an older adult reports anxiety and is prescribed diazepam by a primary care provider. the office nurse is asked to explain to the client the problematic side effects of this medication. which instruction about this drug would be most important for the nurse to emphasize?

Answers

Answer 1

You may feel dizzy and be prone to falls after taking this medication  instruction about this drug would be most important for the nurse to emphasize.

When is anxiety too much?

A little anxiousness is normal, but persistent anxiety may result in more severe health issues, such hypertension (hypertension). Additionally, you can be more susceptible to illnesses. You may suffer from an anxiety condition or an anxiety attacks if you constantly feel anxious or if it interferes with your daily activities.

Does anxiety ever go away?

Anxiety is not entirely reversible because it is a normal aspect of being human. But experiencing anxiety should only last when a source of stress or trigger is present.

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the client is ordered jevity 1.2 cal. you are supplied with a can of jevity that contains 237ml of formula. the doctor orders the tube feeding to be administered at 1/2 strength at a rate of 60ml/hr. a nurse uses the entire can and prepares the formula as ordered. what is the amount of time the formula to be infusing? round the time to the nearest whole number. enter you response as a numeric value.

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A can of jevity 1.2 that contains 237ml of formula and the doctor orders the tube feeding to be administered at 1/2 strength at a rate of 60ml/hr and the amount of time the formula to be infusing is is 8-9 hours.

Jevity 1.2 is used for supplemental or sole-source nutrition for oral feeding of patients with altered sensation. Jevity® 1.2 Cal has targeted calories and is high in supermolecule to assist tube-fed patients gain and maintain a healthy weight.

Tube feeding is a medical aid wherever a feeding tube provides nutrients to those who cannot get enough nutrition through feeding. a versatile tube is inserted through the nose or belly space to supply nutrients by delivering liquid nutrition directly into the abdomen or bowel.

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nitroprusside sodium (nipride) 50 mg is mixed in d5w 250 ml. the nurse plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/minute to a client weighing 182 pounds. using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the nurse regulate the infusion?

Answers

124 gtt/min drops per minute should the nurse regulate the infusion . Because Sodium nitroprusside (nipride) 50 mg is mixed in d5w 250 ml.

182/2.2 Equals 82.73 kg when converting from lbs to kg. For this client, determine the dosage: 413.65 mcg/min = 5 mcg x 82.73. Calculate how much mcg Sodium nitroprusside  are present in 1 ml: 200 mcg per ml is 250/50,000 mcg.

The customer is to receive 2.07ml per minute (413.65 mcg/min x 200 mcg/ml), or 413.65 mcg/min x 200 mcg/ml. When the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the equation is 60 2.07 = 124.28 gtt/min OR, when utilising dimensional analysis, the equation is 60 gtt/ml X 250 ml/50 mg X 1 mg/1,000 mcg X 5 mcg/kg/min X 1 kg/2.2 pounds X 182 lbs.

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a patient with deep vein thrombosis is receiving an intravenous (iv) heparin infusion. he asks the nurse how this medication will help him. the nurse's response is accurately based on which concept?

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Heparin is merely a type of anticoagulant that works by aiding antithrombin with inactivating factor Xa as well as thrombin, which reduces the production of fibrin and lowers the danger of blood clots developing.

What is thrombosis?

The end result of hemostasis's blood coagulation phase is a thrombus, sometimes known as a blood clot. A thrombus is made up of two parts: a plug of aggregate platelets & red blood cells and a web of cross-linked fibrinogen protein. The substance that make up a thrombus is referred to as cruor. Blood clots that block veins and arteries cause thrombosis. Chest discomfort, numbness solely on a single side of the body, and swelling and pain in one leg are symptoms. Heart attack and stroke are two types of life-threatening thrombosis complications.

What causes a thrombosis?

When blood circulation in your vein slows down or it becomes obstructed, blood clots may form. DVT becomes more likely if you have one or more of these risk factors: Being sedentary due to bed rest or sitting too long without moving, such as during travel. Family history of blood clots. The discomfort brought on by a DVT is typically experienced mostly in calf muscles and along the vein because it descends your inner leg. This could feel rather like a cramp and painful area.

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the mother of an 8-year-old child being treated for right lower lobe pneumonia at home calls the clinic nurse. the mother tells the nurse that the child complains of discomfort on the right side and that ibuprofen is not effective. which instruction should the nurse provide to the mother?

