Elaine was a diabetic and had a wound that would not heal, so Dr. Smith had her placed in a hyperbaric oxygenation of the wound. The root operation term used in ICD-10-PCS is: Assistance
ICD-10-PCS :
THE INTERNATIONAL CLASSIFICATION OF DISEASES Tenth Revision Procedure Coding System (ICD-10-PCS) was developed to accompany the World Health Organization’s (WHO) ICD-10 diagnosis classification. The new procedure coding system was created to replace of ICD-9-CM procedure codes for describing inpatient procedures.
The root operations defines the the objective of the procedure. Some examples of root operations are Bypass , Drainage, and Reattachment.
Assistance defines procedures that assist a physiological function but do not take complete control of it, such as intra-aortic balloon pump to support cardiac output and hyperbaric oxygen treatment.
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When suctioning a client with a tracheostomy using an open system, which actions by the nurse would help to prevent hypoxemia during the procedure
Tracheostomy is the opening created at the front of the neck where a pipe is being inserted for a patient to breath normally.
What is suctioning of tracheostomy?The suctioning of tracheostomy is a nursing procedure that is being carried out by a Train band certified registered Nurse.
The process requires a careful step to prevent the patient from suffering from hypoxemia, which is decreased oxygen content of the blood.
In order to prevent hypoxemia during the suctioning procedure,
Pause for 30 to 60 seconds between suctioning attempts. Limit suctioning to 10 to 15 seconds each time. Hyperventilate the client with 3 to 6 breaths before suctioning.Learn more about hypoxemia here:
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identify the locations for the ecg electrodes on the chest. prepare the skin. if the patient has a hairy chest, get the person's permission prior to shaving the areas (optional). Wipe each spot with alcohol and allow it to dry. fold the gauze pad over your index finger and briskly rub the site to abrade the skin.
The locations for the ECG electrodes on the chest are
V1: 4th intercostal space (ICS), RIGHT margin of the sternum
V2: 4th ICS along the LEFT margin of the sternum
V4: 5th ICS, mid-clavicular line
V3: midway between V2 and V4
V5: 5th ICS, anterior axillary line (same level as V4)
V6: 5th ICS, mid-axillary line (same level as V4)
ECG electrodesOne of the easiest and quickest tests to assess the heart is an electrocardiogram (ECG). On the arms, legs, and certain locations on the chest, electrodes are positioned. Lead wires are used to connect the electrodes to an ECG device. The heart's electrical activity is then recorded, deciphered, and printed out. In order to maintain proper blood flow, the heart's many muscle contractions are coordinated by natural electrical impulses. These electrical impulses are captured by an ECG to display the heart's rate, rhythm, and strength and timing as they pass through the various heart chambers. Numerous heart-related disorders might show up as changes in an ECG.
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After instructing a mother about nutrition for a preschool-age child, which statement by the mother indicates correct understanding of the topic
Make sure you give your baby an iron-fortified formula to supplementany stored breast milk you have.
The nurse should not make the mother feel guilty about her decision to begin bottle feeding to supplement breastfeeding.
What statement by the mother indicates correct understanding of the topic ?She can give it to supplement any stored breast milk she might have in supply. She should emphasize the importance of giving the baby iron-fortified formula because fetaliron stores become depleted by 4 to 6 months of age
Infants younger than 1 year of ageshould not receive regular cow’s milk because it may place a strain on the immature kidneysBecause the baby weighs 14 pounds, he will require about 21 ounces of formula a day (not 36ounces), based on the nutritional recommendations that infants require 80 to 100 mL of formula or breast milk per kilogram of body weight per day.Learn more about Nutrition here:
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The primary health care provider (PHCP) has prescribed codeine sulfate for a client with a nonproductive cough to suppress the cough reflex. The nurse should teach the client to monitor for which side effect of the medication
The nurse should teach the client to monitor for constipation side effect of the medication.
