2. Use prime factorization to find the
LCM of 30 and 75.

Answer:

you will add $1.53 to every bracelet you make

Step-by-step explanation:

figure out what 85 percent of 1.80 is and then add that to 1.80 for the total price

85% x 1.8 = 1.53 (markup ammount)

1.80 + 1.53 = 3.33 (total cost)

Answer:

i think its B

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

0.36

Step-by-step explanation:

0.45 x 0.80

= 0.36

Answer:

addition

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

10-2=8

8/2=4

Hope this helps!

Answer:

It is changing at -11 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

The distance d is given by

d = √x²+(90-y)²

We have to differentiate

dy/st = 25ft

dx/dt = -15ft

The question says after 2 seconds

Y = 25x2 = 50ft

X = -15x2 = -30ft

Then we calculate rate of change of distance. From the calculations I did, I arrived at

(1/2√900+1600).[900-2000]

= -1100/2x50

= -1100/100

= -11ft

Please check attachment to help you understand the answer better as it is more detailed.

The distance between these two runners changing 2 s after the ball is hit 11 ft

The rate of change of a function with respect to the variable is called differentiation. It can be increasing or decreasing.

A baseball diamond is a square with sides 90 ft long.

A batter is at bat, with runners at first and second base.

At the moment the ball is hit, the runner at first base runs to second base at 25 ft/s.

Simultaneously, the runner on second base runs to third base at 15 ft/s.

The distance d is given by

[tex]\rm d = \sqrt{x^{2} +(90-y)^2}[/tex]

We have to differentiate

[tex]\rm \dfrac{dy}{st} = 25 \ ft\\\\\dfrac{dx}{dt} = -15 \ ft[/tex]

The question says after 2 seconds

[tex]\rm Y = 25x ^2 = 50 \ ft\\\\X = -15x^2 = -30 \ ft[/tex]

Then we calculate the rate of change of distance will be

[tex]\rm \dfrac{1 }{2\sqrt{900 + 1600}} * (900 - 2000) = \dfrac{-1100}{2*50} = \dfrac{-1100}{100} = -11\ ft[/tex]

More about the differentiation link is given below.

https://brainly.com/question/24062595

Anwers:

22    is the answer

Answer:

1.732

Step-by-step explanation:

.......................

Answer:  3/11

Step-by-step explanation:

you must do cross canceling to simplify the expression

then just do multiplication from left to right

7/11 times 3/7 the 7 can be crossed out and turned into a 1

then do 1 times 3 for the numerator then 11 times 1 for the denominator and get you answer 3/11

Answer:

i love free points dont you

Answer: bsf google

Step-by-step explanation: go to google look it up and find the answer

Answer:

x-3

Step-by-step explanation:

It's x-3 because if you put 12-3 it will be 9 but if you add x+4 it will be 16

Answer:

y= (-4/1)x -1

Step-by-step explanation:

Dividing f(x) by 2x + 5 leaves the same remainder as division by x + 5/2. By the remainder theorem, it is equal to f (-5/2), so the remainder here is

f (-5/2) = 8 (-5/2)³ + 4 (-5/2)² - 13 (-5/2) + 3 = -129/2

Answer:

(4, 7)

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that:

Midpoint of AB = M(3, 3)

Coordinate of A = (2, - 1)

Let coordinates of B = (x, y)

Recall :

Midpoint of AB = [(Ax + Bx) / 2, (Ay + By) / 2]

Mx = (Ax + Bx) / 2

My = (Ay + By) / 2

Mx = 3

Mx = (Ax + Bx) / 2

3 = (2 + x) / 2

2*3 = 2 + x

6 = 2 + x

6 - 2 = x

4 = x

My = 3

My = (Ay + By) / 2

3 = (-1 + y) / 2

2*3 = - 1 + y

6 = - 1 + y

6 + 1 = y

7 = y

Hence,

B = (4, 7)

Answer:

The Answer is x^2/2

Step-by-step explanation:

The ^ is the power of _

In this case ^ is the power of 2.

Given:

The base area of a right circular cone is [tex]\dfrac{1}{4}[/tex] of its total surface area.

To find:

The ratio of the radius  to the slant height.

Solution:

We know that,

Area of base of a right circular cone = [tex]\pi r^2[/tex]

Total surface area of a right circular cone = [tex]\pi rl+\pi r^2[/tex]

where, r is radius and l is slant height.

According to the question,

[tex]\pi r^2=\dfrac{1}{4}(\pi rl+\pi r^2)[/tex]

Multiply both sides by.

[tex]4\pi r^2=\pi rl+\pi r^2[/tex]

[tex]4\pi r^2-\pi r^2=\pi rl[/tex]

[tex]3\pi r^2=\pi rl[/tex]

Cancel out the common factors from both sides.

[tex]3r=l[/tex]

Now, ratio of the radius  to the slant height is

[tex]\dfrac{r}{l}=\dfrac{r}{3r}[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{r}{l}=\dfrac{1}{3}[/tex]

Therefore, the ratio of the radius  to the slant height is 1:3.

Answer:

89

eighty-nine

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

This is saying 77.8% percent out of 100, therefore we right it like D

I hope this helped, please mark Brainliest, thank you!

The probability that the second pipe (with length Y) is more than 0.11 feet longer than the first pipe (with length X) is approximately 2.6092%.

