List two scientific questions that would be best explained using a model.

Answer:

Faraday's law , he direction of the magnetic field changes by 180º, in the polarity inversion processes, induces a voltage.  

Explanation:

For this exercise let's use Faraday's law

          E = - dФ / dt

          Ф = B.A = B A cos θ

where B is the magnetic field, A is the area and θ is the angle between the field line and the normal to the area.

We can see that an electromotive force (voltage) is indexed when there is a variation of the field B, a variation of the area and change of the angle or when there is a combinational of them.

In this case, the magnitude of the field is constant, as the wire is rigid metal, the area is constant, but the direction of the magnetic field changes by 180º, in the polarity inversion processes, for which reason each change induces a voltage.

If a voltage is created in the ring, which has a resistance, a current is also generated in it.

Therefore the answer is If a current is created in the hoop

Answer:

a

  [tex]V = -47.65 N/C[/tex]

b

At the origin

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The  initial speed is  [tex]v_1 = 4.10 *10^{6} \ m/s[/tex]

    The  speed at (x = 2.00 cm) is  [tex]v_f = 1.76 *10^{5} \ m/s[/tex]

Generally the electric potential difference is mathematically represented as

    [tex]V = \frac{W}{q}[/tex]

Here W is the  work-done which is mathematically represented as

    [tex]W = K_f - K_i[/tex]

Here  [tex]K_f[/tex] is the kinetic energy at  x =  2.00 cm mathematically expressed as

        [tex]K_f = \frac{1}{2} * m* v^2_f[/tex]

and  

       [tex]K_i[/tex] is the kinetic energy at origin  mathematically expressed as

        [tex]K_f = \frac{1}{2} * m* v^2_i[/tex]

So

    [tex]V = \frac{1}{q} [ \frac{1}{2} mv_f^2 - \frac{1}{2} mv_i^2][/tex]

    [tex]V = \frac{m}{2q} [v_f^2 - v_i^2][/tex]

Here m is the mass of electron with value [tex]m = 9.1*10^{-31} \ kg[/tex]

         q  is the charge on the electron with value  [tex]q = 1.60*10^{-19} \ C[/tex]

So

     [tex]V = \frac{(9.1 *10^{-31})}{2(1.60*10^{-19})} [(1.76*10^{5})^2 - (4.10*10^{6})^2][/tex]

     [tex]V = -47.65 N/C[/tex]

So given that the difference is negative then potential is higher at the origin

Answer:

λ = 3.62 x 10⁻⁷ m = 362 nm

Explanation:

The grating equation gives the relationship between the wavelength, the diffraction line order and the diffraction angle. The grating equation is written as follows:

mλ = d Sinθ

where,

m = order of diffraction = 6

λ = longest wavelength = ?

d = 1/(460 rulings/mm)(1000 mm /1 m) = 2.17 x 10⁻⁶ m/ruling

θ = Diffraction angle = 90° (for longest wavelength)

(6)λ = (2.17 x 10⁻⁶ m/ruling) Sin 90°

λ = (2.17 x 10⁻⁶ m/rulings)/6

λ = 3.62 x 10⁻⁷ m = 362 nm

Answer:

66.8°

Explanation:

Calculating for tthe first leg

dNx = 0;

dNy = + 0.8 mi ......................(0 , 0.8)

then for the second

dWx = - 0.3 mi;

dWy = 0 ...................(-0.3 , 0)

then the third leg

dSx = 0;

dSy = - 0.1 mi ......................(0 , -0.1)

So the displacement vector is

db = ( -0.3 , (0.8 - 0.1) )

db = ( -0.3 , 0.7)

Finding the magnitude i= √(0.3^2 + 0.7^2 )

= 0.76

So the direction is

စ= tan^-1( 0.7 / 0.3 ) = 66.8°

The complete question is as follows:

A 0.150-kg toy is undergoing SHM on the end of a horizontal spring with force constant k = 300 N/m. When the toy is 0.0120 m from its equilibrium position, it is observed to have a speed of 0.400 m/s.

Answer:

The correct answer is 0.034 J.

Explanation:

Given :

mass of the toy is m = 0.15 kg.  

The force constant of restoring force k = 300 Nm⁻¹

When the position of the toy from the equilibrium is x = 0.012m, then the  

speed of the toy vx = 0.4m s

The total mechanical energy in SHM is given by  

E=  1/2 (mv²+ kx²) = 1/2 kA²

(here, m = mass of the object, vx = velocity, k = force constant  

of restoring force, and A = amplitude of SHM.)