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Using the theories of discomfort, we got that nurse should Encourage the child to lie on the right side who is complaining of discomfort on the right side of his body after the treatment of right lower lobe pneumonia.

Splinting of the affected side by lying on that side may be decrease discomfort. Lying on  left side would not be helpful in alleviating discomfort.

The signs and symptoms of pneumonia vary from mild to the severe, depending on factors such as  type of germ causing the infection, and your age and overall health. Mild signs and symptoms often are actually similar to those of a cold or flu, but they last longer also.

Hence, the mother who tells the nurse that the her child complains of discomfort on the right side and that ibuprofen is not effective nurse should encourage the child to lie on the right side.

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the nurse is assessing a 48-year-old client with a history of smoking during a routine clinic visit. the client, who exercises regularly reports having pain in the calf during exercise that disappears at rest. which findings requires further evaluation?

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According to the given statement SpO₂ of 94% on room air finding requires further evaluation.

What is an example of clinical?

Clinical describes a medical procedure like patient examination and treatment. Usage examples include "clinical study" and "clinical medicine." A clinical trial is a well-organized research protocol involving patient groups. A formal research methodology involving patients is a clinical trial.

What clinical work means?

While non-clinical professions frequently concentrate on hospital management or the research of therapies and medications, candidates typically have interaction with the direct diagnosis, treatment, and monitoring of a patient. The phrase refers to the fact that you directly care for patients, in which case the job is referred to as clinical. Clinical support may come from non-clinical work.

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an 82-year-old man is seen in the primary care office with complaints of dribbling urine and difficulty starting his stream. which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses? group of answer choices all of the above parkinson's disease benign prostatic hyperplasia (bph) prostate cancer

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Option A is the correct answer. The patient who is facing issues of dribbling urine and difficulty in starting his stream should have a checkup. Parkinson's Disease, Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia, and Prostate Cancer should be included in the list of differential diagnoses.

The 82-year-old man who is visiting the primary care office and mentions the complaints of dribbling urine and difficulty starting his stream should have a checkup according to the tests prescribed by the healthcare workers. The Diagnoses should include Parkinson's Disease, Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia, and Prostate Cancer.

People with Parkinson's disease, Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia, and Prostate Cancer, may face difficulties and experience bladder problems. These diseases should be included in the diagnoses to make a complete assessment of the client's health.

Hence, All of the above tests should be included in the diagnoses.

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serum potassium level of 3 meq/l (3 mmol/l) and reports anorexia. the health care provider prescribes a serum digoxin level to be done. the nurse checks the results and should recognize which level that is outside of the therapeutic range?

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The serum digoxin level that is outside the therapeutic range is 2.2 ng/mL (2.8 nmol/L).

How many the serum digoxin level?

Digoxin is a drug used to treat heart rhythm disturbances (arrhythmias), such as atrial fibrillation. In addition, this drug can also be used to treat heart failure. Digoxin is available in tablet and injection form.

Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside drug that works by affecting several types of minerals, namely sodium and potassium in heart cells. This way of working will reduce the workload of the heart, help restore a normal and stable rhythm, and strengthen the heart rate.

Dosage based on Serum Level:

Digoxin: Dosage (on # of vials) = (serum digoxin level in ng/mL) x (kg weight)/(100).Digitoxin: Dosage (on # of vials) = (Serum digitoxin level in ng/mL) x (kg weight)/ (1000).

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50 POINTSSSSSS|> pls be honest. i have deep, and i mean deep dark spots.on my face. how do i getg rido f them ? i tried lemon, tried admire my skin, tried benzoyl, aztec clay, tried apple cider vinegar...more than that, i tried everyythinggg. Products simply dont work. what do i do ?

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Answer: Chemical peels

Go to your doctor because they can be skin cancer

a nurse, while off-duty, tells the physiotherapist that a client who was admitted to the nursing unit contracted aids due to exposure to sex workers at the age of 18. the client discovers that the nurse has revealed the information to the physiotherapist. with what legal action could the nurse be charged?

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In the event of legal action, the nurse would face is slander for providing the physiotherapist with incorrect information about the patient.

False information that is presented as true and damages somebody's reputation and character is known as defamation in the healthcare industry. Defamation includes actions like libel and slander. Slander involves either written or spoken remarks, whereas libel also incorporates those.

