Even if an infant has begun eating other foods, experts recommend that the mother continues to breastfeed until the baby is at least two years old.
The process of changing baby habits from breastfeeding to self-nourishment is known as weaning. Breastfeeding should be recommended only for the first six months, but according to the American Academy of Pediatrics, at least one year of breastfeeding and food should be given. Breastfeeding for one year and beyond is healthy for a mother. According to the World Health Organization ( WHO), for up to 2 years mother should breastfeed the baby along with the food.
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What term is used to indicate that an ambulance service entity is associated with a medical facility?
The term is used to indicate that an ambulance service entity is associated with a medical facility is called Provider.
Emergency medical services (EMS), also known as ambulance services or paramedic services, are emergency services that provide urgent pre-hospital treatment and stabilization for serious illness and injuries and transport to definitive care.
They may also be known as a first aid squad FAST squad, emergency squad, ambulance squad, ambulance corps, life squad or by other initialisms such as EMAS or EMARS.
Ambulances are the primary vehicles for delivering EMS. These agencies may also operate a non-emergency patient transport service, and some have rescue squads to provide technical rescue services.
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What is one way nursing assistants can assist residents with normal changes of aging related to the urinary system
Nursing assistants can assist residents with normal changes of aging related to the urinary system by helping the residents go to the bathroom frequently.
Nursing assistants complete an education program that is state approved and need to pass their state's competency exam to become licensed.
Hospitals and residential care are the workplaces for nursing assistants. they work in nursing at these places. They are a part of a big care team.
Nursing assistants, help patients in their daily activities like eating, bathing, dressing, etc. They attend to the needs of patients and help them. They also observe and record the conditions of patients.
During aging, there are changes related to the urinary system. People face bladder control issues and cannot hold urine for a much longer time, so nursing assistants can assist residents who face such issues by helping them go to the bathroom frequently.
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During assessment of a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), which finding should the nurse identify when planning care for this client
When planning care for this client, nurses must identify their mobility, nutrition and vital signs.
What is Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis?ALS or Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis is a disease that affects the nervous system in a degenerative and progressive way and causes irreversible motor paralysis. Patients with the disease experience gradual paralysis and early death as a result of the loss of crucial abilities such as
speakingmovingswallowing and breathing.What are the main nursing care?Monitor vital signs.Apply medications.Promote patient safety.Prevent disease complications.Perform basic procedures.Prevention of pressure injuries.With this information, we can conclude that the neurons of patients affected by the disease wear out or die and can no longer send messages to the muscles. nurses must identify their mobility, nutrition and vital signs.
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Which of the following list in the correct order the events of acute inflammation after tissue injury
Erythema, edema, heat, pain, altered function list in the correct order the events of acute inflammation after tissue injury.
What is acute inflammation after tissue injury?Inflammation refers to the initial physiological response to tissue damage, such as that caused by mechanical, thermal, electrical, irradiation, chemical, or infection.
An inflammation or an inflammatory reaction is one of the body's many intricate biological reactions. Chemical mediators and cellular responses work together to combat any infection or harm to the body's cells. Acute and chronic are the two categories.
At the location of an injury or infection, acute inflammation is a type of localized, transient inflammation. Following tissue damage, acute inflammation starts within seconds to minutes. It is distinguished by four essential characteristics (Latin phrases in brackets) Secondary to vasodilation and increased blood flow is redness (rubor). Heat (color) is a localized rise in temperature that is also brought on by a rise in blood flow.
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The nurse is caring for a client who has sustained severe burns to 50% of the body. The nurse is aware that fluid shifts during the first week of the acute phase of a burn injury cause massive cell destruction. What should the nurse report if it occurs immediately after burn injury
The nurse should report Hyperkalemia if it occurs immediately after burn injury.
HyperkalemiaPatients with electrical burns have traditionally been thought to develop hyperkalemia as a consequence. The breakdown of red blood cells, rhabdomyolysis, metabolic acidosis, and the onset of renal failure are all contributing factors to hyperkalemia. In this study, the prevalence of hyperkalemia within the first 24 hours following electrical burn injury was examined, as well as any potential relationships between serum potassium concentration and cutaneous burn size (percent TBSA) and serum creatine phosphokinase (CPK) concentration.
First off, hyperkalemia is a rare occurrence in patients who are hospitalized to our burn center with electrical injury along with extensive skin and muscle injuries. Second, whether or not is present is unrelated to the degree of rhabdomyolysis or the size of the burn.
