Answer:
Operating Activity
Explanation:
The Indirect method, reconciles the Operating Profit to the Operating Cash Flow by adjusting the following items (1) Non Cash flow items previously added or deducted from Operating Profit and (2) Changes in Working Capital items.
Amortization of bond premium is an item of non-cash flow that was previously deducted from Operating Profit and needs to be added back.
In September 2009 a U.S. investor chooses to invest $500,000 in German equity securities at a then current spot rate of $1.30/euro. At the end of one year the spot rate is $1.35/euro.
1. Refer to Instruction, how many euros will the U.S. investor acquire with his initial $500,000 investment?
A) €650,000B) €370,370C) €500,000D) €384,6152. Refer to Instruction, at an average price of €60/share, how many shares of stock will the investor be able to purchase?A) 8333 sharesB) 6410 sharesC) 6173 sharesD) 10,833 shares3. Refer to Instruction, at the end of the year the investor sells his stock that now has an average price per share of €57. What is the investor's average rate of return before converting the stock back into dollars?A) 5.0%B) -3.0%C) -5.0%D) 3.0%
4. Refer to Instruction, at the end of the year the investor sells his stock that now has an average price per share of €57. What is the investor's average rate of return after converting the stock back into dollars?A) -1.35%B) 5.0%C) -5.0%D) -7.24%
Answer:
1. Refer to Instruction, how many euros will the U.S. investor acquire with his initial $500,000 investment?
D) €384,615$500,000 / $1.30 = €384,615.38
2. Refer to Instruction, at an average price of €60/share, how many shares of stock will the investor be able to purchase?
B) 6410 shares€384,615 / €60 = 6,410.25
3. Refer to Instruction, at the end of the year the investor sells his stock that now has an average price per share of €57. What is the investor's average rate of return before converting the stock back into dollars?
C) -5.0%(€57 - €60) / €60 = -5%
4. Refer to Instruction, at the end of the year the investor sells his stock that now has an average price per share of €57. What is the investor's average rate of return after converting the stock back into dollars?
A) -1.35%[(6,410 x €57) + €15] x $1.35 = $493,269.75
($493,269.75 - $500,000) / $500,000 = -1.35%
"A customer has an existing margin account and wants to write five covered calls against 500 shares of stock in the account. The margin requirement to write the calls is:"
Answer: 0
Explanation: The sale of the stock call, would be covered by the ownership of the stock ( someone who owns the said stock). The required margin needed to sell the stock would be ‘0’ since there is no evidence that points to any available risks on the short calls. as short calls helps to predict of prices would drop or not.
Pharoah Company has a factory machine with a book value of $90,800 and a remaining useful life of 7 years. It can be sold for $27,200. A new machine is available at a cost of $407,400. This machine will have a 7-year useful life with no salvage value. The new machine will lower annual variable manufacturing costs from $640,100 to $581,800. Prepare an analysis showing whether the old machine should be retained or replaced. (In the first two columns, enter costs and expenses as positive amounts, and any amounts received as negative amounts. In the third column, enter net income increases as positive amounts and decreases as negative amounts. Enter negative amounts using either a negative sign preceding the number e.g. -45 or parentheses e.g. (45).)
Answer:
Analysis of Total cost over the period of 7 years
Retain Old Buy New Total
1.Variable Operating Cost $640,100 $581,800 ($58,300)
2.Old Machine Book Value
Retain; Annual Depreciation $12,971 $0 ( $12,971)
Replace: Lump sum Written Off $0 $90,800 $90,800
3.Old Machine Disposal Value $0 ($27,200) ($27,200)
4.Initial Purchase Cost New $0 $407,400 $407,400
Total Cost $653,071 $1052,800 $399,729
Explanation:
Replacement of Machine is a Capital Investment or Long term decision.One aspect of asset replacement is how to deal with book value (written down value) of old equipment.
Child Play Inc. manufactures electronic toys within a relevant range of 20,000 to 150,000 toys per year. Within this range, the following partially completed manufacturing cost schedule has been prepared: Complete the cost schedule. When computing the cost per unit, round to two decimal places.
Toys produced 40,000 80,000 120,000
Total costs:
Total variable costs $720,000 d. $ j. $
Total fixed costs 600,000 e. k.
