Potential GDP of an economy is $12 billion. Real (Actual) GDP is $20 Billion. Marginal propensity to consume is 0.75. What level of Government spending is required to achieve Full employment

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Government spending required  = $2 billion

Explanation:

The required amount of GDP to achieve the full employment GDP =

Potential GDP - Actual

that is 20 - 12 = $8 billion.

But note that a government spending of less than $8 billion would be required to achieve an increase of 8 billion in real GDP. This is so because of   expenditure multiplier effect.

The expenditure multiplier is the amount by which the aggregate output would increase with an increase in any of the expenditure components.

It is calculated as follows;

Multiplier = 1/(1-MPC)

For this question ,

Expenditure multiplier = 1/(1-0.75) = 4

This implies that $1 change in any of the aggregate expenditure would lead a $4 worth of change in GDP.

Government spending required  is determined as

Desired change in real GDP/expenditure multiplier

= $8 billion/4 = $2 billion

Government spending required  = $2 billion


Related Questions

Lisa loaned $6,000 to her brother several years ago. In the current year, she determines that the loan is uncollectible. Lisa also has a $4,000 long-term capital gain in the current year from a stock sale. How much of the $6,000 loan can Lisa use/deduct in the current year g

Answers

Answer:

$0

Explanation:

Data provided in the question

Loaned amount several years ago = $6,000

Long term capital gain = $4,000

Based on the above information

Lisa is not in the position to subtract the loss from the loan i.e. uncollectible as according to the Internal revenue service (IRS) it is mentioned that if the loan is given to a brother the same is treated as a gift

So, the amount would be $0

What element of the tourism and recreation industry has increased tenfold over the last fifteen years, bringing increased revenue to cities in the Coastal South such as Miami, Fort Lauderdale, and Tampa

Answers

Answer: A. The Cruise Ship Industry

Explanation:

The Cruise Ship Industry has been until recently (due to the Pandemic) one of the fastest growing elements of Tourism and Recreation in the United States having increased tenfold over the last 15 years.

Indeed in 2018, it was estimated that the industry added over $52 billion to the US economy as well as employing over 400,000 people.

This massive growth has benefitted port cities from which these Cruises take off and return to such as Miami, Fort Lauderdale, and Tampa immensely.

Lake Co. receives nonrefundable advance payments with special orders for containers constructed to customer specifications. Related information for 2021 is as follows ($ in millions): Customer advances balance, Dec. 31, 2020 $ 120 Advances received with 2021 orders 189 Advances applicable to orders shipped in 2021 182 Advances from orders canceled in 2021 36 What amount should Lake report as a current liability for advances from customers in its Dec. 31, 2021, balance sheet

Answers

Answer:

Lake Co.

Current Liability for Advances from Customers in Dec. 31, 2021 balance sheet:

Amount to report as current liability for advances from customers:

= $127

Explanation:

Advances from Customers:

Dec. 31, 2020 balance       $120

Cash received                      189

Total liability                      $309

Earned Revenue                 182

Current liability                  $127

Advances, which Lake Co., received from customers for orders not yet fulfilled are recorded as deferred revenue or liabilities because Lake Co. is still owing the respective customers until the services or goods are provided.  Earned Revenue is the value of revenue that would be reported in the income summary for which exchange of value or promises had been completed.

Answer:

the guy above me is correct!!

Explanation:

Company FM2 must pay 100,000 in 4 years. In order to fully immunize from changes in interest rate, the company invests in a 3 year zero coupon bond that matures for 45,000 and a 5 year zero coupon bond that matures for X. The actuary for Company FM2 determined that their portfolio fully immunized their ability to meet their obligations at the current interest rate i. Calculate i.

Answers

Answer:

5. 11.1%

Explanation:

the options for this question are missing:

5%7.8%10%10.5%11.1%

I prepared the following equation:

$100,000 = $45,000(1 + i)³ + x(1 + i)⁵

There is something that we must remember about zero coupon bonds, and that is that they are sold in thousands. This equation is complex, but there is an easier way to solve it. We can plug in the options to determine which % will result in a possible answer.

