milly has just received a kidney transplant and is taking cyclosporin a to help prevent graft rejection. this medication is one in a class of drugs known as drugs. a) anticoagulant b) antibiotic c) analgesic d) retroviral e) immunosuppressive

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Answer 1

[E] Immunosuppressive medication is one in a class of drugs known to help prevent graft rejection.

What are immunosuppressive drugs?

The immune system's capacity is suppressed or diminished by a class of medications known as immunosuppressants. Some of these medications are used to reduce the likelihood that the body may reject a transplanted organ, like a liver, heart, or kidney. Antirejection medications are those substances.

Cyclosporine works by reducing immunological response in order to stop white blood cells from attempting to destroy the transplanted organ. An extremely potent medication is cyclosporine.

Therefore, Cyclosporin A is being taken by Milly, who recently received a kidney transplant, to help prevent graft rejection.

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infants born between 34 0/7 and 36 6/7 weeks of gestation are called late-preterm infantsbecause they have many needs similar to those of preterm infants. because they are more stable than early-preterm infants, they may receive care that is much like that of a full-term baby. the mother-baby or nursery nurse knows that these babies are at increased risk for (select all that apply):

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Infants born between 34 0/7 and 36 6/7 weeks of gestation are called late-preterm infants because they have many needs similar to those of preterm infants. Hypoglycemia.

New child commonly refers to a baby from birth to approximately 2 months of age. toddlers can be taken into consideration youngsters everywhere from start to 1 12 months old. a toddler can be used to refer to any infant from the beginning to the age of four years antique, hence encompassing newborns, babies, and toddlers.

The time period "little one" derives from the Latin phrase in-fanatics, meaning "unable to talk." there's no precise definition for infancy. "toddler" is also a legal term that means the juvenile; that is, any baby beneath the age of criminal maturity. A human infant less than a month antique is a newborn infant or a neonate.

Other definitions state that a new child is a little one who is less than 2 months old. Taking a look at facts supplied by the facilities for disease control (CDC), they classify a toddler as an infant between zero and 1 12 months of age.

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a nurse, while off-duty, tells the physiotherapist that a client who was admitted to the nursing unit contracted aids due to exposure to sex workers at the age of 18. the client discovers that the nurse has revealed the information to the physiotherapist. with what legal action could the nurse be charged?

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In the event of legal action, the nurse would face is slander for providing the physiotherapist with incorrect information about the patient.

False information that is presented as true and damages somebody's reputation and character is known as defamation in the healthcare industry. Defamation includes actions like libel and slander. Slander involves either written or spoken remarks, whereas libel also incorporates those.

Libel, which includes written comments, and slander, which involves oral claims, are the two types of defamation. Libel occurs when a nurse makes derogatory remarks about her boss on social media. Slander is one type of conversation where false information about coworkers may be shared.

Healthcare professionals who post or make disparaging remarks about other patients or healthcare professionals risk serious legal repercussions. There have already been numerous cases have been reported involving healthcare professionals and defamation claims.

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The question is -

A nurse, while off-duty, tells the physiotherapist that a client who was admitted to the nursing unit contracted AIDS due to exposure to sex workers at the age of 18. The client discovers that the nurse has revealed the information to the physiotherapist. With what legal action could the nurse be charged?

A) libel

B) malpractice

C) slander

D) negligence

a new ancillary staff member is assisting the nurse with a client diagnosed with parkinson's disease. the client needs assistance with eating but doesn't require thickened liquids to aid swallowing. which instruction should the nurse give the ancillary staff member about eating assistance?

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The instruction given by the nurse to the ancillary staff about eating assistance is to make positive the purchaser is sitting at an angle of  ninety degrees called as fowler's position.

Fowler's function is a well-known affected person function wherein the affected person is seated in a semi-sitting function (30-ninety degrees) and might have knees both bent or straight. This is a not unusualplace function to offer affected person consolation and care. The semi-Fowler function, described as a frame function at 30° head-of-mattress elevation, has been proven to be useful in growing intra-stomach pressure. However, little is understood concerning its blessings in terms of reducing shoulder ache after LS. Positioning a affected person in mattress is a not unusualplace system withinside the hospital.