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Babies that are at a low birth weight are more likely to have health problems, while women will have difficulty delivering babies with high birth weight. Together this leads to ______ for babies of average birth weight.
Answer: ————— = Stabilizing selection
Explanation:
A nurse is giving shift report using SBAR to the oncoming nurse on a client who has a traumatic brain injury. When reporting information about the client, which of the following are included in the situation segment of SBAR
The patient's code status needs to be included in the background section of the SBAR by the nurse.
Why is SBAR important?
When communicating with doctors, participating in handoffs, and providing attendant-to-nurture move reports, medical caregivers use the SBAR process to report concise, correlated, and complete verbal data. Nursing assessments and handovers should be handled carefully since they provide us the ability to ask questions, inquire for clarification, and confirm information. When we must inform doctors of a routine situation, SBAR can be especially important because effective communication is crucial to the patient's health outcomes and wellness. The main purpose of using SBAR is to express a developing situation and obtain arrangement-specific critique.Original question:
A nurse is giving a change-of-shift report using SBAR to the oncoming nurse on a client who has a traumatic brain injury. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the background segment of SBAR?
a. Glasgow results
b. Intracranial pressure readings
c. Code status
d. Plan of care changes for upcoming shift
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The nurse is caring for a client with a suspected skin malignancy. The nurse anticipates that the client will undergo which diagnostic test
The nurse anticipates that the client will undergo a biopsy.
What is a biopsy?A biopsy is a process to take a sample of your body's cells or tissue so that it may be examined in a lab. If you exhibit specific signs and symptoms or if your doctor has found a problem area, you might be required to have a biopsy.
Procedures for doing biopsies come in a wide variety. The three most popular types are:
(1) incisional biopsy, in which only a little sample of tissue is taken,
(2) excisional biopsy, in which the entire lump or questionable area is taken out, and
(3) needle biopsy, in which a small sample of tissue or fluid is taken out using a needle.
A minor chance of bleeding and infection at the place where the needle was put exists with needle biopsies. After a needle biopsy, some minor discomfort is normal, although it is typically manageable with over-the-counter analgesics.
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Sudden cardiac arrest is an abrupt occurrence where the heart ceases to function and results in death within minutes. According to the explanation of basic cpr, what is the first step to begin administering cpr?.
Placing of the hand above the chest is the first step while administering CPR after ensuring that the environment is safe.
When the heart stops beating, CPR, or cardiopulmonary resuscitation, is a life-saving emergency operation. After cardiac arrest, immediate CPR can increase survival rates by a factor of two to three.
A person's heartbeat will cease if they are not breathing. To aid with circulation and to assist the body to receive oxygen, use CPR (chest compressions and rescue breaths). Following are the steps of CPR:
Placing of the hand above the chest. Interlocking of fingers.Giving chest compressions.Opening of the airway.Delivering rescue breathes. Watching the patient's chest fall.Repeat steps 3 and 4.Learn more about CPR here,
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The target heart rate zone is the range of exercise intensity that allows you to stress your cardiorespiratory system for optimal benefit without ______.
The target heart rate zone is the range of exercise intensity that allows you to stress your cardiorespiratory system for optimal benefit without overloading the system.
The target heart rate of an individual refers to the heartbeat range during exercise and is measured as a percentage. The resting heart rate is calculated by checking the pulse beat for one minute. It normally ranges between 60-100 beats/minute. The target heart rate is 220 subtracted by the age of an individual. For example, the target heart rate for a 27-year-old would be 220-27= 193 beats/minute. Therefore, at a 50% exertion level, the target heart rate must be 50% of the maximum value, that is, 97 beats/minute.
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Mrs. Rainwater has been diagnosed with hypertension. This is documented in which section of the patient record
Mrs. Rainwater has been diagnosed with hypertension. This is documented in Problem list and assessment field of the progress note.