The answer is 11.1%, since the other options resulted in numbers which are not even close to a thousand.

$100,000 = $45,000(1.111)³ + x(1.111)⁵

$100,000 = $61,709.88 + 1.2763x

$38,290.12 = 1.2763x

x = $38,290.12 / 1.2763 = $30,000

If a company from Country A decides to sell merchandise to a company from Country B, then the company from Country A ________.

Answers

Answer: C) can denominate the sale in either currency and use the foreign exchange market to convert currency

Explanation:

The options to the question are:

A) will denominate the sale in its own currency since it is too hard to convert foreign currency

B) will denominate the sale in the currency of the buyer since it is too hard for them toconvert foreign currency

C) can denominate the sale in either currency and use the foreign exchange market to convert currency

D) can use the OTC market to convert receipts in the future and the exchange markets to convert receipts in the spot market.

Since the company from Country A I the one selling merchandise to the company from Country B, it means that the company from Country A can denominate the sale in either currency and use the foreign exchange market to convert currency.

A monopolist that practices perfect price discrimination has the same deadweight loss triangle as the single-price monopolist.
a) true
b) false

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is the option B: False.

Explanation:

To begin with, the price discrimination strategy refers to a technique used by the companies in order to charge different prices to the different consumers regarding the fact of how much would they be able to pay for the product. When it comes to monopolies, a perfect price discrimination strategy would try as best as possible to capture the majority of the zone known as the "consumer surplus". And that is why that a company with a perfect price discrimination would face a small deadweight loss area due to the fact that with that strategy of price the monopolist will absorve as much as possible of that area becuase the triangle is half consumer surplus and half producer surplus.

A NASDAQ security is bid at $30.25 and offered at $30.75. An over-the-counter trader effects a trade at $30.75 and charges a commission of $.50 to the customer. The price that will show on the tape is:

Answers

Answer:

$30.75

Explanation:

Given that

Security bidding = $30.25

Offered price = $30.75

over the counter trading = $30.75

Commission charged = $0.50

based on the above information, the price that shows on the tape is equivalent to the over the counter trading price i.e $30.75 also it does not include the commission charged i.e $0.50

Hence, the price is $30.75

On January 1, the listed spot and futures prices of a Treasury bond were 95.4 and 95.6. You sold $100,000 par value Treasury bonds and purchased one Treasury bond futures contract. One month later, the listed spot price and futures prices were 95 and 94.4, respectively. If you were to liquidate your position, your profits would be a Group of answer choices $125 profit. $1,060.50 loss. None of the options are correct. $125 loss. $1,062.50 profit.

Answers

Answer:

None of the options are correct.

Explanation:

We start by calculating the net change of the treasury bond position.

= $95,125 - $95,000

= $125

The long treasury bond position gains $125 after a month.

We will also calculate the net change of the treasury bond futures contract.

= $94,125 - $95,187.50

= -$1,062.50

Therefore, Net profits is;

= $125 - $1,062.50

= -$937.50

Presence indicators _____.

a. are small digital badges that people can embed in emails and on websites to share their contact information and social affiliations.
b. are visual elements used to change the aesthetic of a web page.
c. are things that others create we feel are worth redistributing to our social networks.
d. are an option to have one's profile reflected back to them from the perspective of others.
e. enable users to project an identity more vividly to others within a community

Answers

Answer: enable users to project an identity more vividly to others within a community.

Explanation:

The small digital badges that people can embed in emails and on websites to share their contact information and social affiliations are referred to as identity cards.

Skin/themes are the visual elements that are used to change the aesthetic of a web page.

Identity reflectors are option to have one's profile reflected back to them from the perspective of others.

Presence indicator allow users to project an identity more vividly to others within a community.

