For chemical burns, the priority action by the nurse should be to Assist clients to remove contaminated clothing and shower with copious amounts of water.
Strong acids, drain cleaners, paint thinner, gasoline, and many other substances can induce chemical burns, which are tissue injury.For patients who have been exposed to a hazardous chemical or radioactive agent, decontamination is a top nursing priority. Before offering care to patients in a disaster, the nurse should help them completely decontaminate. Decontamination reduces exposure to other clients and personnel as well as further client injuries.If a shower is available, take off any contaminated clothing or jewelry and rinse the chemicals off for at least 20 minutes. Avoid getting chemicals in your eyes.Dress the burn. Apply a fresh bandage to the burn. On prevent applying pressure to the burned skin, wrap it loosely.Re-rinse if necessary. Rinse the area several more times if you experience more burning.learn more about chemical burns here: https://brainly.com/question/24720375
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Alicia is a sedentary, 20-year-old woman. She weighs 145 pounds. Based on her body weight, what is her Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for protein
The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for protein for Alicia with a weight of 145 pounds is around 52.7 grams of protein.
The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) is the amount of food that a person should eat regularly to fulfill all the nutritional needs of the body. It is frequently used to help people plan diets that are sufficiently nutrient-dense.
RDA for protein is 0.8 grams of protein per kilogram (Kg) of body weight. Alicia's weight in kg will be:
145÷2.2= 65.9 kgs
RDA for protein for Alicia = 65.9 X 0.8 = 52.7 grams of protein
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A client who has successfully adjusted to a colostomy declines the invitation to speak to a support group on the subject of alteration in body image. The client reports an extreme fear of public speaking. The nurse recognizes that this client is suffering from social phobia. Which are some other manifestations of social phobias
obsession, social phobias or agoraphobia are the other types of social phobia. Social phobia is the inability to deal with situations of social interactions with strangers or in places that put the person in evidence, generating extreme discomfort and nervousness, making them feel vulnerable and avoid these situations at any cost.
Why does it happen?People with social phobia act this way, because they believe they are being analyzed all the time and judged by their words, behavior and attitudes.
What are the symptoms of social phobia?The symptoms of social phobia are formed by a set of emotional and physical sensations that the person can feel, in addition to the externalization of behavior due to this disorder.
Sometimes the symptoms of social phobia can be confused with the personality characteristics of a shy person, but its consequences are much more serious.
While a shy person experiences a little nervousness in new or exposed situations, those with social phobia experience a much more intense reaction, of real fear and with a lot of anxiety. As a result, your entire life structure and routine are affected, harming your work, studies, relationships and friendships.
With this information, we can conclude that social phobia are chronic mental illness in which social interactions cause irrational anxiety.
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A client has just received combined spinal epidural. Which nursing assessment should be performed first
Osteopathic Manual Therapy Reduces Gastrointestinal Dysfunction and Length of Stay for Premature Infants in Neonatal Int
Effect of osteopathic manipulative treatment on gastrointestinal function and length of stay of preterm infants: an exploratory study.
Osteopathic manipulative therapyOMT, or osteopathic manipulative therapy, is a manual therapy approach. Osteopathic manipulative therapy or osteopathic manipulation are other names for OMT. Osteopathic medical doctors (DOs) employ OMT to treat a variety of medical disorders including mechanical pain (pain from a structural imbalance in the muscle, tendon, or bone). OMT is another tool used by DOs to help your body work better and diagnose and prevent disease. The muscles, soft tissues, and joints are gently manipulated by DOs using a variety of OMT techniques. By ensuring that your bones and muscles are properly aligned and balanced, the procedure helps your body to repair itself.
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Which assessment would support a diagnosis of type A COPD rather than type B COPD?