Total costs $1,320,000 f. $ l. $
Cost per Unit
Variable cost per unit a. $ g. $ m. $
Fixed cost per unit b. h. n.
Total cost per unit c. $ i. $ o. $
Answer:
Toys produced 40,000 80,000 120,000
Total costs:
Total variable costs $720,000 $1,440,000 $2,160,000
Total fixed costs $600,000 $600,000 $600,000
Total costs $1,320,000 $2,040,000 $2,760,000
Cost per Unit
Variable cost $18 $18 $18
Fixed cost $15 $7.50 $5
Total cost $33 $25.50 $23
Fixed costs do not change with total output, they are the same regardless so the number of units produced. Variable costs change proportionally to any change in total output. If total output increases, variable costs will increase.
Tony Hawk's Adventure (THA) issued callable bonds on January 1, 2021. THA's accountant has projected the following amortization schedule from issuance until maturity: Date Cash Paid Interest Expense Increase in Carrying Value Carrying Value 01/01/2021 $ 189,516 06/30/2021 $ 6,000 $ 7,581 $ 1,581 191,097 12/31/2021 6,000 7,644 1,644 192,741 06/30/2022 6,000 7,710 1,710 194,451 12/31/2022 6,000 7,778 1,778 196,229 06/30/2023 6,000 7,849 1,849 198,078 12/31/2023 6,000 7,922 1,922 200,000 What is the annual market interest rate on the bonds
Answer:
8%
Explanation:
Calculation for the annual market interest rate on the bonds
Using this formula
Annual market interest rate=(Interest expenses/Carrying value)× 2 payments per year
Where,
06/30/2021 Interest expenses=$7,581
01/01/2021 Carrying value =$189,516
Let plug in the formula
Annual market interest rate=
($7,581/ $189,516)×2 payments per year
Annual market interest rate=0.04×2 payments per year
Annual market interest rate=0.08×100
Annual market interest rate=8%
Therefore the the annual market interest rate on the bonds will be 8%
Skolits Corp. has a cost of equity of 11.1 percent and an aftertax cost of debt of 4.65 percent. The company's balance sheet lists long-term debt of $375,000 and equity of $635,000. The company's bonds sell for 105.5 percent of par and market-to-book ratio is 3.01 times. If the company's tax rate is 35 percent, what is the WACC
Answer:
The WACC is 8.71%.
Explanation:
The weighted average cost of capital (WACC) is simply the average rate a firm is expected to pay as cost financing its assets to those who hold its securities.
The WACC can be computed as follows:
Total debt and equity = Debt + Equity = $375,000 + $635,000 = $1,010,000
WE = Weight of equity = Equity / Total debt and equity = $635,000 / $1,010,000 = 0.63, or 63%
WD = Weight of equity = Debt / Total debt and equity = $375,000 / $1,010,000 = 0.37, or 37%
CE = Cost of equity = 11.1%
ACD = After tax cost of debt = 4.65%
Therefore, we have:
WACC = (WE * CE) + (WD * ACD) = (63% * 11.1%) + (37% * 4.65%) = 6.99% + 1.72% = 8.71%
Therefore, the WACC is 8.71%.
Suppose the Baseball Hall of Fame in Cooperstown, New York, has approached World Wide Cards with a special order. The Hall of Fame wants to purchase 51,000 baseball card packs for a special promotional campaign and offers $0.33 per pack, a total of $16,830. World Wide Cards's total production cost is $0.53 per pack, as follows:Variable costs: Direct materials $0.13Direct labor 0.04Variable overhead 0.11Fixed overhead 0.25Total cost $0.53World Wide Cards has enough excess capacity to handle the special order. Required:Prepare an incremental analysis to determine whether World Wide Cards should accept the special sales order assuming fixed operating income from the special order.b. Now assume that the Hall of Fame wants special hologram baseball cards. World Wide Cards will spend $5,000 to develop this hologram, which will be useless after the special order is completed. Should World Wide Cards accept the special order under these circumstances, assuming no change in the special pricing of $0.33 per pack?
Answer:
I don't no friend this type of questions
The'Great Deregulation Experiment is something that has characterized USA markets for many decades now. It is a response to a period of significant price regulation. But, there was a recognition that markets were stalling and markets need to be deregulated.