An itemized list of a patient's health issues, such as nontransitive illnesses or diseases, wounds they have sustained, and other issues that have harmed them or are still bothering them, is known as a problem list.By highlighting the most significant health aspects of each patient, the problem list enables clinicians to deliver individualized therapy.The issue list aids in locating people affected by particular diseases. It is simpler to review medical histories in the electronic health records (EHR) system or analyze medical information and identify all individuals who share a common condition using ICD-11 coded disorders.Using the problem list, the care team can carry out quality-improvement initiatives by identifying patient populations with certain diseases, offering follow-up care, and making sure all patients receive treatment that complies with their needs.learn more about diagnosed here: https://brainly.com/question/3787717
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The nurse educator is preparing an in-service on administration of sustained-release tablets. Which true statement about sustained-release tablets would the educator include in the preparation
The true statement about sustained-release tablets in which the educator would include in the preparation is that they should never be split, crushed, or chewed is what the educator should include in the preparation of sustained-release tablets.
What is Sustained-release tablets?These are the medications which are very potent and dissolve at a slow rate over an extended period of time thereby releasing small amounts at a time for optimal function.
Having it crushed or chewed will allow for more absorption of the medication into the bloodstream as a result of the surface area being increased which could lead to incidences of overdose or side effects being experienced.
This is therefore why Sustained-release tablets should be ingested as a whole substance.
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2. Osteopathy and myocardosis are medical terms referring to
a. inflammation.
b. disease.
C. sensation.
d. tumor.
Answer: B a disease
Explanation:
Answer:
disease is the answer of your questions
Can the pupillary response be inhibited?
The pupillary response may be inhibited by problems with the photomotor reflex and/or specialized drugs.
What does pupillary reaction mean?The pupillary light reflex or photomotor reflex is part of a standard neurological examination. It evaluates the constriction reflex of the pupil, called miosis, in view of the incidence of direct light in the eye to be tested.
With this information, we can conclude that Pupillary response varies the size of the pupil of the eye via the iris dilator muscle, which dilates in response to a stressor.
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Fluorouracil vs gemcitabine chemotherapy before and after fluorouracilbased chemoradiation following resection of pancreatic adenocarcinoma. A randomized controlled trial. J
Gemcitabine has been demonstrated to enhance outcomes in patients with locally advanced metastatic pancreatic cancer when compared to fluorouracil.
The goal of this study is to see if adding gemcitabine to adjuvant fluorouracil chemoradiation (chemotherapy with radiation) improves survival in patients with resected pancreatic adenocarcinoma. Patients with full gross total resection of pancreatic adenocarcinoma with no previous radiation or chemotherapy were included in a randomized controlled phase 3 study at 164 US and Canadian institutions between July 1998 and July 2002, with follow-up until August 18, 2006. Fluorouracil (continuous infusion of 250 mg/m2 per day; n = 230) or gemcitabine (30-minute infusion of 1000 mg/m2 once per week; n = 221) chemotherapy for 3 weeks before to and 12 weeks following chemoradiation treatment.
The addition of gemcitabine to adjuvant fluorouracil-based chemoradiation was related with improved survival in patients with resected pancreatic cancer, albeit this advantage was not statistically significant.
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The nurse asks a patient to smile, blow out his cheeks, raise his eyebrows, and close his eyes tightly. The nurse is assessing which cranial nerve
The nurse is assessing the facial nerve (Cranial Nerve VII).
The anterior two-thirds of the tongue's stapedius muscle, facial expression muscles, and taste receptors are all supplied by the facial nerve. Asking the patient to use their facial muscles—such as raising their eyebrows, forcefully squeezing their eyes shut, smiling, and puffing up their cheeks—will help the doctor assess this nerve.
Facial muscle weakness can indicate either peripheral or central involvement depending on where it is located. A peripheral lesion or injury to the facial nucleus on the ipsilateral side, such as in Bell's palsy or a pontine infarct, are suggestive of a weakness with the entire right side of the face moving. A lesion above the facial nerve is suggested by a weakening in the lower part of the face with sparing of the forehead.
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A client is sitting in a chair and begins having a tonic-clonic seizure. The most appropriate nursing response is to
Explanation:
Do not put anything in their mouth and turn them on the left side of the chair then clear anything around them that could hurt them and always stay calm
Hope this helps you
The most appropriate response of the nurse on a client having tonic-clonic seizure would be to carefully move the client to a flat surface and turn him on his side.
why should the nurse do this for tonic-clonic seizure ?
When giving care for a patient experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure, the nurse should assist the patient to a level, flat surface before placing him on his side to prevent aspiration and protect him from harm. By adopting these measures, you can reduce your chance of falling or running into nearby items even while opening up your airway. During the seizure, the client shouldn't be restrained.