Libel, which includes written comments, and slander, which involves oral claims, are the two types of defamation. Libel occurs when a nurse makes derogatory remarks about her boss on social media. Slander is one type of conversation where false information about coworkers may be shared.

Healthcare professionals who post or make disparaging remarks about other patients or healthcare professionals risk serious legal repercussions. There have already been numerous cases have been reported involving healthcare professionals and defamation claims.

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The question is -

A nurse, while off-duty, tells the physiotherapist that a client who was admitted to the nursing unit contracted AIDS due to exposure to sex workers at the age of 18. The client discovers that the nurse has revealed the information to the physiotherapist. With what legal action could the nurse be charged?

A) libel

B) malpractice

C) slander

D) negligence

an adolescent client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the emergency department for treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis. which assessment findings should the nurse expect to note?

Answers

The assessment findings should the nurse expect to note is fruity breath odor and decreasing level of consciousness.

What are assessment findings?

Assessment findings are the results produced by the application of an assessment procedure to a security control or control enhancement to achieve an assessment objective.

If an adolescent client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the emergency department for treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis, the nurse should expect to note fruity breath odor and decreasing level of consciousness.

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An individual has a metabolic disease that is traced to one nonfunctional enzyme. Protein analysis reveals that the protein is larger than normal and fails to assemble into the proper tertiary structure. Analysis of the gene sequence will most likely reveal that the mutation?.

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The analysis of the gene sequence most likely reveals that the mutation has occurred which cause disruption in the splice site. Thus, the correct option is C.

What are metabolic diseases?

Metabolic diseases are the conditions which alters the body processing, metabolism and therefore, the distribution of nutrients in the body.

The analysis of the gene sequence reveals that the introns are removed before the process of translation of the gene. So, the mutation in intron region does not affect the protein structure.

A mutation within the splice site could result into mRNA that have additional nucleotides as this will hinder the process of splicing. This mRNA could result in a protein which has extra amino acids or even prematurely terminated protein. Since this protein is different from that of normal and it fails to assemble into the proper tertiary structure in the cell, and hence it can be said that mutation has occurred in the splice site.

Therefore, the correct option is C.

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Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is:

An individual has a metabolic disease that is traced to one nonfunctional enzyme. Protein analysis reveals that the protein is larger than normal and fails to assemble into the proper tertiary structure. Analysis of the gene sequence will most likely reveal that the mutation?

a. disrupts the signal sequence.

b. disrupts the initiation site.

c. disrupts a splice site.

d. is within an intron.

e. is silent.

Which of the following particles is not considered part of an element’s atomic mass?

Answers

I don’t know because you never put the following particles

the nurse has had a client place the backs of both her hands against each other while flexing her wrists 90 degrees with fingers pointed downward and wrists dangling. the presence of pain or tingling during this test suggests what health problem to the nurse?

Answers

Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by stress on the median nerve. The carpal tunnel is a narrow tube on the palms side of the hand that is surrounded by bone structures.

Whenever the median nerve is crushed, it can cause weakness, burning, and paralysis in the hand and arm. The most prevalent warning indicators of Carpal tunnel syndrome are finger discomfort, tingling, and numbness (all but the pinky). Other signs and symptoms may include: A sensation that your fingers are stuffed or bloated.

Carpal tunnel syndrome might be caused to repetitive actions, such as typing, or other wrist movements that you undertake repeatedly. This is especially true for actions made with your hands lower than your wrists. Conditions such as hypothyroidism, obesity, rheumatoid arthritis, and diabetes are examples. Texting, drawing, and crocheting are all activities that can aggravate carpal tunnel syndrome. These tasks necessitate the regular usage of your wrists and hands. If you do not take adequate breaks from these activities, inflammation in your wrist can worsen, putting more pressure on the median nerve.

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the client who had a total hip replacement was discharged home and developed acute groin pain in the affected leg, shortening of the leg, and limited movement of the fractured leg. the nurse interprets these findings as indicating which complication?

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The nurse interprets these findings as indicating which complication is caused by hip dislocation.

What is the most effective therapy for a hip dislocation?

Your health professional will physically move your dislocated hip back into place to correct it. This is known as a reduction. If there are no supplementary injuries, the correction can be performed externally.