Review the selections below and choose the one which does not characterize an effect of the Great Deregulation Experiment.
a) Deregulation had very little impact on entries and exits in the industry market.
b) It involved the airline, railroad, trucking, bus travel, natural gas, and banking industries.
c) The government removed government controls over prices and quantities produced in a variety of industries.
d) Deregulation is the removal of government controls over prices and quantities produced
Answer:
Correct Answer:
a) Deregulation had very little impact on entries and exits in the industry market.
Explanation:
In the 1970's, it became clear to policymakers of all political leanings that the existing price regulation on goods and services in United States of America was not working well. And to solve this problem, The United States carried out a great policy experiment—the deregulation, which is the removal of government controls over prices and quantities produced in airlines, railroads, trucking, intercity bus travel, natural gas, and bank interest rates. One of the effect was its great impact on the entry and exits in industry markets.
In the long run, when the government does nothing, the output in the economy will be $ billion and the price level will be________-
A company reports merchandise inventory on December 31 at $250,000 but LCM applied to items is $200,000. Record the journal entry to report merchandise inventory at the correct amount:
Answer:
The adjusting journal will be :
Loss on write down of Inventory $50,000 (debit)
Inventory $50,000 (credit)
Explanation:
The inventory must be presented at the Lower of Cost and Market Value.
The adjusting journal will be :
Loss on write down of Inventory $50,000 (debit)
Inventory $50,000 (credit)
The Loss on write down of Inventory is an expense in the trading account.
Answer:
See journal below
Explanation:
The journal entries below will be recorded in the books of account in order to report the merchandise inventory at the correct amount.
The cost of goods sold account Dr $50,000
($250,000 - $200,000)
To merchandise inventory account Cr $50,000
(Being record of inventory on LCM)
The cost of goods sold was debited with $50,000 while same amount was credited to merchandise inventory account.
A stock has an expected return of 10.8 percent, the risk-free rate is 4 percent, and the market risk premium is 5 percent. What must the beta of this stock be? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answer to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.)
Answer:
β = 1.36
Explanation:
Expected return = Rf+β×Rp
Rf is risk free return
Rp is risk premium
β is Beta
10.8% = 4%+β×5%
5*β= 10.8% - 4%
β = 6.8%/5%
β = 1.36
Hence, the Beta of this stock = 1.36
Harris Co. is considering a 12-year project that is estimated to cost $900,000 and has no residual value. Harris seeks to earn an average rate of return of 15% on all capital projects. Determine the necessary average annual income (using straight-line depreciation) that must be achieved on this project for it to be acceptable to Harris Co.
Answer:
annual income = $70,292.52
Explanation:
initial outlay $900,000
in order to determine the net cash flows per year we can use the present value of an ordinary annuity:
PV = annual cash flow x annuity factor
PV = $900,000 annuity factor, 15%, 12 years = 6.1944annual cash flow = $900,000 / 6.1944 = $145,292.52
annual cash flow = [(revenue - operating costs - depreciation) x (1 - tax rate)] + depreciation
revenue - operating costs - depreciation = annual incometax rate = 0?depreciation = $900,000 / 12 = $75,000$145,292.52 = annual income + $75,000
annual income = $145,292.52 - $75,000 = $70,292.52
World Class Rings produces class rings. Its best-selling model has a direct materials standard of 16 grams of a special alloy per ring. This special alloy has a standard cost of $63.30 per gram. In the past month, the company purchased 16,800 grams of this alloy at a total cost of $1,061,760. A total of 16,300 grams were used last month to produce 1,000 rings.
Requirements:
1. What is the actual cost per gram of the special alloy that World Class Rings purchased last month? (Round your answer to the nearest cent.) The actual cost per gram of the special alloy that World Class Rings purchased last month is $_____.
2. What is the direct material price variance? (Abbreviations used: DM = Direct materials) Begin by determining the formula for the price variance, then compute the price variance for direct materials.
3.·What is the direct material quantity variance? (Abbreviations used: DM = Direct materials) Determine the formula for the quantity variance, then compute the quantity variance for direct materials.
4. How might the direct material price variance for the company last month be causing the direct material quantity variance?
The_____direct material price variance might mean that World Class Rings purchased a______. As a result, the company______quantity (efficiency) variance alloy than the standard allows. This accounts for the_____quantity (efficiency) variance.
