Please answer ASAP

Randomly pick 6 points from a square of side = 1. Show that you can always find 2 points from these 6 that their distance is less or equal to [tex]\frac{\sqrt{2} }{2} }[/tex]

Randomly pick 5 points from a sphere. Show that you can always find a closed semi-sphere ( half a sphere and boundary) that contains 4 points.

Answer:

887/990

Step-by-step explanation:

0.8959595....

895.95 - 8.95 = 887

1000 - 10 = 990

Answer:

[tex]\huge\boxed{x = \frac{887}{990}}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

The number given is 0.895..........

Let x = 0.895........

Then

10x = 8.95.......   --------(1)

1000x = 985.95........   --------(2)

Subtracting (1) from (2)

1000x - 10x = 985.95..... - 8.95......

990 x = 887

Dividing both sides by 990

[tex]x = \frac{887}{990}[/tex]   (In simplest form)

Answer:

77 inches by 161 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

This is because you need to multiply 22 by 3.5(3 1/2) and the answer you get is 77 then you multiply 46 by 3 1/2 and the answer you get is 161.

So the dimensions of the new document is 77 inches by 161 inches.

==============================================

Explanation:

Any regular hexagon is really the combination of six identical (aka congruent) equilateral triangles glued together. If we can find the area of one triangle, then we multiply by 6 to get our final answer.

The apothem is the height of the equilateral triangle with the triangular base being the side length of the hexagon.

area of triangle = (1/2)*base*height

area of triangle = 0.5*(hexagon side length)*(apothem)

area of triangle = 0.5*19*16.5

area of triangle = 156.75

This is the area of one equilateral triangle. Having 6 triangles leads to a total area of 6*156.75 = 940.5 square inches

The area of a regular hexagon with an apothem of 16.5 inches and a side of 19 inches is Area of hexagon = 1/2(length of apothem)(perimeter of the hexagon) = 940.5 inches. (Option-B)

Apothem is a perpendicular line from the center of the regular polygon to one of its sides.

Area = 1/2 x (length of apothem) x (perimeter of hexagon)

   • Given,  

     apothem = 16.5 inches and length of a side =19 inches

   • Perimeter = 6 x (side of a hexagon)

                       = 6 x (19)

                       = 114 inches

   • Hence,

      Area = 1/2 x (16.5) x (114) = 940.5 inches(rounded to the nearest tenth)

Know more about Regular hexagon :

https://brainly.com/question/10209400?referrer=searchResults

#SPJ2

Answer:

A. 1010 FT^3

Step-by-step explanation:

19 x 14.5 x 5 = 1377.5

you need to subtract now, so the only option would be A

Answer:

[tex]1,010 ft^{3}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

You can break the figure into 2 sections; one with the dimensions of 4, 5 and 7; the other with dimensions of 14.5, 5, and 12.

Multiply the first three dimensions (4, 5 and 7) to get 140 ft cubed.

Multiply the last three dimensions (14.5, 5, and 12) to get 870 ft cubed.

Now, just add both volumes together to get 1,010 ft cubed!

Hope that helps and maybe earns a brainliest!

Have a great day! :)

Answer:

Part A:

The ratios in the table are equivalent.

The two quantities in this table represent a proportional relationship.

The graph of the relationship would be straight line through origin

Step-by-step explanation:

Part A

The ratios in the table are equivalent.

Length: Cost

6 : 42   = 1 : 7

15: 105 = 1: 7

24 : 168 = 1:7

30 : 210 = 1 : 7

The two quantities in this table represent a proportional relationship.

If we take length = x, then cost =7x

When length = 6 ,  Cost = 7 *6 = 42

When length = 15 ,  Cost = 7 * 15 =  105

When length = 24 ,  Cost = 7 *24 = 168

The graph of the relationship would be straight line through origin

y = 7x

y -> cost and x -> length

When x = 0 , y= 0. so, this graph go through the origin

Part B:

$ 7 per foot

Answer:

m = 1

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question given,

m(2x − 3) + n(x + 1) = 5x for all real numbers x.

Since x is a real number, we can obtain the value of m as follow:

Let x = 1

m(2x − 3) + n(x + 1) = 5x

m(2×1 − 3) + n(1 + 1) = 5×1

m(2 – 3) + n(2) = 5

m(– 1) + n(2) = 5

– m + 2n = 5 ...... (1)

Let x = 2

m(2x − 3) + n(x + 1) = 5x

m(2×2 − 3) + n(2 + 1) = 5×2

m(4 – 3) + n(3) = 10

m(1) + n(3) = 10

m + 3n = 10 ...... (2)

– m + 2n = 5 ...... (1)

m + 3n = 10 ...... (2)

Solve by elimination method

Add equation 1 and 2

– m + 2n = 5

+ (m + 3n = 10)

¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯

5n = 15

Divide both side by 5

n = 15/5

n = 3

Substitute the value of n into any of the equation to obtain the value of m. Here, we shall substitute n into equation 2.

m + 3n = 10

m + 3(3) = 10

m + 9 = 10

Collect like terms

m = 10 – 9

m = 1

Therefore, the value of m is 1

Answer:

18.55 <=  wt < 18.65

In other words, the dog could weigh anywhere from 18.55   up to , but not including  18.65  lbs

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

every thing that is 18.55 and after it until 18.64

Step-by-step explanation:

so that will be 18.55,18.56,18.57,18.58,18.59,18.6,18.61,18.62,18.63,18.64

those are all numbers that could be sams weight

Answer:

H, 40%

Step-by-step explanation:

We can start out simple by finding out the number of cars in each category.

30 remote-controlled cars

90 non remote-controlled cars.

20% of the remote controlled cars are yellow, meaning that there are 6 yellow remote controlled cars.