Airway blockage or limitation is a hallmark of the group of chronic, irreversible respiratory disorders known as a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It is not treatable or contagious. Reduced pulmonary airflow brought on by elevated inflammation characterises asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Two primary phenotypes have been established based on clinical, pathological, and radiological characteristics:
Emphysema type A and type B patients are referred to as "pink puffers" and "blue-bloaters," respectively (chronic bronchitis)
Dyspnea is the most common symptom in Type A patients, while cough and hypersecretion are mild. The main causes of the decreased diffusing capacity for carbon monoxide (DLCO) and frequently enlarged lung volumes in Type A patients include non-homogeneous ventilation and ventilation-perfusion mismatch. Type A patients also seldom have hypercapnia or recurrent heart failure.
Mucous hypersecretion is the predominant symptom of type B patients, although dyspnea is mild. While lung capacities are not expanded and carbon monoxide diffusing ability is often conserved, type B patients frequently exhibit hypercapnia, hypoxia, secondary pulmonary hypertension, and cardiovascular comorbidities.
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A client is taking clorazepate. The client asks the nurse if there is a risk of addiction with this medication. Which information should the nurse provide
An overdose of clorazepate can be fatal if you take it with alcohol, opioid medicine, or other drugs that cause drowsiness or slow your breathing.
What is Clorazepate ?Clorazepate is a benzodiazepine that is used to treat anxiety disorders, partial seizures, or alcohol withdrawal symptoms.
Clorazepate Dipotassium Tablets, USP are federally controlled substance (C-IV) because it contains Clorazepate that can be abused or lead to dependence.Keep Clorazepate dipotassium in a safe place to prevent misuse and abuse. Selling or giving away Clorazepate dipotassium may harm others, and is against the law.Learn more about Clorazepate here:
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A person who regularly consumes fish such as shark, king mackerel, and swordfish is at risk for ingesting potentially toxic amounts of
Mercury is ingested in the excess amount by the person who consumes shark, king mackerel, and swordfish.
Eating seafood is good for health like fish etc. As they are a high source of proteins and omega-3 fatty acids. Mercury is a toxic metal that when ingested causes poisoning and neurological diseases which lead to sudden death. Pregnant, nursing women and children should avoid eating fish in their diet. Larger fishes like Shark, and King mackerel feed on the small fishes due to which they have high mercury content. Mercury poisoning causes symptoms like- memory loss, numbness in the limbs, and deterioration the brain development.
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Kids of abusive parents often display ________ attachment, and may run away from their parents in the Strange Situation experiment.
Answer: disorganized attachment
Explanation:
- disorganized attachment is rooted in unpredictable and inconsistent behavior from caregivers during a child's formative years
- this is an insecure style of attachment that develops when kids are raised in an environment that elicits fear, often involving abuse or a lack of reliability
signs of disorganized attachment in children can include:
- attention seeking
- avoidant
- inability to communicate needs
- lack of self-soothing skills
- hyper-focusing
- push-pull dynamic with caregivers
- confusion and ambivalence
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A nurse is performing a venipuncture on an older adult client whose veins are difficult to locate. Which of the following actions should the nurse take
When doing venipuncture on an elderly client whose veins are hard to find, the nurse should touch the skin around the insertion site.
Location for Venipuncture:
The two veins most frequently utilized for venipuncture are -the cephalic and median cubital veins. Possible locations include the dorsum of the arm's basilic vein or the dorsal veins of the hands. The basilic vein, which is found on the pinkie side of the arm and is adjacent to the brachial arteries and median nerve, must only be utilized if there are no other more noticeable arm veins, due to its close closeness to both. Only in extreme cases can veins in the ankle and foot be used. Avoid touching the veins on the inside of the wrist. A few additional websites ought to be avoided as well.Learn more about venipuncture here:
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A nurse provides teaching on hand hygiene to a client. Which of the following client statements indicates to the nurse a need for further teaching
The following client statements indicates to the nurse a need for further hygiene teaching "I should wash my hands until they appear clean".