Hence by substituting the numerical values in equation 1, we get  

[tex]E= \frac{1}{2} (0.15* 0.4) + \frac{1}{2} (300* 0.012)[/tex]

= 0.034 J

Thus, the correct answer is 0.034 J.

Answer:

a teacher that ive enjoyed is my 5th grade reading teacher. I enjoyed her because she always made class fun

Explanation:

Answer:

Tension on the string is 48 N

Explanation:

Mass of A = 6 kg

mass of B = 4 kg

If the 9 kg accelerates downwards then the equation for the 6 kg mass side of the pulley will be

6g - T = 6a    ....1

where

g is acceleration due to gravity = 10 m/s^2

a is the acceleration of the body

T is the tension in the string.

For the 4 kg mass side of the string, we have

T - 4g = 4a    ....2

transposing, we have

T = 4a + 4g    ....3

substitute equation 3 in equation 1, we have

6g - (4a + 4g) = 6a

6g - 4a - 4g = 6a

6g - 4g = 6a + 4a

2g = 10a

but g = 10 m/s^

2 x 10 = 10a

20 = 10a

acceleration a = 20/10 = 2 m/s^2

substitute value of a in equation 1

6g - T = 6a

6(10) - T = 6(2)

60 -T = 12

60 - 12 = T

T = 48 N

Answer:

Some of the most severe weather occurs when a single thunderstorm affects one location for an extended time. Thunderstorms can bring heavy rains (which can cause flash flooding), strong winds, hail, lightning, and tornadoes. Severe thunderstorms can cause extensive damage to homes and property.

Explanation:

Answer:

2.04 minutes

Explanation:

He travels the first mile at 50 mph so:

[tex]60/50=1.2[/tex]

so it takes 1.2 minutes to travel each mile when going 50 miles per hour

and for the second mile he travels at 71 mph so:

[tex]60/71=0.84[/tex] (this answer is rounded)

so it takes him 0.84 minutes to travels each mile while going 71 mph.

If you ad them together his total times while biking two miles was 2.04 minutes.

Answer:

1) the new power coming from the amplifier is 19.02 W

2) The distance away from the amplifier now is 5.50 m

3) u₁ = 69.24 m

Therefore have to move u₁ - u ( 69.24 - 5.50) = 63.74 farther

Explanation:

Lets say that I am at a distance "u" from the TV,

Let I₁ be the corresponding intensity of the sound at my location when sound level is 125dB

SO

S(indB) = 10log (I₁/1₀)

we substitute

125 = 10(I₁/10⁻¹²)

12.5 = log (I₁/10⁻¹²)

10^12.5 = I₁/10^-12

I₁ = 10^12.5 × 10^-12

I₁ = 10^0.5 W/m²

Now I₂ will be intensity of sound when corresponding sound level is 107 dB

107 = 10log(I₂/10⁻²)

10.7 = log(I₂/10⁻¹²)

10^10.7 = I₂ / 10^-12

I₂ = 10^10.7  ×  10^-12

I₂ = 10^-1.3 W/m²

Now since we know that

I = P/4πu² ⇒ p = 4πu²I

THEN P₁ = 4πu²I₁ and P₂ =4πu²I₂

Therefore

P₁/P₂ = I₁/I₂

WE substitute

P₂ = P₁(I₂/I₁) = 1200 × ( 10^-1.3 / 10^0.5)

P₂ = 19.02 W

the new power coming from the amplifier is 19.02 W

2)

P₁ = 4πu²I₁

u =√(p₁/4πI₁)

u = √(1200/4π × 10^0.5)

u = 5.50 m

The distance away from the amplifier now is 5.50 m

3)

Let I₃ be the intensity corresponding to required sound level 85 dB

85 = 10log(I₃/10⁻¹²)

8.5 = log (I₃/10⁻¹²)

10^8.5 = I₃ / 10^-12

I₃ = 10^8.5  × 10^-12

I₃ = 10^-3.5 w/m²

Now, I ∝ 1/u²

so I₂/I₃ = u₁²/u²

u₁ = √(I₂/I₃) × u

u₁ = √(10^-1.3 / 10^-3.5) ×  5.50

u₁ = 69.24 m

Therefore have to move u₁ - u ( 69.24 - 5.50) = 63.74 farther

Answer:

its B

Explanation:

i just took the test

The correct option is B. The magnitude of the force on the charge is 12N and the direction is downward.

The electric field is a region of space where electric force can be felt. The formula for calculating the magnitude of a force in an electric field is expressed as:

[tex]\overline F=qE[/tex] where:

Given the following parameters:

q = -0.06C

E = 200N/C

Substitute the given parameters into the formula as shown:

[tex]\overline F = -0.06 * 200\\\overline F = -12N\\[/tex]

Since the modulus of the force is in the negative sense, hence the direction will be downward.