Mojo Mining has a bond outstanding that sells for $2,120 and matures in 18 years. The bond pays semiannual coupons and has a coupon rate of 6.66 percent. The par value is $2,000. If the company's tax rate is 40 percent, what is the aftertax cost of debt?
A. 3.96%
B. 6.24%
C. 5.82%
D. 3.66%
E. 3.45%

Answers

Answer:

D. 3.66%

Explanation:

For computing the after tax cost of debt we need to apply the RATE formula i.e to be shown in the attachment

Given that,  

Present value = $2,120

Future value or Face value = $2,000

PMT = $2,000 × 6.6% ÷ 2 = $66.60

NPER = 18 years × 2 = 36 years

The formula is shown below:  

= Rate(NPER;PMT;-PV;FV;type)  

The present value come in negative  

So, after solving this,  

1. The pretax cost of debt is 3.05% × 2 % = 6.10%

2. And, the after tax cost of debt would be

= Pretax cost of debt × ( 1 - tax rate)

= 6.10% × ( 1 - 0.40)

= 3.66%

Stock Investment Transactions On September 12, 2,000 shares of Aspen Company were acquired at a price of $50 per share plus a $200 brokerage commission. On October 15, a $0.50-per-share dividend was received on the Aspen stock. On November 10, 1,200 shares of the Aspen stock were sold for $42 per share less a $150 brokerage commission. In your computations, round per share amounts to two decimal places. When required, round final answers to the nearest dollar. For a compound transaction, if an amount box does not require an entry, leave it blank. Journalize the entries to record the original purchase, the dividend, and the sale under the cost method.

Answers

Answer: Please see answer in explanation column

Explanation:

1. Journal to record original purchase.

Date               Account                             Debit                  Credit

Sept 12     Investment- Aspen stock    $100,200.

                     Cash                                                              $100,200.

Calculation

Cash = 2,000 shares  x $50 per share =  100,000 + brokerage commission of $200

= $100,200.

2.Journal to record dividend received

Date               Account                             Debit                  Credit

Oct 15   Cash                                         $1000.

                  Dividend revenue                                             $1000

Calculation

dividend received = $2000 x  $0.50-per-share dividend =$1000

3..Journal to record sale of investment  

Date               Account                             Debit                  Credit

Nov 10   Cash                                        $50,250

             Loss from sale                           $9,870

Investment - Aspen stock                                                   $60,120

Calculation

Purchase price of 1 Share in Aspen stock = 100,200/2000 = 50.10 per share

Investment = share sold x purchase amount of 1 share in Aspen stock  

                   1,200 x 50.10= $60,120

Cash = 1,200 shares  x $42 per share =  100,000 - brokerage commission of $150

= $50,250

Jason has a loan that requires a single payment of $6,000 at the end of 3 years. The loan's interest rate is 10%, compounded semiannually. How much did Jason borrow? (PV of $1, FV of $1, PVA of $1, and FVA of $1) (Use appropriate factor(s) from the tables provided.)

Answers

Answer:

Jason borrowed $4,4,77.29

Explanation:

In order to calculate this, let we will use the formula for the future value on an invested amount, semiannually, yielding interest at a certain interest rate. This is done as follows:

[tex]FV\ =\ PV(1+\frac{r}{n} )^{(n\times t)}[/tex]

where:

FV =  future value = $6,000 (loan repayment)

PV = present value = amount borrowed = ??

r = interest rate = 10% = 10/100 = 0.1

n = number of compounding periods per year = 2

t = time = 3 years

[tex]6,000\ =\ PV(1+\frac{0.1}{2} )^{(2\times 3)}\\6,000\ =\ PV(1+ 0.05)^{6}\\6,000\ =\ PV(1.05)^{6}\\6,000\ =\ PV (1.340096)\\diving\ both\ sides\ by\ 1.340096\\PV = \frac{6,000}{1.340096} \\PV = \$4,477.29[/tex]

Therefore, Jason borrowed $4,4,77.29

Rent expense of $3,000 is allocated to Department A and Department B based on square footage. Department A has 5,000 square feet and Department B has 2,500 square feet.