Answer:
1. What is the actual cost per gram of the special alloy that World Class Rings purchased last month? (Round your answer to the nearest cent.) The actual cost per gram of the special alloy that World Class Rings purchased last month is $_____.
= $1,061,760 / 16,800 grams = $63.20 per gram
2. What is the direct material price variance? (Abbreviations used: DM = Direct materials) Begin by determining the formula for the price variance, then compute the price variance for direct materials.
direct materials price variance = (AP - SP) x AQ = ($63.20 - $63.30) x 16,300 = -$1,630 favorable variance
3.·What is the direct material quantity variance? (Abbreviations used: DM = Direct materials) Determine the formula for the quantity variance, then compute the quantity variance for direct materials.
direct materials quantity variance = SP x (AQ - SQ) = $63.30 x (16,300 - 16,000) = $18,990 unfavorable variance
4. How might the direct material price variance for the company last month be causing the direct material quantity variance?
The FAVORABLE direct material price variance might mean that World Class Rings purchased a LOWER QUALITY MATERIAL. As a result, the company USED MORE ALLOW THAN STANDARD quantity (efficiency) variance alloy than the standard allows. This accounts for the UNFAVORABLE quantity (efficiency) variance.
Stine Inc. had 1,000,000 shares of common stock issued and outstanding at December 31, 2020. On July 1, 2021 an additional 1,000,000 shares were issued for cash. Stine also had stock options outstanding at the beginning and end of 2021 which allow the holders to purchase 300,000 shares of common stock at $28 per share. The average market price of Stine's common stock was $35 during 2021. The number of shares to be used in computing diluted earnings per share for 2021 is
The number of shares to be used in computing diluted earnings per share for 2021 is 1,560,000
Diluted earnings per share=(1,000,000* 6/12) + (2,000,000 *6/12) + [((35 – 28) ÷35) *300,000]
Diluted earnings per share=500,000+1,000,000+60,000
Diluted earnings per share= 1,560,000
Therefore The number of shares to be used in computing diluted earnings per share for 2021 is 1,560,000
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On January 31, 2021, B Corp. issued $650,000 face value, 11% bonds for $650,000 cash. The bonds are dated December 31, 2020, and mature on December 31, 2030. Interest will be paid semiannually on June 30 and December 31. What amount of accrued interest payable should B report in its September 30, 2021, balance sheet
Answer:
The amount of accrued interest payable that B should report in its September 30, 2021, balance sheet is $ 23,833.
Explanation:
Prepare a Bond Amortization Schedule using the data :
Hint : First find the Yield to Maturity
N = 10
PV = $650,000
Pmt = ($650,000 × 11%) ÷ 2 = - $35,750
P/ yr = 2
FV = - $650,000
YTM = ?
Using a Financial Calculator, the YTM is 11.64%.
By the end of September 30, 2021, 8 months` interest will have expired.Thus the amortization schedule should accrue interest for 8 months as follows :
Interest $ 23,833 (debit)
Investment in Bond $ 23,833 (credit)
Interest Calculation = $ 35,750 × 8 / 12
= $ 23,833
What is the yield to maturity on a bond that pays annual coupon rate of 14%, has a par value of $1,000, matures in 10 years, and is selling for $911?
Answer:
Yield to Maturity =15.6%
Explanation:
The Yield to maturity is the discount rate that equates then price of the bonds to the present of cash inflows expected from the bond
The yield on the bond can be determined as follows using the formula below:
YM = C + F-P/n) ÷ 1/2 (F+P)
YM-Yield to maturity-
C- annual coupon
F- Face Value
P- Current Price
n- number of years
DATA
Coupon = coupon rate × Nominal value = 1,000 × 14%=140
Face Value = 1000
YM-?, C- 140, Face Value - 1,000, P-911 , n- 10
YM = (140 + (1000-911)/10) ÷ ( 1/2× (1000 + 911) )
YM = 0.156 × 100 = 15.6%
Yield to Maturity =15.6%
What is International trade also list the importance of International trade.
Answer:
International trade is buying and selling goods and services across international boundaries. International trade plays a very good role in economic activities and performance of countries around the world. International trade benefit countries in many ways: 1- increasing in production and consumption as a result of specialization, 2- greater choices for consumers due to the competition between traders to get the best choice for consumers. 3- lower prices 4- trade is great source for the flow of service and technology. International trade is the engine of growth.