Hip dislocation is a painful condition wherein the ball joint of your hip pops out of its socket. It is usually caused by significant severe trauma. (Artificial hip replacement parts are a little easier to dislocate.) A dislocated hip is a medical emergency. It causes severe pain and disables your leg until it has been corrected.

Therefore, hip dislocation causes acute groin pain in the affected leg, shortening of the leg, and limited movement of the fractured leg.

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the nurse notes that a client is receiving an oxytocin (pitocin) infusion via a pump that is programmed to deliver 30 ml/hour. the available solution is ringer's lactated 1,000 ml with pitocin 20 units. how many milliunits/minute is the client receiving? (enter numeric value only, whole number.)

Answers

The client is receiving  10milliunits/minute of an oxytocin (pitocin) infusion via a pump that is programmed to deliver 30ml/hour.

Units to milliunits conversion:

20 x 1000 = 20,000 units.

By reducing X/2 = 1/2 and 2X = 20,

we arrive at X = 10 milliunits/minute

OR

20/1,000 = 0.02 1000: 0.02

30: X = 0.6

1,000X X = 600

and 600/60 = 10 milliunits/minute

using the formula D/H x Q = 30 ml/hour

X/20,000 units x 1,000 ml

= 30 ml/hour (60 minutes) X/20 =30/60.

The general structure of the formula depends on the units chosen and is as follows:

IV drip rate (mL/hour) = (60 minutes per hour * desired dose (mcg/kg/min) * weight (kg) * bag volume (mL) / (1000 mcg/mg) * desired dose (Drug in Bag in mg)

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the nurse is obtaining a health history from a client with a blood pressure of 146/88 mm hg. the client states that lifestyle changes have not been effective in lowering blood pressure. which medication classification does the nurse anticipate first?

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The nurse anticipates that the client will first be prescribed a diuretic medication. This is because diuretics are effective in lowering blood pressure by removing excess fluid from the body.

A diuretic is any medication that helps promote diuresis, which is the increased production of urine. The substance helps to expel greater amounts of water and salt from the body. Many types of diuretics exist, and they are used to treat a variety of conditions, such as hypertension, congestive heart failure, edema, and renal failure.

While diuretics are generally safe and effective, they can cause some unwanted side effects, such as dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and hypotension. Therefore, it is important to speak with a healthcare nurse before taking any diuretics, especially if they are to be used for an extended period of time.

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a client is being seen at the clinic for a routine physical when the nurse notes the client's blood pressure is 150/97. the client is considered to be a healthy, well-nourished young adult. what type of hypertension does this client have?

Answers

Essential (primary) type of hypertension does client have

What is Primary type of hypertension ?

Most adults with high blood pressure have no known reason. Primary hypertension, also known as essential hypertension, is this kind of high blood pressure. It often grows gradually over a long period of time. Atherosclerosis, or artery plaque buildup, raises the risk of high blood pressure.

The underlying causes of primary and secondary hypertension are different from one another. Secondary hypertension has a known aetiology, but primary hypertension has no known cause. High blood pressure is a symptom of both primary and secondary hypertension.

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a client comes to the emergency department (ed) reporting precordial chest pain. in describing the pain, the client describes it as pressure with a sudden onset. what disease process would the nurse suspect in this client?

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The nurse suspects that the patient is having coronary artery disease.

Coronary artery disease causes decreased blood flow in the arteries delivering blood to the heart (CAD). The most common kind of heart disease, known as coronary heart disease (CHD), affects around 16.5 million Americans over the age of 20.

Additionally, it is the leading cause of mortality for both men and women in the US. A heart attack happens in the United States once every 36 seconds, according to a trustworthy source.

You may have greater symptoms if your blood flow is more restricted. If a blockage totally or virtually completely stops blood flow, your heart muscle will start to degrade if it is not repaired.

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a nurse is caring for a client who is recovering in the hospital following orthopedic surgery. the nurse is performing frequent assessments for signs and symptoms of infection in the knowledge that the client faces a high risk of what infectious complication?

Answers

The most suitable nursing assessment is Risk of Central Neurovascular Dysfunction, because the hematoma may prevent tissue perfusion.