The dollar amount of rent expense allocated to Department B is:_______

Answers

Answer:

$1,000

Explanation:

Calculation for the Dollar amount of rent expense allocated to department B

Using this formula

Expense allocated to Department B= Rent expense allocated to Department A and B* Department B square feet/Department A and Department B Square foot

Let plug in the formula

Expense allocated to department B =$3,000*2,500/5,000+2,500

Expense allocated to department B= $3,000 * 2,500 / 7,500

Expense allocated to department B =$7,500,000/7,500

Expense allocated to department B= $1,000

Therefore the Dollar amount of rent expense allocated to department B will be $1,000

McCall Corporation has a capital structure consisting of 55 percent common equity, 30 percent debt, and 15 percent preferred stock. Any debt issues would have a pre-tax cost of 9.5%. Preferred stock can be issued for a cost of 11.5%. Common equity can be issued, but flotation costs of $4.25 per share of common stock would be paid. McCall common stock is currently selling in the market at $65 per share. McCall recently paid a dividend of $4 per share and company earnings and dividends are expected to grow at an annual rate of 8% indefinitely. McCall has a marginal tax rate of 35% and the firm wants to keep its current capital structure. If the firm needs to raise additional equity, what will be the firm's cost of capital?

Answers

Answer:

WACC = 12.14%

Explanation:

Cost of debt = 9.5% x (1 - 35%) = 6.175%

Cost of preferred stock = 11.5%

Cost of equity (Re) = {D₁ / [P₀(1 - F)]} + g

Re = {($4.25 x 1.08) / [$65 x (1 - $4.25/$65)]} + 8% = ($4.59 / $60.75) + 8% = 15.56%

WACC = (15.55% x 0.55) + (6.175% x 0.30) + (11.5% x 0.15) = 8.56% + 1.85% + 1.73% = 12.14%

In what way did Henry Ford’s use of the assembly-line method of production represent an advance in technology in automobile manufacturing?

Answers

Answer: a. It allowed workers to specialize on specific tasks and become more productive.

Explanation:

The Assembly line method of production that Henry Ford initiated at his plant was a technological game changer as it enabled workers to assemble cars faster and this mass produce Ford cars at a cheaper rate for the masses.

The Assembly line worked by putting workers at various stages of the assembly line where they would focus on installing only one or a few parts into the prospective vehicle. This way they were able to focus on that specific task, become more adept at it and thus become more productive.

Cost of common stock: Whitewall Tire Co. just paid a $1.60 dividend on its common shares. If Whitewall is expected to increase its annual dividend by 2 percent per year into the foreseeable future and the current price of Whitewall common shares is $11.66, what is the cost of common stock for Whitewall

Answers

Answer:

Cost of common stock for Whitewall is 16.00%

Explanation:

Ke = D1 / Price +g

D1 = Ke (Price + g)

D1 = $1.60 * (1+0.02)

D1 = $1.60 * (1.02)

D1 = $1.632

Ke = D1 / Price +g

We solve for Current dividend to derive the Cost of common stick  

Ke = 1.632 / (11.66) + 2%

Ke =  1.632 / 11.66 + 0.02

Ke =  0.139966 + 0.02

Ke =  0.159966

Ke =  15.9966%

Ke =  16.00%

The bottom-up method of estimating where work package time and costs for past projects are used as a starting point for a new project and adjustments are made based on differences in the new project is known as the ___________.
a. range estimating.
b. phase estimating method.
c. WBS method.
d. template method.
e. parametric procedure.

Answers

B range eliminating the property for the property is right

Pacific Cruise Lines is a defendant in litigation involving a swimming accident on one of its three cruise ships.Required:a. The likelihood of a payment occurring is probable, and the estimated amount is $1.17 million. b. The likelihood of a payment occurring is probable, and the amount is estimated to be in the range of $0.97 to $1.17 million. c. The likelihood of a payment occurring is reasonably possible, and the estimated amount is $1.17 million. d. The likelihood of a payment occurring is remote, while the estimated potential amount is $1.17 million.

Answers

Answer:

a. The likelihood of a payment occurring is probable, and the estimated amount is $1.17 million.

