Bill spent $42 on fruit at the grocery store. He spent a total of $60 at the store. What percentage of the total did he
spend on fruit?​

Answer:

a

Step-by-step explanation:

distributive property

Answer:

Below,...

Step-by-step explanation:

They are saying that if you add a odd number + a odd number than you'd get a even number,... odd + even = odd,... odd x even = even,... and so on,...

Hope it helps,... Chow!

The ratio 3:4 means for every 3 pounds made in away team tickets versus home team tickets. Multiply both sides by 9000 to have that 4 turn into 36000. The ratio 3:4 will then turn into 27000:36000

With this new ratio, we see that the away team pulls in 27000 and the home team pulls in 36000. Add the two amounts to get the final answer

27000+36000 = 63000

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We could alternatively add 3 and 4 (from the ratio 3:4) to get 3+4 = 7. Then multiply by that same scale factor 9000 getting 9000*7 = 63000.

Answer:

Baba

Step-by-step explanation:

Booey

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

basically the largest number decided by 5 smaller than 438 is 435. so the answer is 3

Answer:

Any number divisible by 9 must have the sum of its digits divisible by 9. The sum of the digits of 456 is 15, so you need to subtract 6.

Answer:

3053.5517 cm^3 ; 1/8

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the following :

Volume (V) of sphere = (4/3)πr^3 where r = radius

Diameter of sphere = 18 ; radius(r) = diameter / 2 = 18/2 = 9cm

V = (4/3) × π × 9^3

V = 1.3333 × π × 729

V = 3053.5517 cm^3

When diameter(d) is reduced to half

d = d/2

Volume (V1) of sphere with diameter 'd' =

V1 = (4/3)π(d/2)^3

Volume (V2) of sphere with diameter 'd' reduced to half, d = d/2, d/2 * 1/2 = d/4

V2 = (4/3)π(d/4)^3

V1 / V2 = [(4/3)π(d/2)^3] / [(4/3)π(d/4)^3]

V1 / V2 = (d/2)^3 / (d/4)^3

V1 / V2 = [d^3 / 2^3] / [d^3 / 4^3]

V1 / V2 = 8 / 64

V1 / V2 = 1 / 8

Answer:

first blank is 972

second blank is 1/8

yup

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

x³×15-6

15x³-6

2. Let the number be y, then

(4×y)+(5/3)

4y+5/3

Answer:

a. 3.5 inches by 4.5 inches

b. 1.5 inches

c. Divide 48 inches by 2 and multiply 1 inch by 12 to get a scale of 1 : 2

Step-by-step explanation:

A scale is a representative fraction showing the relationship between length on a drawing and actual length.

i.e scale = [tex]\frac{length on a drawing}{actual length}[/tex]

 scale = 1 inch : 4 feet

a. The dimensions in the drawing can be determined as;

1 inch : 4 feet implies an inch on the drawing equates 4 feet on actual length.

[tex]\frac{14}{4}[/tex] = 3.5 inches

[tex]\frac{18}{4}[/tex] = 4.5 inches

Dimensions on drawing is 3.5 inches by 4.5 inches.

b. The length of the sofa is 6 feet, its length on the drawing is;

[tex]\frac{6}{4}[/tex] = 1.5 inches

c. To enlarge the scale so as to double the dimensions of the drawing, we have;

12 inches = 1 feet

4 feet = 4 × 12 = 48 inches

given scale = 1 inch : 48 inches

Thus, divide 48 inches by 2 and multiply 1 inch by 12.

scale = 12 inch : 24 inch

scale = 1 : 2

To double the dimensions of the drawing, the scale required is 1 : 2. This implies that a unit measure on the drawing is synonymous to 2 measures on the actual reading.

Answer:

Carl can type 450 words in 5 minutes at that rate.

Step-by-step explanation:

Every two minutes, carl can type 180 words. To find out how many words he can type in 1 minute, all we have to to is divide 180 by 2 to get 90wpm (words per minute)

if we multiply 90wpm by 5 Minutes, we get 450 words per minute

Answer:

The cousins have 4 bags of white marbles and 4 bags of pink marbles.