The most typical kind of dislocation is a head that is positioned posteriorly. nursing members will keep an eye on your breathing, temperature, pulse, and blood pressure while you are in the recovery room. To test the health of your lungs, they can request that you take several deep breaths. They could look for symptoms of bleeding or tissue perfusion at the location of your surgery. They'll keep an eye out for indications of an allergic response. As a tissue perfusion, you should avoid bending forward again than 90° and lifting your knees on the side of the operation higher than the hip. Avoid crossing your legs, turning your foot outward, and twisting or pivoting your hip that has had surgery. nursing members To prevent a hip dislocation, you must maintain safety measures. Not bending the hips past 90 degrees is one of these measures, as is sleeping.

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the nursing instructor is quizzing a group of students about fluid and electrolyte balance. which statements made by the students indicate an understanding of the efforts of the organs to maintain fluid and electrolyte balance? select all that apply.

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Maintaining the proper level of water in your body is critical for survival, as either too little or too much will result in subpar performance the statement made by the students indicate an understanding of the efforts of the organs to maintain fluid and electrolyte balance.

What are the symptoms of electrolyte imbalance?

Confusion and irritabilityDiarrhea or constipationFatigue.Headaches.Irregular or rapid heart rate (arrhythmia).Muscle cramps, spasms, or weakness.Vomiting and nausea.

The kidneys regulate intravascular volume through fluid retention and excretion. By excreting and retaining hydrogen ions, the kidneys control the pH of extracellular fluid. By secreting aldosterone, the adrenal glands control the volume of blood.

Therefore, the nervous system controls oral intake by sensing intracellular dehydration, which causes thirst.

                               

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when caring for a client on extended bedrest, which intervention should the nurse implement to decrease the risk of contractures?

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To avoid risk of contractures, the nurse should reposition the client every 2 hours.

What happens with contractures?

A contracture occurs when there is a fixed tightening in the muscles, tendons, ligaments and or skin. It hinders specific body parts from normal movement. This can also be described as the body tissues loosing elasticity and becoming fiber-like.

When the body is immobile for a while it can cause contracture. Patients under admittance in hospitals can experience this condition and the nurses in charge will have to reposition them every two hours to avoid tightening of the muscles and also encourage bed stretches to loosen the joints.

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the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of self-care deficit, bathing related to motor impairment and decreased cognitive function for a client with cerebral metastasis. which outcome would the nurse most likely identify on this client's plan of care?

Answers

The client is lacking in bathing-related self-care. An suitable result would therefore address the patient's participation in everyday hygiene practices.

Why is good hygiene so crucial?

Through proper personal hygiene and routine body and hair washing with soap and water, many diseases and disorders can be avoided or managed. The spread of diseases connected to cleanliness can be stopped by using good body washing techniques. To be healthy, find out how often you should wash your hands.

Why does hygiene exist?

Neglecting one's personal requirements due to incapacity or unwillingness might manifest as poor hygiene. Certain emotional or mental illnesses, such as severe depression and psychotic disorders, are frequently accompanied by poor hygiene. Another major factor in poor hygiene is dementia.

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infants born between 34 0/7 and 36 6/7 weeks of gestation are called late-preterm infantsbecause they have many needs similar to those of preterm infants. because they are more stable than early-preterm infants, they may receive care that is much like that of a full-term baby. the mother-baby or nursery nurse knows that these babies are at increased risk for (select all that apply):

Answers

Infants born between 34 0/7 and 36 6/7 weeks of gestation are called late-preterm infants because they have many needs similar to those of preterm infants. Hypoglycemia.

New child commonly refers to a baby from birth to approximately 2 months of age. toddlers can be taken into consideration youngsters everywhere from start to 1 12 months old. a toddler can be used to refer to any infant from the beginning to the age of four years antique, hence encompassing newborns, babies, and toddlers.

The time period "little one" derives from the Latin phrase in-fanatics, meaning "unable to talk." there's no precise definition for infancy. "toddler" is also a legal term that means the juvenile; that is, any baby beneath the age of criminal maturity. A human infant less than a month antique is a newborn infant or a neonate.

Other definitions state that a new child is a little one who is less than 2 months old. Taking a look at facts supplied by the facilities for disease control (CDC), they classify a toddler as an infant between zero and 1 12 months of age.

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a patient experienced an episode of influenza 6-months ago. a recent exposure to a mutated form of the same virus would result in:

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A recent exposure to a mutated form of the same virus would result in A primary immune response.

How serious is the influenza?