What is constipation?Patients with constipation may experience abdominal tightness or a severe, cramping discomfort in the middle of their gut.Even though they haven't eaten in several hours, they could constantly feel as though they have just had a substantial meal.Additionally, patients may feel gassy, yet passing gas does not make them feel better.When you have difficult or infrequent bowel movements, you are constipated. Most people eventually go through it.Even while it's generally nothing serious, once your body is back on track, you'll feel considerably better. Individual differences in the average interval between bowel motions are significant.Additionally lacking in fiber, these foods can significantly slow down the passage of food through your intestines.Learn more about constipation here:
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A nurse on a psychiatric unit is planning care for an unconscious teenage client who ingested a non-corrosive substance that has no recommended antidote. Which of the following methods for gastric emptying is appropriate
The most appropriate gastric emptying in someone who ingested a non-corrosive substance that has no recommended antidote is activated charcoal.
What is Activated charcoal?This is the type of charcoal formed when it is heated in the presence of a gas thereby creating pores or spaces in its structure.
Since the substance is non corrosive and has no antidote then it is best to use activated charcoal as it helps to filter the contaminants or toxic substance thereby making it the most appropriate choice.
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The remaining part of the question is:
The nurse should recommend performing gastric lavage with which substance?
A client gives birth to a baby at a local health care facility. The nurse observes that the infant is fussy and begins to move her hands to her mouth and suck on her hand and fingers. How should the nurse interpret these findings
Which of the following factors play a major role in determining that a clinical practice guideline is credible
It is clear that the developers attempted to conducts a systematic review for each important issue the guideline will address and use that evidence to formulate recommendations. Option C
What is clinical practice guideline ?The term clinical practice guideline refers to those set of standards of conduct that guide the relationship of the professionals with the client. They deal more with the ethics of the profession. The ethics of the profession has to do with what is right or wrong in the practice of the profession. Since nursing is a very noble profession, it is also guided by the known clinical practice guideline.
Certain factors play a major role in determining that a clinical practice guideline is credible. Hence, the factor that makes the clinical practice guideline credible is that; " It is clear that the developers attempted to conducts a systematic review for each important issue the guideline will address and use that evidence to formulate recommendations."
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Missing parts;
Which of the following factors plays a major role in determining that a clinical practice guideline is credible?
A. Findings with high correlations with patient characteristics were weighted heavily
B. It is clear that the developers met fact to face while developing the guideline and had candid discussion of the issues the guideline will address
C. It is clear that the developers attempted to conducts a systematic review for each important issue the guideline will address and use that evidence to formulate recommendations.
D. Only recommendations that were supported by a majority of the development team were included in the final guideline.
which behvaiors would the nurse include i na teaching plan to eduactre a relative of a client with schoziphrenia baout the early sing swof relaspe
The early warning behaviours the nurse should include in educating a relative of a client with schizophrenia before relapse are trouble sleeping, staying away from people and mood changes.
It can be simple to believe schizophrenia is behind you when the condition is under control and the symptoms stop or improve. Relapses, however, can occur. That indicates that the symptoms return. By keeping an eye out for early warning signals, you can aid in their prevention.
Avoid using illegal substances and alcohol. They increase the chance of a relapse. Find healthy coping mechanisms for stress. It can make symptoms worse. Schizophrenia sufferers may have trouble sleeping. Caffeine restriction and exercise are helpful. Support groups offer a vital forum for family members of people with schizophrenia to exchange experiences, suggestions, and knowledge. Consult dependable friends.
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Hesari et al. 2019. The effects of teaching methods of palliative care on life pattern of old women with chronic pain. Eur J Transl Myol, 29(4)
Chronic pain is among the problems of old people and causes changes in their life patterns and processes.
Abstract:
Elderly persons with chronic pain can live active lives by learning palliative care. The purpose of this study was to ascertain the effects of palliative care education on the daily routines of older women with chronic pain. The current study was carried out on 30 older women with chronic pain in Iran in 2018 using a quasi-experimental design with pre-and post-tests. Before the intervention, a questionnaire to assess the older population's pattern of life with pain was completed. A group education program on palliative care was then used, and the questionnaire was then refilled immediately as well as one and three months afterward.
