 0

Substituting the value of a and u into v, we have

v = v₀ + B²L²v₀t/mR

= v₀(1 + B²L²t/mR)

So the velocity of the loop after time t is v = v₀(1 + B²L²t/mR)

The expression for the loop's velocity as a function of time as it enters the magnetic field is v = v₀(1 + B²L²t/mR).

As we know that

Force on the loop

F = BIL

here

B = magnetic field strength,

I = current

and L = length of side of loop.

Now

the current in the loop I = ε/R

where

ε = induced e.m.f in the loop = BLv₀

where v₀ = velocity of loop

and r = resistance of loop

So,

F = BIL = B(BLv₀)L/R = B²L²v₀/R  

Also, F = ma where a = acceleration of loop and m = mass of loop

Now

a = F/m = B²L²v₀/mR

We have to use

v = u + at

where

u = initial velocity of loop = v₀,

t = time after t = 0

and v = velocity of loop after time t = 0

So, it be like

v = v₀ + B²L²v₀t/mR

= v₀(1 + B²L²t/mR)

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