Washing hands until they appear clean is not the correct way to maintain hygiene. Generally speaking, washing your hands with soap and water is recommended. Regular soap is just as good at fighting germs as over-the-counter antibacterial soaps.Clean, running water, either warm or cold, should be used to wet your hands.Apply soap and thoroughly lather.For at least 20 seconds, vigorously rub your hands. Keep in mind to scrub everything, including the wrists, between your fingers, and under your fingernails.Clearly rinse.Dry your hands using a fresh towel or let them air dry.learn more about hygiene here: https://brainly.com/question/13562099
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Samantha is pregnant with her third baby. about how long can she expect active labor to last?
a) 5 hours.
b) 7 hours.
c) 12 hours.
d) 14 hours.
Samantha is pregnant with her third baby. She can expect active labor to last 7 hours.
Labor in mothers who have already given birth shares many similarities and differences with labor in first pregnancies. It is impossible to comprehend the distinctions between a first-time and third-time pregnancy without accurate information.The length of a third pregnancy's labor period depends on a number of circumstances. Estimates range from 2 hours to 15 hours or more, and mothers give varied estimates.However, it is simple for expectant moms to better comprehend their gestation cycle thanks to a number of pertinent statistics about third pregnancy labor.learn more about labor here: https://brainly.com/question/1259611
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Transabdominal ultrasound of pregnant uterus, first pregnancy (real time with image documentation), fetal and maternal evaluation, second trimester
The current procedural terminology (CPT) code for transabdominal ultrasound of pregnant uterus, first pregnancy (real time with image documentation), fetal and maternal evaluation, second trimester is 76805.
What is Medical coding?This is the transformation of treatment, services etc into numeric and alphanumeric codes.
This reduces prevent ambiguity as in this case where several methods for cervical screening during pregnancy are mentioned but represented with a single code which is 76805.
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Upon assessing the newborn's respirations, which finding would cause the nurse to notify the primary care provider
A respiratory rate of 15 breaths per minute with nasal flaring and acrocyanosis.
What are some respiratory assessments that are normal in a newborn? The respiratory rate should be between 30 and 60 breaths per minute.Coughing and sneezing are normal in newborns.Apnea that lasts longer than 15 seconds but overall short period is normal findings in newborn.What are some alarming respiratory assessments about a newborn?Nasal flaring is a sign of respiratory distress.Acrocyanosis which is bluish coloration of skin due to decreased amount of oxygen delivered to the peripheral part indicates respiratory distress.Chest retractions- skins around the breastbone and ribs pulls while breathing.Grunting sound with each breath.Finding above conditions would cause the nurse to notify the primary care provider.
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76-year-old woman has a complex medical history that includes emphysema, osteoporosis, malnutrition, and hypothyroidism. Recently, the woman fell outside her home as a result of weakness and suffered a fracture to her femoral head. The woman's subsequent hip-replacement surgery has been scheduled and the care team recognizes that the use of isoflurane will be most significantly influenced by
Answer:
I think it's malnutrition not really sure about the answer
The use of isoflurane during the hip-replacement surgery of the 76-year-old woman will be most significantly influenced by her medical history, particularly her emphysema and osteoporosis.
Emphysema is a chronic lung condition characterized by the destruction of lung tissue, leading to reduced lung function. This condition increases the risk of complications during anesthesia, as the patient may have impaired gas exchange. Isoflurane is an inhalation anesthetic commonly used during surgery, and its effects on respiratory function need to be carefully considered in patients with emphysema.
Osteoporosis, which is a condition characterized by decreased bone density, poses challenges during surgery as it increases the risk of fractures and complications. The fragility of the patient's bones due to osteoporosis may influence the surgical approach and the use of anesthetics like isoflurane. The care team must take into account the patient's emphysema and osteoporosis when determining the appropriate dosage and monitoring protocols for isoflurane during hip-replacement surgery.
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The appropriate question is:
A 76-year-old woman has a complex medical history that includes emphysema, osteoporosis, malnutrition, and hypothyroidism. Recently, the woman fell outside her home as a result of weakness and suffered a fracture to her femoral head. The woman's subsequent hip-replacement surgery has been scheduled and the care team recognizes that the use of isoflurane will be most significantly influenced by what?