The mean changes before teaching palliative care were significantly different from those immediately following the educational program, as well as one and three months later (p = 0.0), respectively (p = 0.004). The stages immediately after the educational program, those occurring one month later, and those occurring three months later all differed significantly (p = 0.001, p = 0.002) from one another. Between the stage immediately following the educational program and those before the intervention and three months after it, there were statistically significant variations in the personal life patterns (p = 0.005, p = 0.000).
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Narisety SD, Frischmeyer-Guerrerio PA, Keet CA, Gorelik M, Schroeder J, Hamilton RG, et al. A randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled pilot study of sublingual versus oral immunotherapy for the treatment of peanut allergy. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2015;135:1275-82
The FDA has approved the first medication to treat children's peanut allergies. Palforzia has been approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration today to lessen allergic reactions, including anaphylaxis, that may arise from unintentional exposure to peanuts.
What is peanut allergy?Immune system misinterprets peanut proteins as being toxic, which leads to peanut allergy. Immune system releases substances into your bloodstream that lead to symptom onset whether you come into direct or indirect contact with peanuts. There are numerous ways to become exposed to peanuts: Direct interaction.The reaction is brought on by an excessively vigilant immune system that views the proteins in peanuts as a threat. Chemicals are released as a result of the immunoglobulin E antibody's synthesis. An allergic reaction, which could possibly be lethal, is the result.A common food allergy is a sensitivity to peanuts. In the US, about 1 in 50 kids suffer from a peanut allergy. By maturity, only approximately 1 in 5 people will still have their allergy. Anaphylaxis, a potentially fatal allergic reaction sign, can result from peanut allergies.Learn more about peanut allergy here:
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A nurse is caring for a client experiencing nausea, vomiting and anorexia due to chemotherapy treatment. What actions should the nurse take to treat this side effect
The actions which a nurse which is caring for a client experiencing nausea, vomiting and anorexia due to chemotherapy treatment should take to treat this side effect are:
Avoiding smellsAvoid anything that triggers nauseaTaking water in between mealsTaking appropriate medicationsWhat is nausea?Nausea is feeling or a sensation of illness or discomfort in the digestive system, usually characterized by a strong urge to vomit.
Vomiting means to regurgitate or eject the contents of the stomach through the mouth.
Anorexia is the loss of appetite, especially as a result of disease.
So therefore, the actions which a nurse which is caring for a client experiencing nausea, vomiting and anorexia due to chemotherapy treatment should take to treat this side effect are avoiding smells, avoid anything that triggers nausea, taking water in between meals and taking appropriate medications.
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The nurse notes the listed assessment findings in a newborn. Which finding correlates with a glucose level for a newborn is 39 mg/dl (2.16 mmol/l).
Because the glucose level of the infant or baby described is lower than the normal level, following are likely to be observed:
Depression of brain functionOverstimulation of brain functionExcessive sweating.What is normal glucose level for a newborn?Typically, the concentration of glucose in newborn babies' blood ranges from 2.5 mmol/l (45 mg/dl) to 7.0 mmol/l (126 mg/dl).
The condition of glucose deficiency is called Hypoglycemia. This can be prevented by:
Feeding the infants as soon as they are delivered;Ensure that their glucose levels are monitored;For babies at risk, glucose testing should be done 30 minutes after the first meal; andSupplements at a young age for infants who have eating issues.What are the common causes of hypoglycemia in new born?PrematuritySmall for gestational ageMaternal hyperglycemia, and Perinatal asphyxia are risk factors that can predispose an infant to hypoglycemia.It is also important to note that:
Delay in meals.Inadequate glycogen storage and hyperinsulinemia, are the most frequent causes.Other symptoms are:
TachycardiaCyanosisConvulsions, and Apnea.Learn more about glucose level at;
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Low fiber intake can cause constipation and force parts of the large intestine wall out from between the surrounding bands of muscle, forming many small pouches called?