Step-by-step explanation:

If x is the number of bags with white marbles and y is the number of bags with pink marbles, we can write the following system:

x + y = 8 -- Equation 1

5x + 7y = 48 -- Equation 2

5x + 5y = 40 -- Equation 3 (Multiply Equation 1 by 5)

2y = 8 -- (Subtract Equation 3 from 2)

y = 4 -- (Divide both sides by 2)

x + 4 = 8 -- (Substitute y = 4 into Equation 1)

x = 4 -- (Subtract 4 from both sides)

Answer:

SID WILL FINISH FIRST

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\frac{2}{3}[/tex] ÷ [tex]\frac{1}{6} =[/tex]

[tex]\frac{2}{3}[/tex] * [tex]\frac{6}{1} =[/tex] = 12/3 = 4

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

[tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex] ÷ [tex]\frac{1}{9} =[/tex]

[tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex] * [tex]\frac{9}{1} =[/tex] = 9/3 = 3

Answer: b. X=-1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

2x-3+3=-1-3 and +3 cancel each other

2x=-1 both sides divided by 2

X=-1/2

This is a 30-60-90 triangle. The shortest leg (opposite the smallest angle) is half that of the hypotenuse, so y = 6/2 = 3.

Extra info: The long leg is sqrt(3) times the short leg, so x = y*sqrt(3) = x = 3*sqrt(3)

Answer:

D.) 3

Step-by-step explanation:

I got it correct on founders edtell

Answer: Infinitely many solutions

Step-by-step explanation:

There are many solutions because the lines lies on top of each other.

i dont know the exact answer but its not  

One solution

Two solutions

so its most likely

Infinitely many solutions

We have:

h - height

b = 2h - base

A = 36 - area

so:

[tex]A=\frac{1}{2}\cdot b\cdot h\\\\A=\frac{1}{2}\cdot 2\cdot h \cdot h\\\\A=h^2\\\\36=h^2\quad|\sqrt{(\dots)}\\\\\boxed{h=6}[/tex]

Answer:

refer to the pic attached

Answer:

4/12, 5/12, 6/12, 7/12

Step-by-step explanation:

1/4 x 3/3 = 3/12

2/3 x 4/4 = 8/12

between 3/12 and 8/12

4/12, 5/12, 6/12, 7/12

you can simplify these if you wish

Hope that helped!!! k

Answer:

8/81

Step-by-step explanation:

8/18 x 4/18 = 32/324 = 8/81

The probability of drawing a blue and then a green and replacing the candy after the draw is 8/81.

Probability is defined as the ratio of the number of favorable outcomes to the total number of outcomes in other words the probability is the number that shows the happening of the event.

Probability = Number of favorable outcomes / Number of sample

It is given that in a bag of M&MS there are 4 green, 6 yellow, and 8 blue candies.

The probability for blue = 8/18

The probability for green = 4/18

The probabilities of drawing a blue then green if you replace the candy after the draw will be calculated as below:-

Probability = 8/18 x 4/18

Probability = 32/324

Divide the number 32 by 324 to get the probability.

Probability = 8/81

Therefore, the probability of drawing a blue and then a green and replacing the candy after the draw is 8/81.

To know more about probability follow

https://brainly.com/question/24756209

#SPJ5

The line was reflected about the line y = -x.

-----------------------------------------

This question is solved using reflection concepts.

There are various kinds of reflections, 90º clockwise about the origin, 90º counterclockwise, among other, and each of them has a rule.

-----------------------------------------

In this question:

From this, we have the following rule: (x,y) -> (-y,-x)

Checking the rules, it can be said that the line was reflected about the line y = -x.

A similar question can be found at https://brainly.com/question/16130908

Answer:

See below.

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\cos(20)-\sin(20)=\sqrt{2}\sin(25)[/tex]

First, use the co-function identity:

[tex]\sin(90-x)=\cos(x)[/tex]

We can turn the second term into cosine:

[tex]\sin(20)=\sin(90-70)=\cos(70)[/tex]

Substitute:

[tex]\cos(20)-\cos(70)=\sqrt{2}\sin(25)[/tex]

Now, use the sum to product formulas. We will use the following:

[tex]\cos(x)-\cos(y)=-2\sin(\frac{x+y}{2})\sin(\frac{x-y}{2})[/tex]

Substitute:

[tex]\cos(20)-\cos(70)=-2\sin(\frac{20+70}{2})\sin(\frac{20-70}{2})\\\cos(20)-\cos(70) =-2\sin(45)\sin(-25)\\\cos(20)-\cos(70)=-2(\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2})\sin(-25)\\ \cos(20)-\cos(70)=-\sqrt{2}\sin(-25)[/tex]

Use the even-odd identity:

[tex]\sin(-x)=-\sin(x)[/tex]

Therefore:

[tex]\cos(20)-\cos(70)=-\sqrt{2}\sin(-25)\\\cos(20)-\cos(70)=-\sqrt{2}\cdot-\sin(25)\\\cos(20)-\cos(70)=\sqrt{2}\sin(25)[/tex]

Replace the second term with the original term:

[tex]\cos(20)-\sin(20)=\sqrt{2}\sin(25)[/tex]

Proof complete.

Hey there! I'm happy to help!