An adult client consumed 20 g of protein and had a total nitrogen loss of 10 g. The client's nitrogen balance would most appropriately be described as:
An adult customer had a total nitrogen loss of 10 g after consuming 20 g of protein. It would be more accurate to say that the client's nitrogen balance is negative.
When nitrogen intake and outflow are equal, or when nitrogen balance is zero, nitrogen equilibrium is achieved. When nitrogen intake surpasses nitrogen production, the condition is known as a positive nitrogen balance or anabolic state. A negative nitrogen balance or catabolic condition develops when nitrogen excretion exceeds nitrogen intake. By deducting the total nitrogen output from the total nitrogen intake, nitrogen balance may be computed.
The formula N X 6.25 was used since the typical nitrogen (N) concentration of proteins was determined to be around 16 percent of the total protein weight.
Therefore, Nitrogen (N) intake from 20 grams of protein =20/6.25=3.2 grams
Nitrogen balance =(3.2-10)= -6.8 grams
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A patient with persistent, frequent asthma exacerbations asks a nurse about a long-acting beta2-agonist medication. What will the nurse tell this patient
A nurse is questioned about a long-acting beta2-agonist drug by a patient who experiences persistent, recurrent asthma exacerbations. As prophylactic, the glucocorticoid is used to stop exacerbations.
Asthma is a chronic respiratory disease that affects a lot of people. In wealthy nations, it is viewed as a major cause of morbidity and a major contributor to the high cost of healthcare. The two main pathogenic characteristics of asthmatics' airways are inflammation and hyperresponsiveness. Treatment for asthma should be intensified gradually in order to regulate the condition, both for symptom relief and to avoid exacerbations. This methodical approach, which begins with low dose inhaled corticosteroids and progresses, if necessary, to inhaled corticosteroids combined with long-acting -agonists, will control the majority of instances of asthma.learn more about asthma here: https://brainly.com/question/17481521
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A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is pregnant. The nurse should expect which of the following laboratory values to increase
The laboratory values which will increase in pregnant women is Human chorionic gonadotropin hormone (hCG).
What is Human chorionic gonadotropin hormone?This hormone is produced by the placenta during the course of pregnancy in human females.
They are usually detected by laboratory tests as a sign of pregnancy thereby making it the most appropriate choice.
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A nurse is reviewing the medication administration records from the previous shift. Which of the following should indicate the need for an incident/variance report
Option (D). An extended release capsule is mixed with applesauce is the correct answer.
An extended release capsule is mixed with applesauce indicates the need for an incident/variance report.
What is Medical administration record?The medical record is a crucial instrument that is used to organize care, facilitate communication between healthcare professionals and other staff members, and give documentation of the patient's sickness, treatment, and reaction to that therapy. A medical record is private.
What is an incident/variance report?A technique typically utilized in a unit-based clinical outcome report is the variance reporting tool. It is one that is used when it is necessary to record the disparities between what is known to be affected by disease and what was purported to have been accomplished.
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See full question below
A nurse is reviewing the medication administration records from the previous shift. Which of the following should indicate the need for an incident/variance report
a). An aminoglycoside IV antibiotic is administered over 1 hour
b). An ear drop administration is secured with a cotton ball to the outer
ear for 5 min.
c). An IM medication is injected to the vastus lateralis site of an adult.
d). An extended release capsule is mixed with applesauce.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to an older adult client following total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching
Maintaining hip flexion at 90 degrees or less when sitting is the appropriate instructions in which the nurse should include in the teaching to the individual who just went through total hip arthroplasty.
What is Arthroplasty?This is a medical procedure which involves remodeling of the joint so as to restore its functions. The damaged joint is usually replaced with an artificial one in this scenario thereby ensuring certain types of movements are restored.
The individual should always maintain a hip flexion at 90 degrees or less when sitting so as to prevent the joint from being stressed which helps maintain its functions. This should also be done to avoid the incidence of the dislocation of the joint.
This is therefore the reason why maintaining a hip flexion at 90 degrees or less is the most appropriate choice.
