the lines on a 2 cup liquid measuring cup divide each cup into eighths. if you measure 1 3/4 cups of water between which two quantities can you be certain the exact measurement will be?

Answer:

See below.

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\cos(20)-\sin(20)=\sqrt{2}\sin(25)[/tex]

First, use the co-function identity:

[tex]\sin(90-x)=\cos(x)[/tex]

We can turn the second term into cosine:

[tex]\sin(20)=\sin(90-70)=\cos(70)[/tex]

Substitute:

[tex]\cos(20)-\cos(70)=\sqrt{2}\sin(25)[/tex]

Now, use the sum to product formulas. We will use the following:

[tex]\cos(x)-\cos(y)=-2\sin(\frac{x+y}{2})\sin(\frac{x-y}{2})[/tex]

Substitute:

[tex]\cos(20)-\cos(70)=-2\sin(\frac{20+70}{2})\sin(\frac{20-70}{2})\\\cos(20)-\cos(70) =-2\sin(45)\sin(-25)\\\cos(20)-\cos(70)=-2(\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2})\sin(-25)\\ \cos(20)-\cos(70)=-\sqrt{2}\sin(-25)[/tex]

Use the even-odd identity:

[tex]\sin(-x)=-\sin(x)[/tex]

Therefore:

[tex]\cos(20)-\cos(70)=-\sqrt{2}\sin(-25)\\\cos(20)-\cos(70)=-\sqrt{2}\cdot-\sin(25)\\\cos(20)-\cos(70)=\sqrt{2}\sin(25)[/tex]

Replace the second term with the original term:

[tex]\cos(20)-\sin(20)=\sqrt{2}\sin(25)[/tex]

Proof complete.

Answer:

$40.00, $30.00, B

Step-by-step explanation:

We can first write an expression for the cost of each plan.

Given x amount of texts and y amount of minutes, plan A costs 15 cents per text sent (so given x amount of texts, plan A costs 15 * x for texts) and 10 cents per minute (so given y amount of minutes, plan A costs 10 * y for minutes). Adding these up, plan A costs 15 * x + 10 * y. Plugging Jaden's 200 texts in for x and 100 minutes in for y, we have

15 * x + 10 * y = 15 * 200 + 10 * 100 = 4000 cents. 100 cents = 1 dollar, and the conversion rate for cents to dollars is divide by 100, so we divide 4000 cents by 100 to get $40.00 as the cost for plan A

For plan B, the flat rate is 15 dollars. To convert from dollars to cents, we multiply by 100, so 15 * 100 = 1500 cents for the flat fee.

Texts cost 5 cents per text, so 5 * x is the cost for texts in cents for plan B. Similarly, 5 * y is the cost for minutes in cents for plan B. Adding these up, we get

1500 + 5 * x + 5 * y

combine like terms

1500 + 5 * (x+y)

plug 200 in for x and 100 in for y

1500 + 5 * (200+100)

1500 + 5 * (300)

1500 + 1500

3000

divide by 100 to convert to dollars

$30.00 is the cost for plan B

$30 < $40, so plan B will be cheaper for Jaden

Answer:

EFGH ~ IJKL

Step-by-step explanation:

There sides are both parallel.

Hope this helped you :)

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

7x - 21 + 12 - 3x = -8

4x - 9 = -8

4x = 1

x = 1/4

Answer:

x= 0.25, or x=1/4

Step-by-step explanation:

First, use the distributive property and multiply 7 within the parenthesis:

7x -21

Next, use the distributive property again, and multiply 3 within the parenthesis:

12 -3x

Combine Like terms: 7x - 21 + 12 - 3x

4x - 9

Add 9 to both sides: 4x - 9 = -8

-8 + 9 = 1

Divide 4 by both sides: 4x = 1

1 / 4 = .25 or 1/4

Answer:

ab=9

Step-by-step explanation:

AB=BC

2X+31=20+X

X=-11

ab= 20+(-11)

= 9

bc= 2(-11) +31

=9

ab+bc= ac

9+9=18

Answer:

I think the perimeter is 50cm the solids is 600cm³

Step-by-step explanation:

Perimeter: (5×10)=50cm

Solids: divided with 2box(A box & B box)

Abox: 5cm x 5cm x 12cm

=300cm³

Bbox: 5cm x 12cm x 5cm

=300cm³

Solids:(Abox +Bbox) 300cm³ + 300cm³

=600cm³

I think, I'm sorry if it's wrong

Answer:

SID WILL FINISH FIRST

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\frac{2}{3}[/tex] ÷ [tex]\frac{1}{6} =[/tex]

[tex]\frac{2}{3}[/tex] * [tex]\frac{6}{1} =[/tex] = 12/3 = 4

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

[tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex] ÷ [tex]\frac{1}{9} =[/tex]

[tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex] * [tex]\frac{9}{1} =[/tex] = 9/3 = 3

Answer:

A dodecahedron has 12 faces

Answer:

Answer is

Step-by-step explanation:

A dodecahedron has 12 faces.

