Answer:
When portable transport ventilator alarms are ringing, the priority nursing assessment includes to check if, all the tubes of ventilators are connected properly or not because sometimes movement of the patient can disconnect the tubes.
Sometimes, obstruction of the Endotracheal tube (ETT) from mucus plugs or from patients biting on the tube, causes ringing of alarm and should be assessed on a priority basis.
Atrial fibrillation, rheumatic heart disease, and valvular prosthetics are risk factors for which type of stroke
Answer: Embolic stroke
Explanation:
Embolic stroke is a form of stroke thqt occurs when a debris or a blood clot travels from one body part and then stays in the narrower brain artery, thereby blocking the flow of blood into the brain.
It should be noted that Atrial fibrillation, rheumatic heart disease, and valvular prosthetics are risk factors for embolic stroke.
Answer:
Embolic
Explanation:
They all potentiate the possibility of a blood clot to form
Explain why you agree or disagree that emotional health can improve physical health.
Answer:
agree
Explanation:
because if we say fit and strong then our body can be healed very fast and enzyme can be more effective
Basophils are O granules a) involved in the process of making hemoglobin. b) involved in the allergic process. Q) that resist infection by microorganisms. D) It fights infection with parasites.
Hi,
Basophils are granulocytes:
b) involved in the process of allergic reactions.
When evaluating research, what factors should be considered? Why are these factors important? Provide some examples to illustrate the importance of each factor.
Answer:
l
Explanation:
We can reach the temperature 120 C In water bath Instrument from :
A) It is not possible.
B) Set up the pressure on 1.5 Kg/cm2.
C) Set up the temperature on 100 C
D) Set up the temperature on 120 C
Answer:
option b is the correct answer
A child is to undergo a tympanostomy tube placement in a freestanding outpatient surgery center. What is the major disadvantage associated with this location? Increased risk for infection
Answer: The options are not complete, they are;
A) Risk for infection
B) Increased healthcare costs
C) Need to be transferred if overnight stay is required
D) Increased disruption of family functioning.
The correct answer to the question is option C
NEED TO BE TRANSFERED IF OVERNIGHT STAY IS REQUIRED.
Explanation: tympanostomy tube placement is a surgical procedure that done by inserting a grommet or a tympanostomy( a tube of less than 2mm in diameter) into the ear drum of a patient/client.the indication or purpose is to maintain an aerated middle ear over a prolonged period of time,this will as well prevent fluid from accumulating in the middle ear.
Incase of complications of tympanostomy tube placement like bleeding or persistent draining of fluid, scarring and weakening of the ear drum or the tube falling out too early, the child might need to be kept in the hospital facility for proper monitoring and this will necessitate the transfer of the child to another hospital facility for good and proper monitoring and management since the tube placement was done in a freestanding out-patient surgery center where there is no provision for admission of patient or overnight stay.
A nurse wants to become part of a Disaster Medical Assistance Team (DMAT) but is concerned about maintaining licensure in several different states. What statement by the nursing supervisor best addresses these concerns?
Answer: a. "Deployed DMAT providers are federal employees, so their licenses are good in all 50 states."
Explanation:
Disaster Medical Assistance Teams are teams consisting of professionals and para-professionals in the medical profession who are called upon during matters of National Emergency when medical personnel are needed to respond rapidly to save lives. They therefore deal with events such as terrorist attacks, natural or man-made disasters, disease outbreaks and the like.
They fall under the National Disaster Medical System which operates at a Federal level. As such, DMAT teams are by extension, Federal employees who are licensed to provide help in every state of the Republic so the nurse does not to be concerned about maintaining licensure in several different states.
Which behavior would best describe someone who has good communication skills with customers ? a) Following up with some customers b) Talking to customers more than listening to them c) Repeating back what the customer says d) Interrupting customers frequently
Answer:
b
Talking to customers more than listening to them
A young adult is admitted for elective nasal surgery for a deviated septum. Which sign would be an important indicator of bleeding even if the nasal drip pad remained dry and intact?