Here,

Since the length of the pipes follows a uniform distribution on the interval [10 feet, 10.57 feet], the probability density function (PDF) for each pipe is:

f(x) = 1 / (10.57 - 10) = 1 / 0.57 ≈ 1.7544 for 10 ≤ x ≤ 10.57

Since the lengths of the pipes are independent, the joint probability density function (PDF) of X and Y is the product of their individual PDFs:

f(x, y) = f(x) * f(y) = 1.7544 * 1.7544 = 3.0805 for 10 ≤ x ≤ 10.57 and 10 ≤ y ≤ 10.57

Now, we want to find the probability that the second pipe (Y) is more than 0.11 feet longer than the first pipe (X).

Mathematically, we want to find P(Y > X + 0.11).

Let's set up the integral to calculate this probability:

P(Y > X + 0.11) = ∬[10 ≤ x ≤ 10.57] [y > x + 0.11] f(x, y) dx dy

We integrate with respect to x first and then with respect to y:

P(Y > X + 0.11) = ∫[10 ≤ y ≤ 10.57] ∫[10 ≤ x ≤ y - 0.11] f(x, y) dx dy

P(Y > X + 0.11) = ∫[10 ≤ y ≤ 10.57] [∫[10 ≤ x ≤ y - 0.11] 3.0805 dx] dy

P(Y > X + 0.11) = ∫[10 ≤ y ≤ 10.57] [3.0805 * (x)] from x = 10 to x = y - 0.11 dy

P(Y > X + 0.11) = ∫[10 ≤ y ≤ 10.57] [3.0805 * (y - (10 - 0.11))] dy

P(Y > X + 0.11) = 3.0805 * ∫[10 ≤ y ≤ 10.57] (y - 9.89) dy

P(Y > X + 0.11) = 3.0805 * [(y² / 2) - 9.89y] from y = 10 to y = 10.57

P(Y > X + 0.11) = 3.0805 * [((10.57)² / 2) - 9.89 * 10.57 - (((10)² / 2) - 9.89 * 10)]

P(Y > X + 0.11) = 3.0805 * [((111.7249 / 2) - 104.9135 - (50 / 2 - 98.9)]

P(Y > X + 0.11) = 3.0805 * [(55.86245 - 104.9135 + 49.9)]

P(Y > X + 0.11) = 3.0805 * [0.84895]

P(Y > X + 0.11) ≈ 2.6092

Therefore, the probability that the second pipe (with length Y) is more than 0.11 feet longer than the first pipe (with length X) is approximately 2.6092%.

To learn more on probability click:

brainly.com/question/11234923

#SPJ4

Answer: $13.50

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

$13.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Everything you do is multiply 75 by 0.18 ( 0.18 represents 18%)

which gives you 13.5, so the tip would be $13.50

Ants

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

my calculator says 1159/35

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

c

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

More than

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

More

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

NOM and POR

(so so sorry if it's wrong, I tried my best to help you but I had to look up an image of a angle like that but i hope you have a wonderful day, sorry again if i am wrong, i hope i help in a way, in i did not, sorry)

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

-15x = x = 0/-15

x = 0

Step-by-step explanation:

-15x=0

-15x/-15=0/-15

x=0

-15(0)=0

Answer:

current market price:

PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 3.5%)²⁶ = $

PV of coupon payments = $45 x 16.89035 (PV annuity factor, 3.5%, 26 periods) = $760.07

current market price = $408.84 + $760.07 = $1,168.91

price in 1 year:

PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 3.5%)²⁴ = $437.96

PV of coupon payments = $45 x 16.05837 (PV annuity factor, 3.5%, 24 periods) = $722.63

market price = $437.96 + $722.63 = $1,160.59

price in 3 years:

PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 3.5%)²⁰ = $502.57

PV of coupon payments = $45 x 14.2124 (PV annuity factor, 3.5%, 20 periods) = $639.56

market price = $502.57+ $639.56 = $1,142.13

price in 8 years:

PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 3.5%)¹⁰ = $708.92

PV of coupon payments = $45 x 8.31661 (PV annuity factor, 3.5%, 10 periods) = $374.25

market price = $708.92 + $374.25 = $1,083.17

price in 12 years:

PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 3.5%)² = $933.51

PV of coupon payments = $45 x 1.89969 (PV annuity factor, 3.5%, 2 periods) = $85.49

market price = $933.51 + $85.49 = $1,019

price in 13 years:

market price = $1,000 + $45 = $1,045

current market price:

PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 4.5%)²⁶ = $318.40

PV of coupon payments = $35 x 15.14661 (PV annuity factor, 4.5%, 26 periods) = $530.13

current market price = $318.40 + $530.13 = $847.53

price in 1 year:

PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 4.5%)²⁴ = $347.70

PV of coupon payments = $35 x 14.49548 (PV annuity factor, 4.5%, 24 periods) = $507.34

market price = $347.70 + $507.34 = $855.04

price in 3 years:

PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 4.5%)²⁰ = $414.64

PV of coupon payments = $35 x 13.00794 (PV annuity factor, 4.5%, 20 periods) = $455.28

market price = $414.64+ $455.28 = $869.92

price in 8 years:

PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 4.5%)¹⁰ = $643.93

PV of coupon payments = $35 x 7.91272 (PV annuity factor, 4.5%, 10 periods) = $276.95

market price = $643.93 + $276.95 = $920.88

price in 12 years:

PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 4.5%)² = $915.73

PV of coupon payments = $35 x 1.87267 (PV annuity factor, 4.5%, 2 periods) = $65.54

market price = $915.73 + $65.54 = $981.27

price in 13 years:

market price = $1,000 + $35 = $1,035

The Answer is

$287732

I wish you all the best of luck