THE CONTINGENT LIABILITY NEEDS TO BE RECORDED SINCE IT IS PROBABLE THAT IT WILL OCCUR AND THE AMOUNT CAN BE ESTIMATED.

b. The likelihood of a payment occurring is probable, and the amount is estimated to be in the range of $0.97 to $1.17 million.

YOU ONLY HAVE TO DISCLOSE THE LIABILITY IN THE NOTES OF THE FINANCIAL STATEMENTS SINCE THE AMOUNT CANNOT BE DETERMINED.

c. The likelihood of a payment occurring is reasonably possible, and the estimated amount is $1.17 million.

YOU ONLY HAVE TO DISCLOSE THE LIABILITY IN THE NOTES OF THE FINANCIAL STATEMENTS SINCE THE EVENT IS ONLY REASONABLY POSSIBLE AND NOT PROBABLE.

d. The likelihood of a payment occurring is remote, while the estimated potential amount is $1.17 million.

NO RECORDING NOR DISCLOSING IS REQUIRED SINCE THE POSSIBILITY OF OCCURRING IS REMOTE.

Sheridan Company has several outdated computers that cost a total of $18200 and could be sold as scrap for $6200. They could be updated for an additional $3000 and sold. If Sheridan updates the computers and sells them, net income will increase by $9000. What amount would be considered sunk costs

Answers

Answer:

$18200

Explanation:

Sunk cost is cost that has already been incurred and cannot be recovered. It should not be considered when making future decisions.

The computers costs $18200. This amount has already been incurred and it cannot be recovered.

A customer has requested that Inga Corporation fill a special order for 3,000 units of product K81 for $30 a unit. While the product would be modified slightly for the special order, product K81's normal unit product cost is $21.30:
Direct materials $ 5.40
Direct labor 6.00
Variable manufacturing overhead 2.50
Fixed manufacturing overhead 7.40
Unit product cost $21.30
Direct labor is a variable cost. The special order would have no effect on the company's total fixed manufacturing overhead costs. The customer would like modifications made to product K81 that would increase the variable costs by $1.00 per unit and that would require an investment of $14,000 in special molds that would have no salvage value.
This special order would have no effect on the company's other sales. The company has ample spare capacity for producing the special order. If the special order is accepted, the company's overall net operating income would increase (decrease) by:______.
A. $14,200
B. $31,300
C. $(13,700)
D. $(2,800)

Answers

Answer:

B. $31,300

Explanation:

Sales                                            $90,000

Less: Variable Cost                     $44,700

Less: Additional Fixed Cost        $14,000  

Increase in Operating Income  $31,300

Workings:

Sales= 3,000 unit * $30

Sales= 90,000

Variable cost = 3,000 unit * (5.4 + 6 + 2.5 +1)

Variable cost = 3,000 * 14.9

Variable cost = $44,700

A risk-free, zero-coupon bond has 15 years to maturity. Which of the following is closest to the price per $1,000 of face value at which the bond will trade if the current YTM is 6.1%?
a $411.40
b. $553.15
c $663.78
d. $885.05
e. $774.42

Answers

Answer:

The bond will trade at a. $411.40.

Explanation:

Use the following data to find the price, PV of the bond.

n = 15

pmt = $0

p/yr = 1

fv = $1,000

ytm = 6.10 %

pv = ?

Using a financial calculator, the bond price (PV) is $411,4047 or $411,40

Conclusion :

The bond will trade at $411.40 if the current YTM is 6.1%.

Thematization is the process by which a framework for mutual communication and satisfaction is reached. Is this statement true or​ false? Group of answer choices

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Thematization refers to the process in which the choice of specific topics as a theme in a sentence. It also deals with the process in which mutual communication and the level of satisfaction are also reached so that there should be proper coordination and communication maintained. And the chances of the misunderstanding is less

Therefore the given statement is true

A decrease in the basis will __________ a long hedger and __________ a short hedger. Group of answer choices hurt; hurt hurt; benefit benefit; have no effect upon benefit; benefit benefit; hurt

Answers

Answer:

hurt, benefit

Explanation:

The basis in a future contract is defined as the difference between the spot price of the asset in the cash market and the price of the same assets future contract.