Low fiber intake can cause constipation and force parts of the large intestine wall out from between the surrounding bands of muscle, forming many small pouches called diverticula
Diverticula are tiny pouches with protruding edges that can develop in the lining of your digestive tract. The bottom portion of the large intestine is where they are most frequently detected (colon). Diverticula are typical, particularly after the age of 40, and rarely create issues. Diverticula are tiny pouches that protrude from the big gut or colon. Diverticulosis is a condition where you have these pockets. As people age, it becomes increasingly prevalent. It affects almost half of all adults over 60. A low-fiber diet, according to doctors, is the primary culprit. Diverticulitis has the potential to be a catastrophic, even fatal, consequence. Rectal bleeding is one health issue that diverticulitis can cause. Fistulas and abscesses
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After the birth of the newborn, the mother is ready to be discharged home. The client's mother is present and will remain with her for 1 month. The client's mother tells the nurse that her daughter will not be allowed to leave the house for the first month after the birth, based on the family's cultural customs. How should the nurse respond to this statement
The client's mother tells the nurse that her daughter will not be allowed to leave the house for the first month after the birth, based on the family's cultural customs. The nurse should respond to this statement by Accepting the mother's statement and do discharge teaching accordingly.
After the birth of the newborn, the mother is ready to be discharged home. Nurse will do the discharge teaching as follows:
Shower as often as you like, but avoid taking a bath or swimming until after your postpartum visit. Nothing should be placed in the vagina until the postpartum examination. This means no tampons, showering or intercourse (sex). Make a follow-up appointment about six weeks after the birth.
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The nurse is assessing the stools of a 36-hour-old neonate who is being breastfed. The nurse determines that the stools are within normal parameters based on which finding
The first step in analyzing a 24-hour urine specimen for quantitative protein is?
The first step in analyzing a 24-hour urine specimen for quantitative protein is subculture for bacteria. (Add appropriate preservative) .
24-hour urine protein measures the amount of protein released in urine over a 24-hour period. The test is used to check kidney function.
A 24-hour urine collection is done by collecting your urine in a special container over a full 24-hour period. The container must be kept cool until the urine is returned to the lab.
Urine is made up of water and dissolved chemicals, such as sodium and potassium. It also contains urea. This is made when protein breaks down. It contains creatinine, which is formed from muscle breakdown.
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Even if an infant has begun eating other foods, experts recommend that the mother continue to breast feed until the baby is at least ______ old.
Even if an infant has begun eating other foods, experts recommend that the mother continues to breastfeed until the baby is at least two years old.
The process of changing baby habits from breastfeeding to self-nourishment is known as weaning. Breastfeeding should be recommended only for the first six months, but according to the American Academy of Pediatrics, at least one year of breastfeeding and food should be given. Breastfeeding for one year and beyond is healthy for a mother. According to the World Health Organization ( WHO), for up to 2 years mother should breastfeed the baby along with the food.
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A community health nurse is reviewing information related to rural hospitals and closures. Which reason would the nurse most likely note as an issue that would force the closure of a rural hospital
Rural hospitals have a high risk for financial problems.
What is the reason there are so few hospitals in rural areas?
The population density is too low to support a large hospital. There are providers available to serve the population and residents are accepting of health care services, but not as many services are needed because of the lower population density.What defines a rural hospital?
According to the US Office of Management and Budget and the US Census Bureau, rural hospitals are those that are not found in a metropolitan area.
Do you think closures of rural hospitals impact hospitals in urban centers?
A study of hospital closures in California found that closing rural hospitals increased mortality for both heart attacks and strokes. This is because of the longer travel times in rural areas, which makes it more likely that closing a small rural hospital will have a negative impact than closing a small hospital in an urban area.Learn more about rural hospital
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Approximately how many grams of protein per day should a healthy 24-year-old male who weighs 182 pounds consume to meet the RDA for protein for an adult who is not an athlete? (Tip: One kilogram = 2.2 pounds.)
Approximately 66 grams of protein per day should a healthy 24-year-old male who weighs 182 pounds consume to meet the RDA for protein for an adult.
Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA):
The average daily dietary nutrient intake level which is sufficient to fulfill the nutrient needs of nearly all (97-98 %) healthy individuals in a particular life stage and gender group.