According to the lecture video on building dynamic charts, which of the following Excel functions are used in the "Refers to:" formula in Name Manager?
A) SUMIF
B) COUNTIF
C) OFFSET
D) COUNT
Answer:
OFFSET
COUNT
Explanation:
two options are correct, select both.
Answer:
Option C and D are correct
Explanation:
OFFSET - From a cell or a range of cells, returns a reference to a range with a specified number of rows and columns.
COUNT - To determine the number of entries in a number field that is part of a range or array of values, use the COUNT function.
On January 1, 2017, Crane Company decided to begin accumulating a fund for asset replacement five years later. The company plans to make five annual deposits of $64000 at 10% each January 1 beginning in 2017. What will be the balance in the fund, on January 1, 2022 (one year after the last deposit)
Answer:
Balance in the account on January 1, 2022 =$820,525.44
Explanation:
Ordinary annuity is that in which the annual cash flow occurs at the end of each year for certain number of years.
Where the cash flow occurs at the beginning of the period, it is known as annuity due. The deposit scheme decided by Crane Company is annuity due, so we would need to work out the future value of an annuity due as follows:
Future Value of Annuity Due (FVAD): This represents the total sum that would accrue where the annual cash flow( each occurring at the beginning of the year) is compounded at a particular rate. It can be determined as
FV = A×( (1+r)^n - 1)/r)× (1+r)
This is the same formula as the ordinary annuity but with an additional provision for the the first cash flow to earn interest. This is effected by multiplying the ordinary annuity formula with (1+r)
Now, we can apply this formula to our question:
DATA
A-cash flow- 64,000
r- discount rate-10%
n-number of years- 5
FV = 64,000 × ( 1.1^5 - 1)/0.05 × 1.05 = 820,525.44
FV = 820,525.44
Balance in the account on January 1, 2022 =820,525.44
Given the following data: Average operating assets $ 504,000 Total liabilities $ 23,520 Sales $ 168,000 Contribution margin $ 85,680 Net operating income $ 45,360 Return on investment (ROI) is:
Answer:
9%
Explanation:
According to the given situation, the solution of return on investment is shown below:-
Return on investment = (Net operating income ÷ Average operating assets) × 100
now, we will put the values into the above formula
= ($45,360 ÷ $504,000) × 100
= 0.09 × 100
= 9%
Therefore for computing the return on investment we simply applied the above formula.
Which of the following items would be a way to manipulate the cash flow from operating activities amount on the statement of cash flows?
a.
Adding depreciation back to net income to determine cash flow from operating activities.
b.
Including interest expense and tax expense in the calculation of cash flow from operating activities.
c.
Recording an item that should be recorded as an operating activity as an investing activity.
d.
The cash flow statement cannot be manipulated.
Answer:
C. Recording an item that should be recorded as an operating activity as an investing activity.
Explanation:
Hope it helped
Suppose the benefit of owning a painting, in terms of your personal enjoyment, is worth 5% of the value of the painting. If the expected rate of return on stocks is 7%, then the painting should grow in value by _________ per year.
Answer:
7%
Explanation:
It would grow by 7% each year which is the rate of return on stocks
Since the expected rate of return is 7%, then, the painting should grow in value by 2% per year.
Given Information
Expected rate of return = 7%
Present rate of return = 5%
Growth rate = Expected rate of return - Present rate of return
Growth rate = 7% - 5%
Growth rate = 2%
In conclusion, the painting should grow in value by 2% per year.
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Company A has 800 employees, and it decides to grant each of the employees 50 share options as part of its new rewards plan. The options are exercisable over 5 years and subject to a 3-year service condition. The fair value of each option at the grant date is $16. The company estimates that 80% of its employees will meet the service condition required for receiving the options. Calculate the total share-based payment expense for Company A assuming that 80% of the employees actually meet the service condition.
Review Later
$853,333
$170,667
$512,000
$341,333
Answer:
$512,000
Explanation:
Because the service condition is 3 years, the total share-based payment expense will be recognized over 3 years. The expense recognized in each year is calculated as:
Year 1 = 50 options x 800 employees x 80% x $16 x 1/3 years = $170,667
Year 2 = 50 options x 800 employees x 80% x $16 x 2/3 years - $170,667 = $170,667
Year 3 = 50 options x 800 employees x 80% x $16 x 3/3 years - $170,667 x 2 = $170,667
Total share-based payment expense = $170,667 + $170,667 + $170,667 = $512,000
Window Dressing causes which kind of entry (may have more than one answer)? Multiple Choice Transaction Adjusting Closing
Answer:
Window Dressing causes Adjusting and Closing entries.