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A nurse is reviewing the medication record for a client who has intrinsic kidney injury the nurse should consider which of the following medications has nephrotoxic adverse effects
Amphotericin (Amphoteric) is a medication that has nephrotoxic drug effect.
What is a Nephrotoxic drug?Nephrotoxic drugs are characterized as having the potential to harm the kidneys. The kidneys may suffer immediate harm from certain medications.
Nephrotoxicity is defined as a rapid decline in kidney function brought on by the toxic effects of drugs and substances. There are numerous types, and some medications may have multiple negative effects on renal function. Nephrotoxic compounds are known as nephrotoxins.
Drugs that are nephrotoxic frequently cause inflammation in the proximal tubules, glomerulus, and surrounding cellular matrix before fiberizing the kidney tissue. Glomerulonephritis, acute and chronic interstitial nephritis, and other forms of inflammation that affect normal kidney functioning and cause toxicity are examples of this.
Amphotericin B side effects that affect kidney function include metabolic acidosis caused by amphotericin B, urine magnesium wasting and hypomagnesemia, and urinary potassium wasting and hypokalemia.
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Type, frequency, time, and rest are examples of what aspect of fitness? Elements of a fitness program Acute training variables Periodization Training cycles
Type, frequency, time, and rest are examples of acute training variables.
The acute training variables can be used by the strength and conditioning coach to control the workload during each training unit or session. Indicators of acute training include:
The amount of training units in a week is known as frequency.Exercise's effort is measured by its intensity.Time is the length of exercise (or specified repetitions)The selection and sequencing of exercises, called type.The strength and conditioning coach may carry out such a program one to three times a week, depending on the players' level of growth and the availability of training opportunities.
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After developing severe pain from muscle stiffness and cramps, the victim of a black widow spider bite will experience:
After developing severe pain from muscle stiffness and cramps, the victim of a black widow spider bite will experience: flulike symptoms.
Black widow spiders usually found in Mexico, the southern United States, and Canada. They reside in low-lying webs near swimming pools, in wood piles, garages, grills, and barbecues. Between April and October, the majority of bites happen in suburban and rural locations. When their webs are tampered with, these spiders often bite. Bites to infants and young children can be more dangerous than bites to adults.
After being bitten by a black widow spider, one may have painful swelling around the bite. Additionally, individuals can get stomachaches, cramps, and muscle spasms. These symptoms may worsen, up to 12 hours after you have been bitten. It may take a few days or weeks before all the discomfort goes away.
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What is a correct approach for aed pad placement?
Answer:
Place one pad on the right side of the chest, just below the collarbone. Place the other pad on the lower left side of the chest. Connect the pads to the AED. Some pads come pre-connected to the AED.
How should agent Erin respond when consumer Mrs. Rose notices that the presented MA Plan has a Star Rating of 2 stars?
Erin must respond when consumer Mrs. Rose realizes that the presented Health Care Plan has a 2 star rating, that even with a low rating it will have many advantages including cost benefit.
What is star scale in MA Plan?Plans are rated on a scale of one to five, with one star representing poor performance and five stars representing excellent performance. Star ratings are released annually and reflect the experiences of people enrolled in Medicare Advantage and Part D prescription drug plans. The Star Ratings system supports CMS' efforts to empower people to make the best health decisions for them.
With this information, we can conclude that that even with a low rating it will have many advantages including cost benefit.
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. A nurse believes that she lacks the basic knowledge and skills necessary to carry out her initial patient assignment. The nurse invokes Safe Harbor and brings her Quick Request for Safe Harbor form to her supervisor. What other action is required by the nurse when refusing an assignment
The other action required by the nurse when refusing an assignment is a Safe harbor from collaborating with the supervisor.
A safe harbor is a clause in a law or regulation that says certain actions shall be regarded as not breaking a particular rule.
When a nurse requests in good faith a nursing peer review of an assignment or action they are expected to carry out, Safe Harbor is a mechanism that shields them from employer retribution, suspension, termination, disciplinary, discrimination, and licensure sanctions.