There are numerous positions viable for sufferers in mattress, which can be decided through their condition, preference, or remedy associated with an illness When shifting a affected person in mattress, carry out a affected person danger evaluation previous to the system to decide the level of help wanted for most appropriate affected person care. If a affected person is not able to assist with repositioning in mattress, comply with corporation coverage concerning “no affected person lifts” and using mechanical lifts for complicated and bariatric sufferers. See Checklist 25 for the stairs to transport a affected person up in mattress.

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based on the results of the spirometry test, is patient a effectively managing his asthma symptoms with his inhaler medication? explain your answer using the data collected during the test.

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Answer: yes

Explanation:

Based on the results of the spirometry test, it appears that Patient A is effectively managing his asthma symptoms with his inhaler medication.

What is spirometry test?

Spirometry is a common diagnostic tool for measuring lung function. The patient is asked to take a deep breath and then exhale as forcefully as possible into a spirometer, which measures the volume and flow of air exhaled from the lungs.

According to the spirometry results, Patient A appears to be effectively managing his asthma symptoms with his inhaler medication.

Patient A's predicted Forced Vital Capacity (FVC) values were within a normal range (4.93-5.91 litres), and both his resting and exercise FVC values were above the predicted values, with the exercise FVC value even higher than the resting value.

Thus, patient is effectively taking care of the asthma symptoms.

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Your question seems incomplete, the probable complete question is:

New Window Help Patient A Age: 23 Sex: Male Height: 72 inches Race: Caucasian Medical history: Patient was diagnosed with asthma and has been managing his symptoms with an inhaler for the past year. A spirometry test has been ordered to determine how well the medication is managing the patient's symptoms. Perform Spirometry New Window Help Patient A FVC Predicted Values 4.93-5.91 4.88 Resting Value 5.319 4.63 87% Exercise Value 5012 4.02 Next Patient → FEV: FEV1/FVC 83.3% 80.2% 1.

Based on the results of the spirometry test, is Patient A effectively managing his asthma symptoms with his inhaler medication? Explain your answer using the data collected during the test.

you and your partner are the first to arrive at a potential crime scene with a critically injured patient involved. the scene is safe. your first priority is to:

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partner is the first to arrive at a potential crime scene with a critically injured patient involved. the scene is safe. your first priority is to: notify medical control for advice.

If someone is injured in an incident, first take a look at which you and the casualty are not in any danger. in case you are, make the situation secure. while it is secure to do so, determine the casualty and, if important, smartphone 999 or 112 for an ambulance. you can then perform basic first useful resource.

As a result, the most commonplace harm in attack sufferers is head trauma. unique issues encompass facial fractures and brain injuries. in addition, some assaults bring about spinal injuries. while an assailant makes use of a gun or a knife, the victim generally sustains wounds to the chest and/or stomach.

There are basically two types of injuries: acute injuries and overuse accidents. Acute injuries are typically the end result of a single, annoying occasion. not unusual examples consist of wrist fractures, ankle sprains, shoulder dislocations, and hamstring muscle stress.

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50 POINTSSSSSS|> pls be honest. i have deep, and i mean deep dark spots.on my face. how do i getg rido f them ? i tried lemon, tried admire my skin, tried benzoyl, aztec clay, tried apple cider vinegar...more than that, i tried everyythinggg. Products simply dont work. what do i do ?

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Answer: Chemical peels

Go to your doctor because they can be skin cancer

A single tube that carries urine from the urinary bladder to the exterior allows the urine to pass through _______________ to get to the exterior.

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Answer:

Explanation:

what intervention helped prove that catheter-associated bloodstream infections (clabsis) were preventable consequences of care?

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A checklist of evidence-based practices applied consistently and collectively every time a catheter is used intervention helped prove that catheter-associated bloodstream infections (classic) were preventable consequences of care.