Explanation:
Window Dressing the alteration of financial performance near the year-end to appear as if performance has improved. To make the window dressing entry, some temporary and permanent accounts will be adjusted, especially Sales Revenue and costs to generate paper profits. These adjusting entries are closed to the Income Summary. The permanent accounts which are temporarily closed to the Balance Sheet for the period will also require some adjusting entries.
An organizationally-driven reason for outsourcing is that it can improve effectiveness by focusing on what the firm does best.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Outsourcing is when a company gives some of its internal activities to an external party that takes the responsibility to get things done and one of the reasons for a company to do this is to get rid of activities that have to get done but that are not part of their core operations to be able to concentrate on their main activity and get those things done by experts which can help increase productivity. According to that, the answer is that the statement is true.
IP Company pays for purchases of materials in full in the month following the purchase. During the previous month, IP had purchases of $25,000. During the current month, IP had purchases of $30,000. The amount that I will pay during the current month for purchases is:________
Answer:
The correct answer is "$25,000".
Explanation:
The given values are:
IP purchase during the previous month
= $25,000
IP purchases during the current month
= $30,000
As the sum is charged in the corresponding sales month, IP must compensate for the transaction made mostly during the reporting period throughout the previous quarter.
Therefore the quantity IP will be paying for purchasing mostly during the reporting period seems to be $25,000.
Fowler, Inc., just paid a dividend of $2.70 per share on its stock. The dividends are expected to grow at a constant rate of 4.5 percent per year, indefinitely. Assume investors require a return of 9 percent on this stock. a. What is the current price? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answer to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.) b. What will the price be in six years and in thirteen years? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answers to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.)
Answer:
Fowler, Inc.a. Current price = Current Dividend/r - g
where r = Required Rate of Return
and g = growth rate
= $2.70/0.09 - 0.045
= $2.70/0.045
= $60
b. The price in six years' time, growing at 4.5%
= Current price x (1 + g)^6
= $60 x 1.30226
= $78.14
c. The price in thirteen years' time, growing at 4.5%
= $60 x 1.772196
= $106.33
Explanation:
a) Data and Calculations:
Current Dividend = $2.70
Dividends' constant growth rate = 4.5% p.a. indefinitely
Investors' required rate of return = 9%
Fowler, Inc.'s stock prices calculated using the dividend, growth rate, and investors required rate of return gives the intrinsic values of the stock for the current year, in six and thirteen years' time. The intrinsic value calculation eliminates the need to value the stock subjectively.
Yasmin Co. can further process Product B to produce Product C. Product B is currently selling for $33 per pound and costs $28 per pound to produce. Product C would sell for $58 per pound and would require an additional cost of $25 per pound to produce. What is the differential cost of producing Product C?
Answer:
Differential cost is $0
Explanation:
A company should process further a product if the additional revenue from the split-off point is greater than than the further processing cost.
Additional sales revenue = Sales revenue after further processing - sales revenue after split-off point
. A company should process further a product if the additional revenue from the split-off point is greater than than the further processing cost.
Also note that all cost incurred up to the split-off point are irrelevant to the decision to process further .
$
Sales after split off point (Product C) 58
Sales at the split off point (Product B) 33
Additional sales revenue 25
Further processing cost (25)
Differential cost 0
Differential cost is $0
On December 18, 2017, Stephanie Corporation acquired 100 percent of a Swiss company for 4.0 million Swiss francs (CHF), which is indicative of book and fair value. At the acquisition date, the exchange rate was $1.00 = CHF 1. On December 18, 2017, the book and fair values of the subsidiary’s assets and liabilities were:
Cash CHF 814,000
Inventory 1,314,000
Property, plant & equipment 4,014,000
Notes payable 2,128,000
Stephanie prepares consolidated financial statements on December 31, 2017. By that date, the Swiss franc has appreciated to $1.10 = CHF 1. Because of the year-end holidays, no transactions took place prior to consolidation.