The factors are the numbers you multiply to get 47. And they can't be fractions or numbers with fractions. They have to be integers (numbers without fractions).

So far, we see that we can multiply 1 and 47 to get 47. To see if there are any more, we see what numbers 1-10 we can divide by.

We cannot divide by 2 because 47 is odd.

We cannot divide by 3 because it gives us 15.6666...

We can't divide by 4 because 47 is odd.

We can't divide by 5 because 47 does not have a 5 or 0 in the ones place.

We can't divide by 6 because 47 is odd.

We can't divide by 7 because it gives us 6.714285....

We can't divide by 8 because 47 is odd.

We can't divide by 9 because it gives us 5.2222

And we obviously can't divide it by 10.

Therefore, the factors of 47 are 1 and 47. A number whose only factors are 1 and itself is called a prime number.

I hope that this helps! Have a wonderful day! :D

Answer: 47 is a prime number

The exponent of prime number 47 is 1 . Adding 1 to that exponent we get (1+1)=2

Factor of 47: 1, 47

Answer:

$40.00, $30.00, B

Step-by-step explanation:

We can first write an expression for the cost of each plan.

Given x amount of texts and y amount of minutes, plan A costs 15 cents per text sent (so given x amount of texts, plan A costs 15 * x for texts) and 10 cents per minute (so given y amount of minutes, plan A costs 10 * y for minutes). Adding these up, plan A costs 15 * x + 10 * y. Plugging Jaden's 200 texts in for x and 100 minutes in for y, we have

15 * x + 10 * y = 15 * 200 + 10 * 100 = 4000 cents. 100 cents = 1 dollar, and the conversion rate for cents to dollars is divide by 100, so we divide 4000 cents by 100 to get $40.00 as the cost for plan A

For plan B, the flat rate is 15 dollars. To convert from dollars to cents, we multiply by 100, so 15 * 100 = 1500 cents for the flat fee.

Texts cost 5 cents per text, so 5 * x is the cost for texts in cents for plan B. Similarly, 5 * y is the cost for minutes in cents for plan B. Adding these up, we get

1500 + 5 * x + 5 * y

combine like terms

1500 + 5 * (x+y)

plug 200 in for x and 100 in for y

1500 + 5 * (200+100)

1500 + 5 * (300)

1500 + 1500

3000

divide by 100 to convert to dollars

$30.00 is the cost for plan B

$30 < $40, so plan B will be cheaper for Jaden

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

7x - 21 + 12 - 3x = -8

4x - 9 = -8

4x = 1

x = 1/4

Answer:

x= 0.25, or x=1/4

Step-by-step explanation:

First, use the distributive property and multiply 7 within the parenthesis:

7x -21

Next, use the distributive property again, and multiply 3 within the parenthesis:

12 -3x

Combine Like terms: 7x - 21 + 12 - 3x

4x - 9

Add 9 to both sides: 4x - 9 = -8

-8 + 9 = 1

Divide 4 by both sides: 4x = 1

1 / 4 = .25 or 1/4

Answer:

speed

1)the distance travelled by a body per unit time is known as speed.

2) speed is speed, or something how fast is going,

3) while velocity is speed how fast something is going in a specific direction.

average speed

1) average speed is the speed added up and divided by number of speed .

2)the average of all the instantaneous speed in a give time interval.

3) the average speed as the duration of the time interval approaches zero.

Answer:

I think the perimeter is 50cm the solids is 600cm³

Step-by-step explanation:

Perimeter: (5×10)=50cm

Solids: divided with 2box(A box & B box)

Abox: 5cm x 5cm x 12cm

=300cm³

Bbox: 5cm x 12cm x 5cm

=300cm³

Solids:(Abox +Bbox) 300cm³ + 300cm³

=600cm³

I think, I'm sorry if it's wrong

Answer:

[tex]\Large \boxed{r =\frac{v^2 }{a}}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\displaystyle a=\frac{v^2 }{r}[/tex]

We need to rearrange and solve the formula for [tex]r[/tex].

Multiply both sides of the equation by [tex]r[/tex].

[tex]\displaystyle a \times r=\frac{v^2 }{r} \times r[/tex]

Simplify the equation.

[tex]ar=v^2[/tex]

Divide both sides of the equation by [tex]a[/tex].

[tex]\displaystyle \frac{ar}{a} =\frac{v^2 }{a}[/tex]

Simplify the equation.

[tex]\displaystyle r =\frac{v^2 }{a}[/tex]

Answer:

ab=9

Step-by-step explanation:

AB=BC

2X+31=20+X

X=-11

ab= 20+(-11)

= 9

bc= 2(-11) +31

=9

ab+bc= ac

9+9=18