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A nurse is reviewing the medical records of several patients who have had their intraocular pressure (IOP) measured:
The patient the nurse would identify as having an increased IOP suggesting glaucoma is patient D with an Increased IOP greater than 24 mmHg.
What is intraocular pressure?This is known as the fluid pressure of the eye. This is the amount of force the internal fluid is applying inside of the eye.
As pressure is a measure of force per area, IOP is a measurement involving the magnitude of the force exerted by the aqueous humour on the internal surface area of the anterior eye.
Hence, a high IOP greater than 24mmHg in a patient suggests glaucoma, therefore, the correct answer is option D.
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The complete question
A nurse is reviewing the medical records of several patients who have had their intraocular pressure (IOP) measured:
Patient A: IOP 12 mm Hg
Patient B: IOP 15 mm Hg
Patient C: IOP 21 mm Hg
Patient D: IOP 24 mm Hg
Which patient would the nurse identify as having increased IOP suggesting glaucoma?
which of the following statements regarding interaction with the caregiver of a child or adult with special health care needs is correct
The correct answer is communication with the patient's caregiver or family members is important because they are the most familiar with the patient's condition.
CaregiverA caretaker is simply someone who attends to the needs or worries of a person who has temporary or permanent limits due to illness, accident, or disability. Family caregivers include people who look after members of their family of origin as well as those who look after their family of choice. As the primary source of crucial information about the patient, family caregivers play a key role in healthcare. The care recipient is the third leg of the stool, which also includes professional carers and family caregivers. The three legs are necessary for health care to be as effective as it needs to be.
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Which finding(s) is a major criterion used to help the health care provider diagnose acute rheumatic fever in a child
Subcutaneous nodules and Pericarditis are considered major criteria used in the diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever.
Rheumatic fever is an untreated throat streptococcal infection-related consequence that causes inflammation of the joints, heart, skin, and neurological system. While rheumatic fever can occur at any age, it tends to affect children and teenagers between the ages of 5 and 15.
Depending on which body organs become damaged, rheumatic fever symptoms might vary substantially. Rheumatic fever symptoms include joint discomfort, fever, and swelling. Heart inflammation (carditis)-related chest discomfort or palpitations as well as tiny nodules under the skin.
Some children with heart inflammation do not even exhibit any symptoms, and the inflammation is only identified until there is cardiac damage years later. Other children experience chest pain brought on by heart sac inflammation ( pericarditis). Children may experience both chest pain and a high fever.
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The nurse wants to maintain a neutral thermal environment for her assigned neonatal clients. Which intervention would best ensure that this goal is met
Suppose an assassin uses ricin, a translation inhibitor, to poison her victim. Place the events in chronological order, starting from the poisoning and ending with the death of the victim.
The chronological order of events starting from poisoning should be as follows:
Ricin enters the victim's bodyRicin is absorbed into the blood and enters the cellsRicin binds to ribosomes in the cytoplasmRicin inactivates 28s rRNA in the large subunits of the ribosomesRibosomes are unable to add new amino acids to polypeptidesProtein synthesis halts in many tissuesMultiple organ systems failThe victim diesRicin is a plant toxin. It is poisonous to mammalian cells as it interferes with the catalytic activity of ribosomes in protein synthesis. It irreversibly binds to the ribosomal subunits and halts the polypeptide synthesis process, leading to cell death.
Note: Your question is incomplete, but probably it includes the following options:
a. Ricin is absorbed into the blood and enters the cells
b. Ricin inactivates 28s rRNA in the large subunits of the ribosomes
c. Ricin binds to ribosomes in the cytoplasm
d. Ricin enters the victim's body
e. Multiple organ systems fail
f. Protein synthesis halts in many tissues
g. The victim dies
h. Ribosomes are unable to add new amino acids to polypeptides
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Raj is considering ways to lose weight. Which weight-loss activity should be classified as unsupported
The weight-loss activity that should be classified as unsupported is the targeted fat removal.
What is weight-loss activity?Weight-loss activity is the type of structure activity that helps to reduce the weight and fat accumulation in the body.
When an individual wants to lose weight, the supported healthy activities include:
prescription weight loss drugs,exercise plans, and eating low cholesterol meals such as vegetables.Fat removal is unhealthy and can put the life of the individual in danger and complications.
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N
which would most likely be a routine risk? check all that apply.
earthquakes
o regular fire drills
quarantined patients
o "wet floor" signs
barricades in construction zones
Routine risk include the following below such as:
"Wet floor" signs.Barricades in construction zones.What is Routine risk?This is defined as the routine exposures which are easier to control than others and is usually man made.