Required:
a. Determine the translation adjustment to be reported on Stephanie’s December 31, 2017, consolidated balance sheet, assuming that the Swiss franc is the Swiss subsidiary’s functional currency. What is the economic relevance of this translation adjustment?
b. Determine the remeasurement gain or loss to be reported in Stephanie’s 2017 consolidated net income, assuming that the U.S. dollar is the functional currency. What is the economic relevance of this remeasurement gain or loss?
Answer:
a. Translation adjustment = $401,400
b. Remeasurement loss = –$131,400
Explanation:
a. Determine the translation adjustment to be reported on Stephanie’s December 31, 2017, consolidated balance sheet, assuming that the Swiss franc is the Swiss subsidiary’s functional currency. What is the economic relevance of this translation adjustment?
This can determined as follows:
Step 1: Calculation of beginning net asset in
Particular Amount (CHF)
Cash CHF 814,000
Inventory 1,314,000
Property, plant & equipment 4,014,000
Notes payable (2,128,000)
Beginning net asset 4,014,000
Beginning net asset in USD = Beginning net asset in Swiss francs (CHF) * Beginning exchange rate = CHF4.014,000 * $1 = $4,014,000
Step 2: Calculation of ending net asset
Ending net asset in USD = Beginning net asset in Swiss francs (CHF) * Ending exchange rate = CHF4.014,000 * $1.10 = $4,415,400
Step 3: Calculation translation adjustment
Translation adjustment = Ending net asset in USD - Beginning net asset in USD = $4,415,400 - $4,014,000 = $401,400
Economic relevance of this translation adjustment
The positive translation adjustment implies that the equity of stockholders has increased by $401,000.
We obtained a positive value because the net position of the subsidiary in Switzerland is CHF4,014,000 and there was a Swiss franc appreciation of $0.10 (i.e. $1.10 - $1.00 = $0.10).
The translation adjustment of $401,000 does not however implies that it was made as a dollar cash flow. The only condition that can make to turn to a profit is if this operation is sold at CHF4,014,000 on December 31 and the amount realized as a proceed is changed to dollars at ruling exchange rate of $1.10 to a Swiss franc on December 31, 2017.
b. Determine the remeasurement gain or loss to be reported in Stephanie’s 2017 consolidated net income, assuming that the U.S. dollar is the functional currency. What is the economic relevance of this remeasurement gain or loss?
This can be determined as follows:
Beginning net liabilities in Swiss franc = Cash - Note payable = CHF814,000 - CHF2,128,000 = –CHF1,314,000
Beginning net liabilities in USD = Beginning net liabilities in Swiss franc * Beginning exchange rate = –CHF1,314,000 * $1.00 = –$1,314,000
Ending net liabilities in USD = Beginning net liabilities in Swiss franc * Ending exchange rate = –CHF1,314,000 * $1.10 = –$1,445,400
Remeasurement loss = Ending net liabilities in USD – Beginning net liabilities in USD = [–$1,445,400] – [–$1,314,000] = –$131,400
Economic relevance of this remeasurement gain or loss
There is a negative remeasurement or remeasurement lost because the net monetary liability position of the Swiss subsidiary is CHF 1,314,000. The appreciation of the Swiss franc by $0.10 results in a loss of $131,400] that not is unrealized.
The readjustment loss of $131,400 does not however implies that it was a dollar cash outflow. The only condition that can make it to turn to a loss is if this operation is sold on December 31. This will lead to the realization of a transaction gain of $81,400 [i.e. CHF814,000 x ($1.10 - $1.00)].
Also, the Swiss franc note payable will be paid off by using the US dollar. This will bring about the realization of a truncation loss of $212,800 [i.e. CHF2,128,000 x ($1.10 - $1.00)].
BPO Services is in the business of digitizing information from forms that are filled out by hand. In 2006, a big client gave BPO a distribution of the forms that it digitized in house last year, and BPO estimated how much it would cost to digitize each form.
Form Type Mix of Forms Form Cost
A 0.2 $0.40
B 0.2 $0.20
C 0.2 $0.20
D 0.2 $0.80
E 0.2 $0.40
a. The expected cost of digitizing a form is $_______ .
b. Suppose that after the agreement, the client sends an equal mix of forms of types D and E only. The expected digitization cost per form of the forms sent by the client is $________ . This leads to an expected loss of $_______ per form for BPO.