Flu is a common respiratory illness brought on by flu strains that can sometimes spread to the lungs as well as the nose and throat. It can lead to mild to severe disease, and occasionally even death. Oseltamivir or inhalation zanamivir are usually administered for five days to treat flu, while one dosage of peramivir intravenously or one dose of baloxavir orally is typically prescribed.

When should someone who has influenza visit the hospital?

Adults should consult a doctor if they have a persistent fever of further than 102 degree and any of the flu-like symptoms listed below: trouble breathing severe stomach or chest ache. Headaches and dizziness

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the nurse is performing an admission assessment on a newborn infant with the diagnosis of subdural hematoma after a difficult vaginal delivery. which assessment technique assists to support the newborn's diagnosis?

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Answer:Diagnosis of Subdural Hemorrhages/Hematomas A CT (computed tomography) of the head is the best way to diagnose a subdural hemorrhage. Some babies have no symptoms, which is why it is crucial for the medical team to closely monitor all babies who had a traumatic birth and who are suspected of having this type of brain bleed.

Explanation:

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which advantages would the nurse associate with starting enteral feedings instead of parenteral feedings through a nasogastric tube for a patient on the intensive care unit (icu)? select all that apply. the enteral feeding have fewer complications

Answers

The advantages that the nurse associate with starting enteral feedings are safety, effectiveness, decreased risk of infection, decreased cost, prevents gut atrophy, and preserving the barrier function of the gut.

Parenteral Feeding refers to intravenous nutrition (through a vein). "Outside of the digestive tract" is what "peripheral" means. Parenteral feeding bypasses your whole digestive system, from the mouth to the anus, in contrast to enteral feeding, which is administered through a tube to your stomach or small intestine.

Since enteral feeding is more physiological, simpler, less expensive, and less complex, parenteral feeding is rarely preferred. Even nasogastric feeding needs care because it is one of the trickier enteral nutrition methods, along with gastrostomy and jejunostomy.

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the nurse is conducting an admission assessment with a 45-year-old client who has been demonstrating signs of bipolar disorder. while conducting the assessment, the client starts speaking in illogical rhymes and using word associations. what is the name for this thought pattern?

Answers

The name of the thought pattern of the patient is flight of ideas.

Flight of ideas, according to the American Psychological Association, is a sort of cognitive problem that leads certain people to speak quickly and change between loosely related thoughts when speaking.

Most individuals become enthusiastic from time to time and speak too rapidly or jump between thoughts that come to them. People are frequently aware of and accept the fact that they are speaking rapidly when this occurs.

Flight of ideas, on the other hand, is a form of mental disorder that might manifest as a symptom of another ailment. People suffering from this mental disorder are often unaware that they are moving from issue to subject since everything appears "related" to them.

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a nurse is teaching a new mother about her neonate and the changes that are occurring as the neonate adapts to life outside the client's uterus. the nurse would incorporate understanding of which change when describing the neonate's current status? select all that apply.

Answers

The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide is now carried out by the lungs, and the liver starts to work as the ductus venosus shuts.

What is uterus and its function?

If you were assigned female at birth, your uterus is indeed a pear-shaped reproductive organ (AFAB). During childbirth, an egg cell implants there, and your baby grows there until it is born. Your menstrual cycle is also controlled by it. A woman's uterus, commonly referred to as her womb, has an average size of 3 to 4 feet by 2.5 inches. It resembles an upside-down pears in both size and shape. The uterus can enlarge due to a number of medical disorders, such as childbirth or uterine fibroids.

How does the uterus appear?

The uterus, sometimes referred to as the "womb," is pear-shaped and has a strong muscular wall. The fundus, which is situated at the apex of the uterus, the main body.

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a nurse is analyzing a journal article that explains the changes at birth from fetal to newborn circulation. the nurse can point out the closure of the ductus arteriosus is related to which event after completing the article?

Answers

Lungs start to work when pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) decreases in newborns body

While the newborns body undergoes change, early adjustments in the circulatory and respiratory systems are necessary to support life outside the womb. (PVR) drops with the first breath, and the heart rate rises initially but falls to 120 to 130 bpm after a few minutes. Within 48 hours, the ductal murmur will disappear in 80+% of newborns. Rhonchi brought on by amniotic fluid retention is an unusual and unanticipated occurrence (PVR). Through shivering and other methods, newborns have trouble keeping their body heat. (PVR)can hardly perspire and have a big body surface area in relation to their newborns body weight.