Since 50% of the total cars are yellow, there are 60 yellow cars. Subtracting this from the yellow remote controlled cars, there are 54 yellow non remote contolled cars.

What this means is that 54/90 of the non-remote cars are yellow, and 36/90 of the non-remote cars are yellow. 36/90 is just 2/5, which means that our answer is H, 40%.

Answer:

b

Step-by-step explanation:

The first one is not. Think money. Would you rather be 1 dollar in the hole or 6 dollars in the hole? b = - 1. It is larger than - 6.

The third one is not correct either. -c = - 5

- b = 1

1 is larger than -5

The answer is the middle one

-b becomes 1 which is greater than 0.

Answer:

(7, -5.5)

Step-by-step explanation:

is seen below on this graph (7, -5.5) shows x = 7 and y = -5.5

Answer:

  4 months

Step-by-step explanation:

The 24% APR corresponds to a monthly rate of 24%/12 = 2%. This finance charge on a balance of $300 is ...

  0.02 × $300 = $6.00

To pay off $300 will take more than 3 payments of $100 because of the finance charge. Because the finance charge is not very large, the last month's payment will not need to be $100, but will be somewhat less.

It will take 4 months to pay off the balance.

_____

Additional comment

The actual finance charge will depend on your credit agreement. It may amount to $4 the second month, and $2.08 the third month, if it is charged on the outstanding balance. That is, the 4th month's payment may only be $6.08. If there is a finance charge on the initial $300 balance, that may cause the last payment to be a little more than $12.

Answer:

5 * 10^10.

Step-by-step explanation:

(9 * 10^10) - (4 * 10^10) = (9 - 4) * 10^10 = 5 * 10^10.

Hope this helps!

Answer:

5*10^10

Step-by-step explanation:

9 times ten is 9^10, and 4 Times 10^10 is 4^10 so 9^10 minus 4^10 is 50000000000 which is also called 5^10 which is also 5 x 10^10 I think. pls correct me if im wrong

Answer:

-18

Step-by-step explanation:

x2 - y2 - z2 if x=-2, y=3, and z=4

x2 - y2 - z2

(-2) 2 - (3)2 - (4)2

(-4) - (6) - (8)

-10 -8

-18

Answer:

18

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

48

Step-by-step explanation:

a=2

b=3

3a^2+4b^2

3(2)^2+4(3)^2

3(2)(2)+4(3)(3)

3(4)+4(9)

12+36

48

Hope this helps ;) ❤❤❤

Answer:

x = 180 - [(180 - 3x) + (180 - 2x)]

Step-by-step explanation:

Start off by finding the angles of the triangle

Angle F = 180 - 3x

The angle across from I (which I will call I) = 180 - 2x

Angle G = 180 - (F + I)

Now that we know what G is, we know what x is because the Alternate Exterior Angles Theorem states that if a pair of parallel lines are cut by a transversal, then the alternate exterior angles are congruent. So pretty much X = G

Therefore x =  180 - (F + I) or otherwise said as:

x = 180 - [(180 - 3x) + (180 - 2x)]

I hope this is helpful :)

Step-by-step explanation:

V=(4/3) * πr^3

V=(4/3) * π * 7.6 ^3

V=(4/3) * π * 438.976

V= π * 585.301333

V = 1837.85 inch^3

3.14 for pi btw

Answer:

|AC| = 144

Step-by-step explanation:

The larger triangle (on the left) and the smaller one (on the right) are similar.

Therefore the following equation of ratios is correct:

  x               7

---------- = ---------

156 - x       84

Then 84x = 7(156) - 7x, or

         91x = 1092, or x = 12

Then the length of AC is 156 - x, or 144  

Answer:

≈ 5.36

Step-by-step explanation:

If we have a triangle in which the angle measure of it being broken down are the same, that means that the legs in which the angle measures are the same will have the same length.

If we already know that DE ≈ 9.28, then we can subtract this from 20 and divide by two to get BD, which is equal to EC.

[tex]20-9.28=10.72\\10.72\div2=5.36[/tex]

However, I'm not 100% sure about this answer.

Hope this helped (and I hope I'm right)

Answer:

5.3589 or 5.36

Step-by-step explanation:

tan (15) = x / 20

x = 40 - 34.64

x = 5.36

Answer:

A. 0

Step-by-step explanation:

In order for there to be a 1 in 3 chance, there would have to be an equal number of the three chalices.  Since four is the smallest number, the other two must have four left as well.  That means Donavan drank 1 spoiled milk and 2 flat sodas.  Therefore, he drank 0 purified water.

Answer:

You started at ( -3,5)

Step-by-step explanation:

You end at (4,5)

You got there by moving right 9 units so move left 9 units

Moving left is subtraction in the x direction

(4-9,5)

( -5,5)

Then move left 2 units so move right 2 units which is adding 2 in the x direction

( -5+2, 5)

( -3,5)

You started at ( -3,5)

Answer:

the answer is 16

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

f⁻¹(x) = [tex]2^{\dfrac{x}{4} }[/tex] + 7

Step-by-step explanation:

The inverse of a function reverses the operations performed by the function  in the question such if f(x) = y, then we have, f⁻¹(y) = x, which reverses the operation of the first function.

The inverse of a function f(x) = 4·㏒₂(x - 7) is found as follows;

We have;

y = 4·㏒₂(x - 7)

We substitute x for y to get;

x = 4·㏒₂(y - 7)  which gives;

x/4 = ㏒₂(y - 7)

[tex]2^{\dfrac{x}{4} }[/tex] = y - 7

y = [tex]2^{\dfrac{x}{4} }[/tex] + 7

Therefore;

f⁻¹(x) = [tex]2^{\dfrac{x}{4} }[/tex] + 7.