Learn more here: https://brainly.com/question/22735564

Answer:

199.92joules

Explanation:

workdone = Mgh

mass x height x acceleration due to gravity

[tex]\star[/tex][tex]\blue\star[/tex]

Star coding

Hope it helps

Answer: mass and distance

Explanation: Two major factors, mass and distance, affect the strength of gravitational force on an object. You witness the first factor in everyday life - more massive objects are heavier. The second factor, distance, is less familiar, as it takes a distance of many thousands of kilometers to significantly weaken the pull of Earth's gravity.

Answer:

The factor of a force depends on two things:

1. the amount of a force applied. The more the force applied the greater the effect.

2.the area on which the force is applied. The smaller the area the force is applied on, the greater the effect.

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Answer:

The health hazard of directly going to these places to take direct readings and observations.

Explanation:

The Chernobyl accident was a catastrophic radioactive accidents, with an immediate fatal effect on some victims (mostly firemen and law enforcement officers). Scientists investigating the effects of the radiation left on the venues of the accident face a health risk if they intend to carry out a full scale on-field testing and experiment. Some of the relocated occupants of these places, that have long been relocated, have shown some health effect of the radiation. And scientist studying and working on these places for too long stand a risk of developing health complications if they are exposed to the radiations for too long.

Answer:

Explanation:

Rx = -28.2 units

Ry = 19.6 units

magnitude of R = √  [( - 28.2 )² + ( 19.6 ) ]

= √ ( 795.24 + 384.16 )

= 34.34 units

If θ  be the angle measured counterclockwise from the +x-direction

Tanθ = 19.6 / - 28.2 = -0.695

θ = 180 - 34.8

= 145.2° .

Answer:

60 V

The direction will be anticlockwise from the right side of the magnet.

Explanation:

The change in magnetic flux = ∆Φ = 0.3 T.m^2

The change in time = ∆t = 0.2 s

number of turns = 40 turns

The induced emf E = N∆Φ/∆t =

E = (40 x 0.3)/0.2 = 60 V

If the magnet is moved away from the coil, the induced current on the coil will try to oppose the motion of the magnet by attracting the magnet towards the coil. For the magnet to be attracted towards the coil, it must possess the equivalent of a magnetic south pole. For the equivalent of a magnetic south pole, the current on the coil will flow in the clockwise direction when viewed from the left side of the magnet. When viewed from the right side of the magnet, the direction will appear as anticlockwise.

Answer:polarization pertains to the act or process of producing a positive electrical charge and a negative electrical charge such that between a nerve cell internal electrical charge..................

Explanation:

Answer: 3.38 km per hour

Explanation:

Answer:

[tex]$ 1.81 \times 10^{-7} \ T$[/tex]

Explanation:

Given :

r = 1.50 m

R = 1  m

[tex]$\frac{dE}{dt}$[/tex] = [tex]$ 4.88 \times 10^{10} $[/tex]  V / m s

Therefore the displacement current is

[tex]$ I_d = \epsilon_0. \frac{dE}{dt} . A $[/tex]

    = [tex]$ \epsilon_0. \frac{dE}{dt} . \pi R^2 $[/tex]

Now according to law

[tex]$ B= \frac{\mu_0I_d.\frac{dE}{dt}.\pi R^2}{2 \pi r}$[/tex]

  = [tex]$ \frac{\mu_0I_d.\frac{dE}{dt}. R^2}{2 r}$[/tex]

  = [tex]$ \frac{4 \pi \times 10^{-7} \times 8.85 \times 10^{-12} \times 4.88 \times 10^{10} \times 1^2}{2 \times 1.5} $[/tex]

  = [tex]$ 1.81 \times 10^{-7} \ T$[/tex]

Therefore, the magnetic field strength at 1.50 m from the center of the ring is [tex]$ 1.81 \times 10^{-7} \ T$[/tex].

Answer:

the derivative with respect to time

Explanation:

This is an exercise in kinematics, where the velocity is defined as a function of the position of a body of the form

            v = dx/dt

where v is the velocity of the body, x is the position that we assume is a continuous and differentiable function.

The function written in the equation is the derivative with respect to time

Answer:

45cm/s

Explanation:

If the distance traveled is 450 centimeters we can assume the speed is 45cm/s by taking the distance and dividing by the time, in this case that is 450 and 10

so our answer would be 45cm/s

Answer:

Constant speed

Explanation:

Acceleration is a change of magnitude and (or) direction of velocity, it will cause increase or decrease, or changing of the direction of the velocity.