A short hedge is an investment strategy that is used to protect hedge, against the risk of future decline in asset price or basically to hedge against potential losses by selling at a determined rate. This means that when one is in possession of a commodity and in order to protect against a decline, in the market, you sell (go short) the future contract , while long hedge is when you anticipate a need for the underlying commodity in the future. It means that to protect against an increase in the market price, you buy (go long) the future contract. Then when you are ready to buy the commodity, any increase in the market price is offset by your gain on the future contract.

The above means that where an asset and a contract are liquidated before due dates , there would be basis risk hence both the future and spot price need not move in lockstep before delivery date. This means that a decrease in the basis will benefit the short hedger and hurt the long hedger.

The following data were reported by a corporation: Authorized shares 38,000 Issued shares 33,000 Treasury shares 12,500 The number of outstanding shares is:

Answers

Answer:

20,500 shares

Explanation:

Authorized shares= 38,000

Issued shares= 33,000

Treasury shares= 12,500

Therefore, the number of outstanding shares can be calculated as follows

Outstanding shares= Issued shares-Treasury shares

= 33,000-12,500

=20,500

Hence the number of outstanding shares is 20,500

In an attempt to bring about a change in the organization, what do you think might happen to The Learning Focus if Nemeroff fired all the existing writers and replaced them with new writers

Answers

Answer:

If all existing writers are replaced with new writers there could be a number of issues as the existing writers had experience and were use to of the type of writing required, they understand the nature of the reader. The new writers might fail to satisfy the old readers as they will be unaware of the taste the readers want and like to read. If learning focus Nemeroff fired all the existing writers the above described issues may appear.

Explanation:

If all existing writers are replaced with new writers there could be a number of issues as the existing writers had experience and were use to of the type of writing required, they understand the nature of the reader. The new writers might fail to satisfy the old readers as they will be unaware of the taste the readers want and like to read. If learning focus Nemeroff fired all the existing writers the above described issues may appear.

The income statement and selected balance sheet information for Direct Products Company for the year ended December 31 are presented below. Income Statement Sales Revenue Expenses S 41,600 Cost of Goods Sold Depreciation Expense Salaries and Wages Expense Rent Expense Insurance Expense Interest Expense Utilities Expense 17,500 1,300 8,300 3,800 1,550 1,450 Net Income S 6,650 Selected Balance Sheet Accounts Ending Beginning Balances Balances Accounts Recelvable Inventory Accounts Payable Prepaid Rent Prepaid Insurance Salaries and Wages Payable Utilities Payable $570 820 430 29 27 600 685 480 32 43 17
Required:
Prepare the cash flows from operating activities section of the statement of cash flows using the indirect method.

Answers

Answer:

Direct Products Company

Operating cash flow statement

For the year ended December 31, 202x

Net income                                                             $6,500

Adjustments to net income:

Depreciation expense $1,300Decrease in accounts receivable $30Decrease in prepaid insurance $5Increase in salaries payable $23Increase in utilities payable $7Increase in inventory ($135)Increase in prepaid rent ($7)Decrease in accounts payable ($50)            $1,173

Net cash flow provided by operating activities   $7,673

Explanation:

Net Income $6,650

Depreciation Expense $1,300

                                          ending           beginning

Accounts Receivable        $570                $600

Inventory                            $820                $685

Accounts Payable             $430                $480

Prepaid Rent                        $29                  $22

Prepaid Insurance               $27                   $32

Salaries Payable                  $66                  $43

Utilities Payable                   $24                   $17

At the beginning of the current year, both Doug and Amelia each own 50% of Amaryllis Corporation (a calendar year taxpayer). In July, Doug sold his stock to Kevin for $140,000. At the beginning of the year, Amaryllis Corporation had accumulated E& P of $240,000 and its current E & P is $280,000 (prior to any distributions). Amaryllis distributed $300,000 on February 15 ($150,000 to Doug and $150,000 to Alfred) and distributed another $300,000 on November 1 ($150,000 to Kevin and $150,000 to Alfred). Kevin has dividend income of:_______

a. $150,000.b. $140,000.c. $110,000.d. $70,000.e. None of the above.