Answer:
repeated swallowing
Explanation:
In such a situation the most important indicator for bleeding would be repeated swallowing. This is because the bleeding may be occurring and sliding down the back of the individual's throat which may feel like excess saliva, which in term would cause the individual to swallow repeatedly. In this process, the blood may completely pass the nasal drip pad without ever touching it, thus why it is remaining dry and intact.
Carafate 1 g p.o.
Identify the component missing in the order.
Answer: Frequency
Explanation:
Without frequency ex once daily; every 4 hrs, etc. You don't know when to give the med
Where was the first recognized firefighting force, known as the Familia Publica, organized?
Rome
London
New York
Philadelphia
Answer:Who were the Familia Publica? The first recognized firefighting force organized in ancient Rome.
Explanation:
An ibuprofen suspension contains 100 milligrams of ibuprofen in 5 milliliters of suspension. How many milligrams of ibuprofen are in 1 tablespoon of suspension?
Answer:
5 ml of oral suspension contains 100 mg of ibuprofen.
5 ml of oral suspension contains 2 g of maltitol liquid.
5 ml of oral suspension contains 7.370 mg of sodium.
Explanation:
im sorry i tried my best t figure it out and this is the best i could come up with, hope this helps
which of the following is typically most important to the adolescent when being examined
everything that apply
If you diluted 300mL of 8 % benzocaine lotion to 5%, how much could you produce?
in the world how many people die every day
How are glands classified
1. Asthma is a restrictive lung disorder that causes constriction and congestion of the pulmonary bronchioles. How would an asthma attack affect FVC
Answer:
by hyperinflation of lungs
Explanation:
Asthma is a disease of the lungs caused by inflammation and narrowing of the airways, thereby difficulting breath. Severe asthma disorders are associated with a significant decrease in the rate of maximal expiratory airflow and the reduction in the total volume expired, which is a value known as Forced Vital Capacity (FVC). In consequence, severe asthma events are correlated with the hyperinflation of the lungs and thus be a possible cause for the observed reduction in the FVC.
While giving discharge instructions to a patient who will be taking cholestyramine [Questran], the nurse wants to assess the patient's understanding of the treatment. Which statement made by the patient best demonstrates a need for additional teaching
A patient who is prescribed a dose inhaler will find that it must be filled with a) medicine in powder form only. Works with lower (not upper) respiratory diseases only. Full of medicine used to give a fixed amount of medicine per oral inhalation. d) Medication in the form of a spray only.
Traditionally, the term _______ was applied to a vehicle with no permanent roof covering or side windows, but today that name is most often used to describe any convertible sports car.
Group of answer choices
Convertible
Coupe
Roadster
Sedan
2. Most office supplies are purchased through a
O mediator.
O seller.
O vendor.
O retailer.
Answer:
retailer.
Explanation:
hope it's helpful
What is one of the most effective strategies to increase vaccination rates?
Answer:
Interventions to increase vaccination rates
Five Effective Strategies for Increasing Immunization Rates
Provide a Clear Recommendation
Adopt an Encouraging, Positive Approach with Questioning Patients
Be Proactive in Making Appointments
Set Reminders for Vaccination Reviews
Get More Practice Members Involved.
Explanation:
Using AMD technology, CDC scientists can find shifts in the DNA of circulating bacteria and viruses that help them evade vaccines. Through this work, we can develop more effective vaccines that shift with the changing microbes.
38. A pregnant client experiences persistent severe headaches and unexplained spells of dizziness during training, what should the trainer do?
Answer:
The coach should immediately stop physical activity and then take your blood pressure.
Explanation:
Many pregnant women tend to suffer from preclampcia, which is high blood pressure during pregnancy, which is very careful since it is risky for the mother and the baby.
High blood pressure in pregnant women can cause detachments of the placenta, interruption of pregnancy or spontaneous abortion.