Bloodstream infections (BSI) are infectious sicknesses described by way of the presence of feasible bacterial or fungal microorganisms in the bloodstream (later validated by the positivity of one or greater blood cultures) that elicit or have elicited an inflammatory reaction characterized via the alteration of clinical, laboratory ...Feb 18, 2016

Bacteria can enter the bloodstream as an extreme hassle of infections (like pneumonia or meningitis), in the course of surgical procedure (especially whilst related to mucous membranes which include the gastrointestinal tract), or due to catheters and other foreign bodies getting into the arteries or veins (together with in the course of intravenous drug abuse).

The remedy for a bloodstream infection requires the spark of the use of antibiotics. this may help to save you from headaches like sepsis from occurring. you'll be hospitalized for the duration of treatment. while microorganisms are shown in your blood, you'll in all likelihood be started out on vast-spectrum antibiotics.

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the nursing instructor is quizzing a group of students about fluid and electrolyte balance. which statements made by the students indicate an understanding of the efforts of the organs to maintain fluid and electrolyte balance? select all that apply.

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Maintaining the proper level of water in your body is critical for survival, as either too little or too much will result in subpar performance the statement made by the students indicate an understanding of the efforts of the organs to maintain fluid and electrolyte balance.

What are the symptoms of electrolyte imbalance?

Confusion and irritabilityDiarrhea or constipationFatigue.Headaches.Irregular or rapid heart rate (arrhythmia).Muscle cramps, spasms, or weakness.Vomiting and nausea.

The kidneys regulate intravascular volume through fluid retention and excretion. By excreting and retaining hydrogen ions, the kidneys control the pH of extracellular fluid. By secreting aldosterone, the adrenal glands control the volume of blood.

Therefore, the nervous system controls oral intake by sensing intracellular dehydration, which causes thirst.

                               

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a client comes to the emergency department (ed) reporting precordial chest pain. in describing the pain, the client describes it as pressure with a sudden onset. what disease process would the nurse suspect in this client?

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The nurse suspects that the patient is having coronary artery disease.

Coronary artery disease causes decreased blood flow in the arteries delivering blood to the heart (CAD). The most common kind of heart disease, known as coronary heart disease (CHD), affects around 16.5 million Americans over the age of 20.

Additionally, it is the leading cause of mortality for both men and women in the US. A heart attack happens in the United States once every 36 seconds, according to a trustworthy source.

You may have greater symptoms if your blood flow is more restricted. If a blockage totally or virtually completely stops blood flow, your heart muscle will start to degrade if it is not repaired.

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the nurse has entered the room of a client who is being treated with regular doses of morphine. the client is unresponsive to voice but responsive to touch, with a respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute. in addition to informing the care team, what is a priority action?

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Administration of naloxone as directed in addition to informing the care team.

What is a good respiration rate?

When evaluating respiration, it's critical to consider a person's breathing troubles. When at rest, adults normally breathe 12 to 16 times each minute. Slower respiration than is common for a woman's identity and activity level is a defining feature of bradypnea. For an adult, this would be less then 12 breaths. Slow breathing can be caused by a variety of illnesses, including cardiac problems, problems with brain stem, or drug overdose.

Why is respiratory rate significant?

The basic vitals of respiratory rate is sensitive to a variety of pathological disorders (such as unfavorable cardiovascular problems, pneumonia, and focus is to reduce) as well as stresses, such as emotional stress,

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the process of clinical assessment results in narrowing the focus to group of answer choices concentrate on problem areas that seem most relevant. cover all possible problems. consider a broad range of problems. concentrate on all problem areas equally.

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As a result of the clinical assessment procedure, the focus is narrowed  a set of answer options that concentrate on the problems that be most pertinent. to focus on the issues that seem to have the biggest bearing.

The term "clinical assessment" refers to a variety of techniques and tools (measures) used by mental health professionals, primarily psychologists, to assess a person's functioning across a range of domains and to support and inform choices or suggestions meant to enhance functioning in one or more domains. Is known as clinical assessment.

A concentrate is a substance in which the solvent, in the case of a liquid, has been extracted in large amounts. This usually involves removing water from a solution or suspension, such removing water from fruit juice. Is called concentrate.