Answers

Answer:

Kevin has dividend income of:_______

a. $150,000.

Explanation:

Kevin became a 50% shareholder of Amaryllis in July.  So, Kevin is entitled to receive 50% of any distributions made by Amaryllis from the July date.  Since Amaryllis distributed $300,000 on November 1, Kevin will receive a dividend income equivalent to $150,000 from Amaryllis.  The remaining 50% goes to his partner in business.  Kevin could not be entitled to the distribution made on February 15, by which date he was not yet a shareholder of Amaryllis.

E-tailers, such as Amazon and Expedia, that sell products and services directly to final buyers exclusively over the Internet are known as ________.

Answers

Answer:

E-tailers

Explanation:

E-tailers are also known as e-retailers. Where you can purchase things via the internet.

Glad I could help you!

Determine the value-added, non-value-added, and total lead times, and the value-added ratio under the present and proposed production approaches. If required, round percentages to one decimal place. Present Approach Proposed Approach Value-added time 23 min 23 min Non-value-added time 1,582 min 105 min Total lead time 1,605 min 1,605 min Value-added ratio (as a percent) 14 % 21 %

Answers

Answer:

Hello some parts of your question is missing attached below is the missing part

Answer : value added times : 30 minutes , 30 minutes

               non-value added times: 1210 minutes, 130 minutes

               Total lead times : 1240 minutes,  160 minutes

               value added time as a ratio: 2.4%, 18.8%

Explanation:

Given data:

production batch sizes = 40 units

process step 1 = 6 minutes

process step 2 = 10 minutes

process step 3 = 6 minutes

process step 4 = 8 minutes

Determining : The value added, non-value added , total lead times and value added ratio under the present and proposed production approaches

UNDER PRESENT PRODUCTION APPROACH

Th value added time:

= summation of all process times = (6+10+6+8) = 30 minutes

Non-value added time:

=  Value added time *(Batch size -1) + move time between each step

= 30*39+8*5

= 1170 +40 = 1210 minutes

total lead time :

= value added time + non-value added time

= 30 + 1210 = 1240 minutes

value added time as a percentage/ratio

(value added time / total lead time) * 100

= 30 / 1240 * 100 = 2.4%

UNDER PROPOSED PRODUCTION APPROACH

value added time :

= summation of all process times = (6+10+6+8) = 30 minutes

Non-value added time :

=  Value added time *(Batch size -1) +  time between each step

= 30*4+2*5 = 120 + 10 = 130 mins

total lead time :

= value added time + non-value added time  = 30 +130 = 160 mins

value added time as a percentage/ratio:

(value added time / total lead time ) * 100

= (30 / 160) * 100 = 18.8%

Suppose that hypothetically there are only two countries in the world: Japan and South Korea Now suppose that at the end of year 2, Japan has positive net exports of $20 billion against South Korea. In addition, Japan has earned $1 billion in interest from its South Korean assets over the course of year 2. Question: What are the respective balances for the current account, and the financial and capital account for Japan at the end of year 2

Answers

Answer:

i) $21 billion

ii) $0

iii) $0

Explanation:

GIVEN DATA : ( two countries )

At the end of year 2

net exports = $20 billion for Japan

Interest earned from assets = $1 billion  for Japan

i) The balances for the current account for Japan

export value + interest earned from assets

= $20 billion + $1 billion = $21 billion

ii) Financial account for Japan

Financial account for Japan will be zero because there is no increase or decrease in number of  its assets within the given period

iii) capital account for Japan

Capital account of Japan will will have a zero balance. this is because Capital account is used to record  foreign investments, local  investment and the reserve account as well. and there was no investment captured within the given time that was made by Japan

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