Complete Question

An electron travels with speed 2.0 X 10^7 m/s between two parallel charged plates. The plates are separated by 2.0 cm and are charged by a 400V battery. What magnetic field strength and direction will allow the electron to pass between the plates without being deflected.?

Answer:

The value  [tex]B = 0.001 \ T[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The  speed of the electron is  [tex]v = 2.0 *10^{7} \ m/s[/tex]

    The voltage  is  [tex]V = 400 \ V[/tex]

     The distance of separation is  [tex]d= 2.0 \ cm = 0.02 \ m[/tex]

Generally the electric field is mathematically represented as

       [tex]E = \frac{V}{d }[/tex]

=>    [tex]E = \frac{400}{0.02 }[/tex]

=>     [tex]E = 20000 V/m[/tex]

Generally for the electron to pass without deflection then

     [tex]F_B = F_E[/tex]

Where [tex]F_B[/tex] is the maximum magnetic force acting on the electron which is mathematically represented as

       [tex]F_B = evBsin (\theta )[/tex]

Since we are considering maximum magnetic field then [tex]\theta = 90^o[/tex]

=>   [tex]F_B = evB[/tex]

And  

    [tex]F_E[/tex] is the electric force on the electron which is mathematically represented as

       [tex]F_E = e * E[/tex]

Here e is the charge on the electron with the value [tex]e = 1.60 *10^{-19} \ C[/tex]

=>   [tex]F_E = 1.60*10^{-19} * 20000[/tex]

=>      [tex]F_E = 3.2*10^{-15} \ N[/tex]

So

    [tex]3.2*10^{-15} = q* v B[/tex]

=>    [tex]B = \frac{3.2*10^{-15}}{ 2.0*10^7 * 1.6*10^{-19}}[/tex]

=>     [tex]B = 0.001 \ T[/tex]

Answer:

Loudness and pitch are the characteristics of a sound related to amplitude and frequency.

Explanation:

Loudness and pitch are the characteristics of a sound that are related with the frequency and amplitude of a sound. If any change occurs in the frequency and amplitude of a sound, change also occurs in the loudness and pitch of a sound. If a source has larger amplitude so it produces large loudness or volume of a sound. On the other hand when the frequency is higher than the pitch will also be higher and the sound produce will be high.

Answer:

the work done is 1192.5Nm

Explanation:

work done = force × distance

w.d = 265N × 4.5m

w.d = 1192.5Nm

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Complete question is;

A particle moves along a line so that its velocity at time t is

v(t) = t² − t − 6

(measured in meters per second).

(a) Find the displacement of the particle during the time period 1 ⩽ t ⩽ 4.

(b) Find the distance traveled during this time period.

Answer:

A) -4.5 m

B) 10.17 m

Explanation:

We are given;

v(t) = t² − t − 6

We know that v = ds/dt

Thus,

S = v dt

s(4) - s(1) = (4,1)∫t² − t − 6 dt

= (4,1)[(t³/3) - (t²/2) - 6t]

= ((4³/3) - (4²/2) - 6(4)) - ((1³/3) - (1²/2) - 6(1))

= 64/3 - 8 - 24 - 1/3 + 1/2 + 6

= -4.5 m

B) Since v(t) = t² − t − 6, then factorizing we can write it as;

v(t) = (t + 2)(t - 3)

Thus, v(t) ⩽ 0 at the interval (1, 3) and v(t) ≥ 0 at the interval (3, 4)

Thus;

-x1 = (1, 3)∫t² − t − 6 dt

-x1 = (1,3)(t³/3 - t²/2 - 6t)

-x1 = (3³/3 - 3²/2 - 6(3)) - (1³/3 - 1²/2 - 6(1))

-x1 = 9 - 9/2 - 18 - 1/3 + 1/2 + 6

-x1 = -3 - 4 - 1/3

-x1 = -22/3 m

x1 = 22/3 m

x2 = (3, 4)∫t² − t − 6 dt

x2 = (3, 4)(t³/3 - t²/2 - 6t)

x2 = ((4³/3) - (4²/2) - 6(4)) - (3³/3 - 3²/2 - 6(3))

x2 = 64/3 - 8 - 24 - 9 + 9/2 + 18

x2 = -23 + 64/3 + 9/2

x2 = (-138 + 128 + 27)/6

x2 = 17/6 m

Thus, total distance = x1 + x2 = 22/3 + 17/6 = 10.17m

Answer:

40000÷40=1000 joules is required to work in 40 seconds