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why is folate a concern for women planning a pregnancy? 2) (20 pts) which five foods in her diet are highest in folate? of these, which are fortified with folic acid? (note: fortified foods would be refined flour based on fact that folate is added to refined grains as required by law)

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Because they can lessen the risk of birth defects known as neural tube defects, such as spina bifida, folate and folic acid are crucial nutrients for pregnant women.

One of the most prevalent birth abnormalities is spina bifida. During the first few weeks of pregnancy, when the brain and spinal cord are developing, it takes place.

If you consume enough folate before and during early pregnancy, you can prevent the majority of cases of neural tube defects and pina bifida.

By consuming foods high in folate and taking supplements, you can get enough folate.

Suitable sources of natural folate include the following:

fruits (bananas, avocado, grapefruit, oranges), vegetables (broccoli, brussels sprouts, cabbage, cauliflower, English spinach, green beans, lettuce), and legumes (parsnip, sweet corn, zucchini) (chickpeas, soya beans, lima beans, red kidney beans, lentils, haricot beans) eggs\nuts.

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the nurse is conducting an admission assessment with a 45-year-old client who has been demonstrating signs of bipolar disorder. while conducting the assessment, the client starts speaking in illogical rhymes and using word associations. what is the name for this thought pattern?

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The name of the thought pattern of the patient is flight of ideas.

Flight of ideas, according to the American Psychological Association, is a sort of cognitive problem that leads certain people to speak quickly and change between loosely related thoughts when speaking.

Most individuals become enthusiastic from time to time and speak too rapidly or jump between thoughts that come to them. People are frequently aware of and accept the fact that they are speaking rapidly when this occurs.

Flight of ideas, on the other hand, is a form of mental disorder that might manifest as a symptom of another ailment. People suffering from this mental disorder are often unaware that they are moving from issue to subject since everything appears "related" to them.

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the nurse is obtaining a health history from a client with a blood pressure of 146/88 mm hg. the client states that lifestyle changes have not been effective in lowering blood pressure. which medication classification does the nurse anticipate first?

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The nurse anticipates that the client will first be prescribed a diuretic medication. This is because diuretics are effective in lowering blood pressure by removing excess fluid from the body.

A diuretic is any medication that helps promote diuresis, which is the increased production of urine. The substance helps to expel greater amounts of water and salt from the body. Many types of diuretics exist, and they are used to treat a variety of conditions, such as hypertension, congestive heart failure, edema, and renal failure.

While diuretics are generally safe and effective, they can cause some unwanted side effects, such as dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and hypotension. Therefore, it is important to speak with a healthcare nurse before taking any diuretics, especially if they are to be used for an extended period of time.

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camille consumes a low-carbohydrate, high-protein diet to lose weight. in 3 months she has lost 10 pounds, but her rate of weight loss has slowed. why does a low-carbohydrate, high-protein diet promote weight loss? check all that apply. check all that apply

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When a person's normal carbohydrate intake decreases, consequently does the water weight connected with glycogen storage of a person. A high-protein diet reduces metabolic rate, causing the body to shed more water through sweat.

In the absence of appropriate carbohydrate intake, the liver produces glucose from amino acids extracted from the bodies natural tissue proteins; protein tissue includes a lot of water, and disassembling that protein leads in water loss in the urine.

When paired with exercise, a high protein diet is good grow lean muscle. Lean muscle tends to burn calories during the day, that can aid in weight loss.

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a client with a recent myocardial infarction was admitted to the hospital with a new diagnosis of mitral valve regurgitation. which assessment data obtained by the nurse should be immediately communicated to the health care provider?

Answers

Acute mitral regurgitation, which results from a myocardial injury, typically appears as acute congestive heart failure in the patient.

How do lungs function?

Your lungs are the two spongy, pinkish-gray organs in your chest. When you breathe in (inhale), air enters your lungs, and the oxygen in that air flows to your blood. At the same time, a waste gas termed carbon dioxide moves from your blood into your lungs and is expelled (breathed out).

What part of your lungs hurt?