Protein needs depend on a number of factors, such as:
weight and composition of the body (increased muscle mass)Level of physical activityEnergy and carbohydrates intake of an individualDisease or injury present (e.g. recovering from trauma or operation)Rate of growth for the person (e.g. greater during childhood )Estimated protein requirements in accordance with US and Canadian Dietary Reference Intake recommendations:
46 grams of protein per day for women between the ages of 19 and 70. (based on 57.5 kg individual).56 grams of protein per day for men ages 19 to 70. (based on 70kg individual).Learn more about Protein here :
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It is recommended to close off areas used by ill persons and wait before beginning to clean and disinfect to minimize potential for exposure to respiratory droplets. If possible, you should wait up to ______ before beginning to clean and disinfect.
It is recommended to close off areas used by ill persons and wait before beginning to clean and disinfect to minimize potential for exposure to respiratory droplets. If possible, you should wait up to 24 hours before beginning to clean and disinfect.
What is disinfection?Disinfection is defined as the reduction of the presence of disease causing microorganisms such as bacteria, fungi, and viruses to a less virulent amount.
When a patient that is affected by communicable disease is discharged, the area where the patient stayed must be disinfected.
It is recommended by the center for disease control (CDC) that a waiting period of up to 24 hours should be done to minimize potential exposure to respiratory droplets.
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When the nurse observes that the client has extension and external rotation of the arms and wrists and plantar flexion of the feet, the nurse records the client's posture as
When the nurse observes the client has extension and external rotation of the arms and wrists and plantar flexion of the feet, the nurse records the client's posture as decerebrate posturing.
Decerebrate posture is an extraordinary body posture that involves the arms and legs being held straight out, the feet being pointed downward, and the head and neck being arched backward. The muscle mass is tightened and held rigidly. This form of posturing usually means there was severe harm to the brain.
even as decorticate posturing remains an ominous signal of intense brain harm, decerebrate posturing is typically indicative of greater extreme damage to the rubrospinal tract, and as a result, the crimson nucleus is likewise involved, indicating a lesion lower inside the brainstem.
The character will receive emergency treatment. This consists of getting a respiration tube and respiration help. The character will possibly be admitted to the health facility and positioned in the intensive care unit.
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A medical assistant assists a patient into a dorsal recumbent position in preparation for an exam. How is the patient positioned
A patient is helped into a dorsal recumbent position so they may be examined by a medical assistant. The patient is positioned in this posture by lying face up, with the feet flat on the table and the legs bent.
The dorsal recumbent position is used for preparation for an exam like vaginal examinations, using obstetric forceps, and other operations. The patient is positioned on their back with their lower limbs flexed and turned outward. It is one of the frequently utilized dorsal or supine postures in clinical practices. Additionally, the terms "supine posture" and "dorsal recumbent position" are sometimes interchanged. To be more specific though, there is little distinction between the two locations.
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Some older adults are unable to meet nutrient needs because of __________________ and may need supplements of ________________and ______________
Some older adults are unable to meet nutrient needs because of a decrease in appetite and may need supplements of vitamins and calcium.
Nutrition is important to live a healthy life. Eating healthy nutritious food gives proper growth and development to the body and brain. With aging the proper functioning of the body declines due to deficiency of nutrients. This decrease in nutrition in the old adult is due to less appetite. This results in diseases like weaker bones, in females osteoporosis, osteoarthritis, etc. To meet all their nutrition old adults require intake of supplements having vitamin D, vitamin B12, and calcium for healthy bones.
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Activities lasting longer than twenty minutes will gradually start using less glucose and more ________.
A patient has questions regarding a recently prescribed antitussive agent. Which response by the nurse is the best
A patient has inquiries about a recent antitussive agent. The best response by the nurse is that it will reduce the frequency of your cough
Antitussives, commonly referred to as cough suppressants, are medications that reduce coughing. Although the precise mechanism of action is uncertain, antitussives are assumed to function by blocking the cough reflex arc in the brain stem's coordinating region.
The best medicine to try if you have a dry cough is one that contains an antitussive, like dextromethorphan or pholcodine. The best medicine to try if you have a chesty cough is one that contains an expectorant, like guaifenesin or ipecacuanha. taking this medication orally, with or without a meal, as recommended by your physician, typically every four hours
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The creation of an illegal drug market controlled by organized crime was the result of?