The options listed above can be easily controlled through proper attention and observation and is predictable unlike fire and earthquakes which aren't as a result of their natural causes.
This is therefore the reason why they were chosen as the most appropriate choice.
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A nurse is assessing a client who has insomnia. Which of the following questions is the highest priority for the nurse to ask the client
The question which should be asked if the individual is if the individual feels tired after waking up.
What is Insomnia?This is referred to a condition in which an individual finds it very difficult to fall asleep.
Asking if the person feels tired will help prevent complication as a result of that by determining appropriate sleep patterns, diet etc for the patient.
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4. A health and safety concern during debris operations includes _______________materials exposure, such as asbestos and household hazardous waste:
A health and safety concern during debris operations includes building materials exposure, such as asbestos and household hazardous waste.
Debris operations are the waste management operations to keep the human inhabiting societies clean and disease free. This occurs in two phases, the initial and recovery phases. A variety of heat- and corrosion-resistant, naturally occurring minerals are collectively referred to as asbestos (for example building or construction materials). The waste generated from the homes of human beings is called household waste. For example, fruit and vegetable waste.
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Which possible outcome would be a major disadvantage of any pain relief method that also affects awareness of the mother
The possible outcome would be a major disadvantage of any pain relief method that also affects awareness of the mother is that the mother may have difficulty working effectively with contractions.
Epidural :
The epidural is one of the most efficient ways to relieve pain during childbirth and delivery, and it has little side effects on both the mother and the newborn. During lengthy surgical operations, such as a C-section delivery, or while recovering from specific treatments, an epidural can offer continuous pain relief.
Some of the disadvantage of using pain relief :
The blood pressure may drop suddenly after receiving an epidural. Shivering, fever, or itching are a few adverse symptoms that some women report. One can experience nausea or vertigo after having the epidural removed, along with back pain and soreness where the needle was inserted. With an epidural, some women report having more trouble giving birth. The likelihood of requiring interventions like forceps, drugs, or a C-section may rise significantly.Learn more about childbirth here :
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The nurse is reviewing home instructions with a client who just underwent cataract surgery with intraocular lens implantation. Which of the following client statements indicate appropriate understanding of the teaching
The client must be advised that lifting, pulling, or pushing anything heavier than 15 pounds may put pressure on the affected area of the eyes after surgery.
What is meant by cataract surgery?
Cataract surgery entails removing the clouded, opacified lens that causes blurry and perplexing vision and replacing it with an optical device (an intraocular lens, commonly known as an IOL).Advice for the patient:
After surgery, the individual is mandated to wear sunglasses outdoors and a cap at bedtime.Post-surgery, the client must notify their physician if they develop any new symptoms, including a reaction to light or any other ailment. During the first week, avoid getting liquid, soaps, conditioner, spray, and creams in the eyes.Learn more about the surgery here:
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Which is an acceptable method of selecting an appropriately sized oropharyngeal airway?.
By measuring the anatomical landmark from the earlobe to the nose of the patient.
The oropharyngeal airway is an intraoral J-shaped medical device, which is inserted in the mouth of a patient who is unconscious like in paralysis condition etc. It is important to select the appropriate size of the oropharyngeal airway tube before inserting it into the patient's mouth to avoid any complications. The airway device prevents the closure of the epiglottis and opens the mouth for breathing. It is mainly used when the patient is at respiratory obstruction by the formation of excessive mucous or blockage of the airway by the tongue.
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The motor pathway of the autonomic nervous system usually involves __________ neurons.
The motor pathway of the autonomic nervous system usually involves two neurons.
The part of the nervous system that controls involuntary functions is called the autonomic nervous system (ANS). It is made up of autonomic neurons, which are neurons that carry impulses from the brain and/or spinal cord to glands, smooth muscle, and cardiac muscle. ANS neurons are responsible for a wide variety of tasks, including the regulation of heart rate and peristalsis (the movement of smooth muscle in the digestive tract), as well as the regulation of the secretions of some glands, such as the salivary gland.
The preganglionic and the postganglionic neuron make up the connection in the ANS between the Central Nervous System and its effector. This connection is found in the autonomic nervous system. An autonomic ganglion serves as the location of the synapse that connects these two neurons, which are located outside of the CNS.
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