Due to urgent patient care requirements, a nurse may invoke safe harbor by verbally telling the nurse's supervisor of the request. In that case, the nurse's supervisor must establish in writing the specifications for a Safe Harbor Quick Request.
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Snacks provide about _____ of the average teenager’s total daily food energy intake.
Snacks provide about one -fourth of the average teenagers total daily food energy intake.Eating healthy food is an important part of our healthy life.
The food that provides most helpful to teens are whole-wheat, enriched , or fortified breads.Vitamins and minerals are are important intakes for teenagers in their young age.Calories needs vary depends on age and gender and according to to activity level of teenagers.
Boys require an average 3000 calories a day an girls requires 2500 calories a day not more not less . The body demands more calories during early adolescence .Teenagers should limit their intakes to 25 to 35 % of total calories every day in snacks.
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The nurse reinforces teaching to the parents of a 12-month-old who has begun weaning from breastfeeding. Which statement by the parents indicates that teaching has been effective
I can start substituting breastfeeding sessions with whole cow's milk is the correct statement by the parents which will indicate that the teaching by the nurse has been effective.
What is Weaning?This is the process in which a baby is moved from breastfeeding to other types of food sources such as solids. This usually takes time as a lot of patience is required due to the baby having to adapt gently to the new conditions so as to achieve the aim.
This usually occurs after six to 12 month depending on the decision by the parents in which the baby has gotten the appropriate nutrients from breast milk. In this case, cow milk can be used as a substitute in the diet of the child.
This is therefore the reason why it was chosen as the most appropriate choice in this scenario.
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_____________________ deaths are prevented each year by the newly improved pneumococcal conjugate vaccine used with infants.
More than 1,000 deaths are prevented each year by the newly improved pneumococcal conjugate vaccine used with infants.
Pneumococcal disease alludes to any disease brought about by pneumococcal bacteria. These microorganisms can cause many kinds of diseases, including pneumonia, which is a contamination of the lungs. Pneumococcal microbes are one of the most widely recognized reasons for pneumonia.
Pneumococcal conjugate immunization is a pneumococcal immunization and forms antibodies used to safeguard infants, small kids, and grown-ups against sickness brought about by the bacterium Streptococcus pneumonia.
There are three pneumococcal form immunizations PCV13, PCV15, and PCV20. The various immunizations are suggested for various individuals in light of their age and clinical status. In general, the immunization is 60% to 70% successful in forestalling obtrusive illness brought about by serotypes in the antibody.
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Currently, an older adult in __________ can expect to live the longest in full health, without disease or injury.
Currently, an older adult in Japan can expect to live the longest in full health, without disease or injury.
Japan is an island country in East Asia. Tokyo is the capital of Japan. Japan is one of the most densely populated countries in the world and is urbanized.
Japan has the highest life expectancy as compared to other countries. In Japan people live the longest in full health, as there are very less number of deaths due to ischemic heart diseases and cancer.
People are healthy in Japan as they consume very healthy foods like more of fish and seafood, green tea, soya bean , etc. Japanese people consume very less red meat and sugars. The Japanese diet helps people remain heathy.
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The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports being splashed in the eye while emptying urine from the catheter bag of a client with AIDS. The UAP is afraid of becoming infected with HIV and requests immediate testing. What is the nurse's priority action
Direct UAP to eyewash station, flush eyes
Any task nurses assign must be capable of being completed and be licenced. The assignment must even be one that UAP can handle and that your facility identifies as delegatable. A piece that can be delegated is one that doesn't call for nursing discretion. Typically, it involves repetitive tasks, such measuring vital signs and urine output.
What is HIV AIDS ?The virus referred to as HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) targets the immune system of the body. AIDS can develop from HIV if it's not treated (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome).
A virus is the cause of HIV. Sexual contact, sharing needles for illegal drugs or injections, coming into contact with infected blood, or transmission from mother to child during pregnancy, childbirth, or breastfeeding are all ways HIV might spreadWhite blood cells called CD4 T cells, which are crucial to your body's ability to fight infection, are destroyed by HIV.Learn more about HIV AIDS here:
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