The creation of an illegal drug market controlled by organized crime was the result of the existence of a huge profit opportunity.
A drug is a medicine or other substance which has a physiological effect when ingested or otherwise introduced into the body. A drug is defined as A substance recognized by an official pharmacopeia or formulary.
people use for loads of reasons: they need to revel in suitable, prevent feeling drugs terrible, or carry out higher in college or at art work, or they're curious because of the reality others are doing it and they need to in shape in. The ultimate purpose can be very not unusual amongst teens. pills excite the components of the mind that make you sense correct.
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which findings from the client's history would be symptoms of insomnia disorder select all the apply fatigue panic attacks acute pain
Answer:
symptoms Agoraphobia anxiety disorder due to a medical condition generalized anxiety disorder panic disorder selective mutism separation anxiety disorder
Insomnia is a sleep disorder in which a person is having trouble falling in sleep. Fatigue, panic attacks and acute pain- all of these are causes of insomnia. Thus, all the options are correct.
What is Insomnia?Insomnia is a sleep disorder in which an individual is facing trouble falling and staying asleep. The condition can be acute or chronic. It may also come and go on its own sometimes. Acute insomnia lasts from 1 night to a few weeks while chronic happens when it happens at least 3 nights a week for 3 months or more.
Causes of insomnia are stress, irregular sleep schedule, poor sleeping habits, mental health disorders, physical illnesses, pain, medications, and neurological problems.
Therefore, all the options are correct options.
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Elizabeth's fasting blood glucose was elevated at 210 mg/dL. Her doctor had been warning her for several years to manage her glucose levels, but she wouldn't listen. She now presents with hypertension, nausea/vomiting, proteinuria, and microalbuminuria. Renal biopsy shows glomerulosclerosis. What is Elizabeth's most probable diagnosis and what are some treatment options
Elizabeth's most probable diagnosis and some treatment options are diabetic nephropathy, diuretics, and dialysis.
What is the treatment of diabetic nephropathy?
As part of your diabetes management, routine testing is typically used to identify diabetic nephropathy. Starting five years following your diagnosis, screening for diabetic nephropathy is advised if you have type 1 diabetes. If you are given a type 2 diabetes diagnosis, the screening will start right away.
Regular screening exams could involve:
Test for urinary albumin: This test can find albumin, a blood protein, in your urine. Normally, albumin is not removed from the blood by the kidneys. A high level of protein in the urine can point to impaired kidney function.Diuretics are frequently administered to the general public to treat a variety of disorders. They can still assist dialysis patients in controlling extracellular fluid volume, hypertension, and the propensity for hyperkalemia.
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A nurse is triaging clients after a local disaster. Which of the following clients should the nurse recommend to discharge first
A nurse is triaging clients after a local disaster. The nurse should recommend that patients who have not suffered any blows and have only superficial cuts should be discharged first.
What is the role of nursing in a situation of public calamity?The role of nurses in urgent and emergency situations is quite broad, as they work by evaluating the assistance provided, performing risk classification, supervising and training the health team, performing arterial and venous puncture, among others.
With this information, we can conclude that Disaster nursing refers to a situation in which a health professional, usually a registered nurse or nurse practitioner, responds to a crisis situation.
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A family member brings the client to the clinic for a follow-up visit after a stroke. The family member asks the nurse what he can do to decrease his chance of having another stroke. What would be the nurse's best answer
The nurse’s best answer would be to advice the patient to stop smoking as soon as possible.
What are the main causes of stroke?A stroke is a medical emergency caused due to damage to the brain from interruption of its blood supply.Stroke is mainly caused due to a blocked artery (ischemic stroke) or due to bursting of a blood vessel (hemorrhagic stroke).Symptoms of stroke include trouble in walking, speaking and understanding and may also cause paralysis of the face, arm, or leg.Medications like tPA (clot buster) can minimize brain damage if given at early stages. Overall this disease is incurable.The main causes of a stroke are high blood pressure, tobacco, heart disease, weight, age, medications, and diabetes.Smoking is an important risk factor causing stroke and to prevent stroke a person must quit smoking.Learn more about stroke here:
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