When you breathe inside and out, you may experience lung pain on one either both sides in your chest. Technically, because the lungs have so few pain receptors, the discomfort isn't emanating from inside them. Instead, the lining of the lungs, that does have pain receptors, could be the source of the discomfort.

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a cota is fabricating a short thumb spica orthosis for a client who has basal joint osteoarthritis. the primary purpose of the orthosis is to improve hand function while protecting the joint during activity. which position is optimal for achieving this objective?

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to secure nonemergency injuries to bones is optimal for achieving this objective.

An injury is any physiological harm to living tissue brought on by sudden physical stress. An injury can be brought on purposefully or inadvertently and can result from overexertion, burning, toxic exposure, asphyxiation, or blunt trauma. Any area of the body can sustain an injury, and each injury is accompanied by a unique set of symptoms.

A health expert usually administers treatment for serious injuries, and the type of treatment depends on the injury. Accidental human injury and injury-related death are most frequently caused by traffic collisions. Even though any of these can be caused by an injury, chronic disorders, psychological stress, infections, and medical procedures are distinct from injuries. Systems for the classification have been devised by several influential health organizations.

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a 53-year-old woman presents with a 1-year history of chronic cough. the cough produces large volumes of grossly purulent sputum. she has a history of recurrent respiratory infections; they resulted in five hospitalizations in the past year. she also had similar complaints during the previous year. shortness of breath limits her daily activity. upon pulmonary examination, bilateral breath sounds are audible, with inspiratory and expiratory crackles at the lung bases. chest x-ray reveals increased bronchovascular markings and cardiomegaly. what is the initial diagnosis?

Answers

The whole clinical picture points to chronic (persistent) bronchitis. A clinical history of a productive cough lasting three months out of the year for two years in a row characterizes chronic bronchitis. Smoking is the main contributor.

What pathologic characteristics characterize chronic bronchitis?

Airway damage and constriction, airway mucous gland enlargement, inflammatory cell infiltration, and loss of ciliated epithelium are the main pathologic features. Because of the persistent local inflammation and the high possibility of bacterial colonization and infection, the cough generates thick, frequently purulent sputum. Inhalatory and expiratory crackles are caused by excessive mucus production and poor mucociliary escalator function. Hyperinflated lung volumes, a depressed diaphragm, and parallel linear densities, often known as tram track lines, are frequent imaging findings.

Can chronic bronchitis be cured?

There is no cure for chronic bronchitis, but there are some treatments that can help manage the symptoms. These include bronchodilators to open airways, steroids to reduce inflammation, oxygen therapy, and lung rehabilitation.

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An individual has a metabolic disease that is traced to one nonfunctional enzyme. Protein analysis reveals that the protein is larger than normal and fails to assemble into the proper tertiary structure. Analysis of the gene sequence will most likely reveal that the mutation?.

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The analysis of the gene sequence most likely reveals that the mutation has occurred which cause disruption in the splice site. Thus, the correct option is C.

What are metabolic diseases?

Metabolic diseases are the conditions which alters the body processing, metabolism and therefore, the distribution of nutrients in the body.

The analysis of the gene sequence reveals that the introns are removed before the process of translation of the gene. So, the mutation in intron region does not affect the protein structure.

A mutation within the splice site could result into mRNA that have additional nucleotides as this will hinder the process of splicing. This mRNA could result in a protein which has extra amino acids or even prematurely terminated protein. Since this protein is different from that of normal and it fails to assemble into the proper tertiary structure in the cell, and hence it can be said that mutation has occurred in the splice site.

Therefore, the correct option is C.

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Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is:

An individual has a metabolic disease that is traced to one nonfunctional enzyme. Protein analysis reveals that the protein is larger than normal and fails to assemble into the proper tertiary structure. Analysis of the gene sequence will most likely reveal that the mutation?

a. disrupts the signal sequence.

b. disrupts the initiation site.

c. disrupts a splice site.

d. is within an intron.

e. is silent.

a nurse is analyzing a journal article that explains the changes at birth from fetal to newborn circulation. the nurse can point out the closure of the ductus arteriosus is related to which event after completing the article?