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Medicare and other payers may consider a procedure to be non covered service when performed in an ASC for several reasons. List two

Answers

Medicare and other payers may consider a procedure to be non covered service when performed in an ASC for several reasons such as:

Excessive therapy or diagnostic procedure Services that are reimbursable by other organizations

What are Ambulatory Surgical Centers for?

Ambulatory Surgical Centers (ASC) are modern health care facilities whose purpose is for providing surgical care on the same day as an incident which covers diagnostic and preventive procedures. Hospital owned outpatient facilities are an example of ASC.

For a procedure to be a non covered service, it would mean that the therapy or diagnostic procedure is excessive or that other organizations will reimburse the services.

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which statement is not true of vitamin e? a. vitamin e deficiency can cause hemolytic anemia in premature infants. b. dietary vitamin e requirements increase with increasing intakes of polyunsaturated fats. c. vitamin e is the most toxic of all the vitamins. d. vitamin e is easily destroyed by heat and exposure to air. Which option shows an expression meaning 4 less than 5 timesa number?You can earn 5 coins4n-55n+ 45n-44n+5Submit Select all the correct answers. In 2002, Colorado was hit with one of the worst droughts in US history. What steps could Colorado take to reduce the effects of future droughts? build storm cellars buy more rain gauges build dams install hurricane ties use water conservation devices Fill in each gap with a suitable words.Climate change is resulting in the (a)--- of temperature in the water bodies like rivers, lakes and seas (b)--- have almost become unfit for fish (c)---. As a result, some species of fish are now under the threat of (d)---. if such incident happens, in an extreme degree , people (e)--- on fish will lead their (f)--- in hunger and poverty. So, we have no greenhouse gases on (j)--- si a must. A railroadcar container can hold 42,000 pounds.Mr. Evans wants to ship 90 ovens andsome freezers in the same container.If each freezer weighs 600 pounds,how many freezers could be shippedin the container? Explain. which account is debited if materials costing $100,000 are sold? question 7 options: work-in-process control account cost of goods sold account revenues account materials control account what is tyhe molarity of a solutionm containing 104.2 grams of bacl2 in enough water to make 800 ml of solution PLEASEEE HELP ASAPPPA team of dogs is pulling a person in a sled in the snow. The dogs are attached by a harness that is parallel to the ground. The combined mass of the person and the sled is 62.5 kg.The coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.190 ,and the harness tension is 180.0 N. Determine the sleds acceleration. a horizontal wire that is 25 m long and has a mass of 100 g is held under a tension of 10 n. a sinusoidal wave of frequency 25 hz and amplitude 15 mm travels along the wire. calculate the maximum traveler velocity of any particle of the wire. wats the slope? how many positive integers less than 1000 a) are divisible by 7? b) are divisible by 7 but not by 11? c) are divisible by both 7 and 11? d) are divisible by either 7 or 11? e) are divisible by exactly one of 7 and 11? f ) are divisible by neither 7 nor 11? g) have distinct digits? h) have distinct digits and are even? Divide and answer in simplest form: 45 2 How is the Golden Rule illustrated in chapter 11? Use the strongest evidence from the novel in youranswer. The main purpose of a political campaign is either to get an issue passed ora verdict overturned.an officeholder removed.a law revoked.a candidate elected. How many molecules are in 72.0 moles of CO? a company issued 7%, 20-year bonds with a face amount of $72 million. the market yield for bonds of similar risk and maturity is 7%. interest is paid semiannually. at what price did the bonds sell? (fv of $1, pv of $1, fva of $1, pva of $1, fvad of $1 and pvad of $1) (enter your answers in whole dollars. round final answers to the nearest whole dollar.) Qu funcin tienen los sustantivos abstractos y los adjetivos calificativos en la descripcin de los lugares turisticos? PLEASE HELP!! I NEED SOMEONE TO HELP ME!Use distributive property to remove parenthesis.-9( -3w + 3u - 4) The development of interchangeable parts led to imagine a 2,000-acre park with picnic benches, trees, and a pond. suppose it is publicly owned, and people are invited to enjoy its beauty. when the weather is nice, it is difficult to find parking, and the trash cans overflow with food wrappers on summer afternoons. otherwise, it is a great place. the park is a common resource because