It is very risky not to perceive these signs or said pathology, those pregnant women who are diagnosed with high blood pressure should do strict rest and monitoring.
Pregnant women bear the weight and physiological conditions of the baby and child. The trainer should immediately halt the training and check for the vitals of the women.
The trainer should do the following:
1. The trainer should immediately stop the training if the woman is experiencing dizziness and persistent severe headaches.
2. The symptoms could indicate the cause of preeclampsia, which is one of the most common complications of pregnancy. It has symptoms of high blood pressure, damage to the organ systems, and dizziness.
3. The trainer should immediately check for the vitals and measure the blood pressure of the pregnant women. The trainer should immediately contact the medical physician for monitoring and checking of the pregnant women.
Thus, the trainer should stop exercising and check the blood pressure.
To know more about pregnancy complications, refer to the following link:
https://brainly.com/question/17021945
Being 65 or older, being under 65 years of age with certain disabilities for more than 24 months, and being any age with ESRD or ALS are each eligibility requirements for which program?
Answer:
Original Medicare
Explanation:
Which of the following statements comparing elite sprinters to average sprinters is correct? Elite sprinters...
Question 6 options:
reposition the legs during flight only slightly faster than average sprinters
hit the ground harder than average sprinters
apply GRF faster than average sprinters
All of the above are correct
Answer:
reposition the legs during flight only slightly faster than average sprinters
Explanation:
The main difference between elite sprinters and average sprinters is the ability of elite sprinters to make longer, more impactful strides. This allows them to have a greater boost.
This boost is a result of the muscle fibers in your legs, which allow them to make strides that have little contact with the ground, but propel them forward faster than average sprinters. In short, elite sprinters are able to reposition their legs during flight just a little faster than the average sprinter.
Which answer helps define a developmental disability?
Answer:
A developmental disability is a neurological or mental illness that occurs in children or adolescents and hinders normal development. Such a disorder can sometimes also be traced in adults, but the chance of successful treatment usually decreases with age.
The symptoms are diverse and there can be different causes. Some conditions are permanent, others are temporary. Sometimes the symptoms arise in response to a shocking experience, in other cases the cause is hereditary factors or a physical illness. Environmental factors must also be monitored, as well as educational factors.
All factors in the development of the child continuously influence each other. For example, children with a physical problem can be affected in their self-esteem and thus have a less social attitude. This elicits a response from the environment, which in turn affects the child's psyche.
Both the sypathetic and the parasymphathetic nerves are strongly influenced by emotion. True or false
Answer:
Both the sypathetic and the parasymphathetic nerves are strongly influenced by emotion (true)
6x(8x-3)-2x(24x-6)=36
Answer:
x = -6
Explanation:
[tex]6x(8x - 3) - 2x(24x - 6) = 36[/tex]
➡️ [tex]48 {x}^{2} - 18x - 48 {x}^{2} + 12x = 36[/tex]
➡️ [tex] - 6x = 36[/tex]
➡️ [tex]x = - 6[/tex] ✅
If cancer runs in your family, what will your doctor likely do?
Answer:
Your doctor will most likely treat your family.
Explanation:
Kevin has a BMI of 28.5. How many calories should he eliminate from his diet every day to achieve weight loss? a. 600 calories b. 400 calories c. 100 calories d. 200 calories e. 300 calories
Answer:
A
Explanation:
A BMI of 28.5 for a male shows that he is overweight. Cutting down calories significantly can promote weight loss by 1-2 pounds each week.
Kevin has a BMI of 28.5.600 calories should he eliminate from his diet every day to achieve weight loss.
What is BMI ?Body mass index (BMI) can be define as the calculation that is used in healthcare settings which is an indirect method to determine a person's body weight category.
BMI is a measurement can take the data of height, and weight to produce a calculation and this calculation determine the relationship between weight and height.
The reason BMI is used for the correlation between being overweight and having certain health problems, Coronary heart disease, Hypertension, Osteoarthritis, Sleep apnea and respiratory problems
For more details regarding BMI, visit
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