Answers

Lungs start to work when pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) decreases in newborns body

While the newborns body undergoes change, early adjustments in the circulatory and respiratory systems are necessary to support life outside the womb. (PVR) drops with the first breath, and the heart rate rises initially but falls to 120 to 130 bpm after a few minutes. Within 48 hours, the ductal murmur will disappear in 80+% of newborns. Rhonchi brought on by amniotic fluid retention is an unusual and unanticipated occurrence (PVR). Through shivering and other methods, newborns have trouble keeping their body heat. (PVR)can hardly perspire and have a big body surface area in relation to their newborns body weight.

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when caring for a client on extended bedrest, which intervention should the nurse implement to decrease the risk of contractures?

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To avoid risk of contractures, the nurse should reposition the client every 2 hours.

What happens with contractures?

A contracture occurs when there is a fixed tightening in the muscles, tendons, ligaments and or skin. It hinders specific body parts from normal movement. This can also be described as the body tissues loosing elasticity and becoming fiber-like.

When the body is immobile for a while it can cause contracture. Patients under admittance in hospitals can experience this condition and the nurses in charge will have to reposition them every two hours to avoid tightening of the muscles and also encourage bed stretches to loosen the joints.

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he practitioner knows the client has sickle cell disease associated with hemoglobin s (hbs). the practitioner explains to the client that which major consequences can occur with this disorder? select all that apply. polycythemia vera chronic hemolytic anemia acute blood loss anemia blood vessel occlusion aplastic anemia

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The major consequences that can occur with this disorder are chronic hemolytic and blood loss.

Sickle cell anemia is an autosomal passive clutter that can be communicated as it were within the homozygous latent condition. This condition might emerge due to the base point transformation in which valine is substituted for glutamic acid.

The shape of the hemoglobin changes and the person has unusual protein in their body. The person has swelling in their hand and feet, endures from tiredness, and weariness, and can too influence the kidney, lungs, and other parts of the body.

An acquired blood clutter where ruddy blood cells (RBCs) get to be sickle/crescent molded. It causes visit diseases, swelling within the hands and legs, torment, extreme tiredness, and postponed development or puberty.

Sickle cells break separated effortlessly and kick the bucket. Ruddy blood cells as a rule live for around 120 days some time recently, they got to be supplanted.

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the nursing instructor is teaching the senior nursing class about neuromuscular disorders. when talking about multiple sclerosis (ms) what diagnostic finding would the instructor list as being confirmatory of a diagnosis of ms?

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The instructor would cite oligoclonal bands as being indicative of a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis.

What exactly are oligoclonal bands?

Immunoglobulins are proteins that make up oligoclonal bands. These proteins are indicative of central nervous system inflammation. Multiple sclerosis may be identified if oligoclonal bands are present.

Why do oligoclonal bands form?

A protein known as an immunoglobulin makes up an oligoclonal band. These bands are sought for by the CSF oligoclonal band screen. Their existence signals that an infection or other condition has caused the central nervous system to become inflamed. You might have multiple sclerosis if similar bands are absent from your blood (MS).

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the nurse has had a client place the backs of both her hands against each other while flexing her wrists 90 degrees with fingers pointed downward and wrists dangling. the presence of pain or tingling during this test suggests what health problem to the nurse?

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Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by stress on the median nerve. The carpal tunnel is a narrow tube on the palms side of the hand that is surrounded by bone structures.

Whenever the median nerve is crushed, it can cause weakness, burning, and paralysis in the hand and arm. The most prevalent warning indicators of Carpal tunnel syndrome are finger discomfort, tingling, and numbness (all but the pinky). Other signs and symptoms may include: A sensation that your fingers are stuffed or bloated.

Carpal tunnel syndrome might be caused to repetitive actions, such as typing, or other wrist movements that you undertake repeatedly. This is especially true for actions made with your hands lower than your wrists. Conditions such as hypothyroidism, obesity, rheumatoid arthritis, and diabetes are examples. Texting, drawing, and crocheting are all activities that can aggravate carpal tunnel syndrome. These tasks necessitate the regular usage of your wrists and hands. If you do not take adequate breaks from these activities, inflammation in your wrist can worsen, putting more pressure on the median nerve.

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Which of the following particles is not considered part of an element’s atomic mass?

Answers

I don’t know because you never put the following particles

the mother of an 8-year-old child being treated for right lower lobe pneumonia at home calls the clinic nurse. the mother tells the nurse that the child complains of discomfort on the right side and that ibuprofen is not effective. which instruction should the nurse provide to the mother?

Answers

Using the theories of discomfort, we got that nurse should Encourage the child to lie on the right side who is complaining of discomfort on the right side of his body after the treatment of right lower lobe pneumonia.

Splinting of the affected side by lying on that side may be decrease discomfort. Lying on  left side would not be helpful in alleviating discomfort.

The signs and symptoms of pneumonia vary from mild to the severe, depending on factors such as  type of germ causing the infection, and your age and overall health. Mild signs and symptoms often are actually similar to those of a cold or flu, but they last longer also.

Hence, the mother who tells the nurse that the her child complains of discomfort on the right side and that ibuprofen is not effective nurse should encourage the child to lie on the right side.

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7. the patient has a gastrointestinal feeding tube in place. they are to receive a medication that is in the form of a capsule, enteric coated pill, a liquid, and a small tablet. describe how you would administer these medications. a. capsule b. enteric coated pill c. liquid d. small tablet

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A gastrostomy feeding tube has been implanted in the patient. They are to be administered a medication that comes in the form of a liquid, a small tablet, an enteric-coated pill, and a capsule & you would administrate this medication as crushed, liquid, coated as well as reduced tablet size.

 

a. Capsule: Tablets must be broken and the contents diluted; capsules must be opened so the contents can be diluted, and even many commercially available liquid medications need to be further diluted before being administered enterally—a procedure that not all practitioners are aware of.

b. Enteric pill: Pills with an enteric coating: completely swallow enteric-coated tablets. Enteric-coated tablets must not be broken or chewed. This can worsen stomach upset. Extended-release tablets and capsules shouldn't be crushed or chewed.

c. Liquid: Pour the medication into a slow, steady stream until it reaches the measurement line.

d. Small tablet: It's usually best to tell patients receiving tablets to swallow them whole and with a glass of water.

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the nurse is caring for an infant with a temporary ileostomy. as part of the plan of care, the nurse monitors for skin breakdown around the stoma. if redness occurs, what would be most appropriate to promote healing and prevent further skin breakdown?

Answers

On the skin, use a barrier/healing cream or paste.

To encourage healing and avoid further skin breakdown, the nurse should apply a barrier/healing cream or paste to the area around the stoma. When used on nonintact skin, fragranced or alcohol-containing diaper wipes can sting and aggravate skin breakdown. The barrier wafer is useful, but it does not solve skin deterioration.

Skin disintegration can be caused by friction, shear, dampness, pressure, or trauma. These causes can damage and hurt skin either collectively or separately. Skin disintegration can also be caused by immobility, poor nutrition, incontinence, drugs, dehydration, altered mental status, and loss of sensation.

Minor scrapes, cuts, rips, blisters, or burns can all result from skin disintegration. Minor skin breakdown is damage to the top layer of skin caused by friction, shear, dampness, or pressure.

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a client is being seen at the clinic for a routine physical when the nurse notes the client's blood pressure is 150/97. the client is considered to be a healthy, well-nourished young adult. what type of hypertension does this client have?

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Essential (primary) type of hypertension does client have

What is Primary type of hypertension ?

Most adults with high blood pressure have no known reason. Primary hypertension, also known as essential hypertension, is this kind of high blood pressure. It often grows gradually over a long period of time. Atherosclerosis, or artery plaque buildup, raises the risk of high blood pressure.

The underlying causes of primary and secondary hypertension are different from one another. Secondary hypertension has a known aetiology, but primary hypertension has no known cause. High blood pressure is a symptom of both primary and secondary hypertension.

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