Hope this helps....

Have a nice day!!!!

Answer: Infinitely many solutions

Step-by-step explanation:

There are many solutions because the lines lies on top of each other.

i dont know the exact answer but its not  

One solution

Two solutions

so its most likely

Infinitely many solutions

Answer:

93km/hr

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the formula Speed = Distance/Time. From the formula we can substitute for time as shown;

Time = Distance/Speed

Let the distance and speed  travelled by Mia be Dm ans Ds respectively

Distance travelled by Kirk be Km and and Ks respective.

Time taken be Mia to travel Tm = Dm/Sm

Time taken be Kirk to travel Tk = Dk/Sk

Since it takes the same length of time for both of them to travel, then Tm = Tk. Hence Dm/Sm = Dk/Sk

Given parameters

Dm = 558 kilometers

Dk = 522 kilometres

If Mia’s average driving speed is 6 kilometers per hour faster than Kirk’s, then Mia's driving speed Sm = 6 + Sk

Required

Mia’s average speed (Sm)

Since Dm/Sm = Dk/Sk

Substituting the given values to get Sk first we have;

558/6+Sk = 522/Sk

Cross multiply

558Sk = 522(6+Sk)

open the parenthesis

558Sk = 3132 + 522SK

558Sk-522Sk = 3312

36Sk =3132

Sk = 3132/36

Sk =87km/hr

SInce Sm = 6+Sk

Sm = 6+87

Sm = 93km/hr

Hence Mia's average speed is 93km/hr

Answer:

135 cubes

Step-by-step explanation:

First, find the volume of the box with the equation V = Bh, where B is the area of the base and h is the height.

V = (2.25)(0.75)(1.25)

V = 2.109375

Next, find the volume of one cube with the side length 1/4 with V = Bh:

V = (0.25)(0.25)(0.25)

V = 0.015625

Then, divide the volume of the box by the volume of one cube:

2.109375 / 0.015625

= 135

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

basically the largest number decided by 5 smaller than 438 is 435. so the answer is 3

Answer:

Any number divisible by 9 must have the sum of its digits divisible by 9. The sum of the digits of 456 is 15, so you need to subtract 6.

Hey there! I'm happy to help!

The factors are the numbers you multiply to get 47. And they can't be fractions or numbers with fractions. They have to be integers (numbers without fractions).

So far, we see that we can multiply 1 and 47 to get 47. To see if there are any more, we see what numbers 1-10 we can divide by.

We cannot divide by 2 because 47 is odd.

We cannot divide by 3 because it gives us 15.6666...

We can't divide by 4 because 47 is odd.

We can't divide by 5 because 47 does not have a 5 or 0 in the ones place.

We can't divide by 6 because 47 is odd.

We can't divide by 7 because it gives us 6.714285....

We can't divide by 8 because 47 is odd.

We can't divide by 9 because it gives us 5.2222

And we obviously can't divide it by 10.

Therefore, the factors of 47 are 1 and 47. A number whose only factors are 1 and itself is called a prime number.

I hope that this helps! Have a wonderful day! :D

Answer: 47 is a prime number

The exponent of prime number 47 is 1 . Adding 1 to that exponent we get (1+1)=2

Factor of 47: 1, 47

Step-by-step explanation:

x³×15-6

15x³-6

2. Let the number be y, then

(4×y)+(5/3)

4y+5/3

We have:

h - height

b = 2h - base

A = 36 - area

so:

[tex]A=\frac{1}{2}\cdot b\cdot h\\\\A=\frac{1}{2}\cdot 2\cdot h \cdot h\\\\A=h^2\\\\36=h^2\quad|\sqrt{(\dots)}\\\\\boxed{h=6}[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]\huge\boxed{a = b-5}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the number be a

So, the given condition is:

a = b-5

Answer:

[tex]\Huge \boxed{a=b-5}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the number be [tex]a[/tex].

[tex]a[/tex] is equal to 5 less than [tex]b[/tex].

5 is subtracted from [tex]b[/tex].

Answer:

8/81

Step-by-step explanation:

8/18 x 4/18 = 32/324 = 8/81

The probability of drawing a blue and then a green and replacing the candy after the draw is 8/81.

Probability is defined as the ratio of the number of favorable outcomes to the total number of outcomes in other words the probability is the number that shows the happening of the event.

Probability = Number of favorable outcomes / Number of sample

It is given that in a bag of M&MS there are 4 green, 6 yellow, and 8 blue candies.

The probability for blue = 8/18

The probability for green = 4/18

The probabilities of drawing a blue then green if you replace the candy after the draw will be calculated as below:-

Probability = 8/18 x 4/18

Probability = 32/324

Divide the number 32 by 324 to get the probability.

Probability = 8/81

Therefore, the probability of drawing a blue and then a green and replacing the candy after the draw is 8/81.

To know more about probability follow

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Answer:

length = 48 feet , width = 32 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

Using

2W + 2L = 160 with W = L - 16 , then

2(L - 16) + 2L = 160 ← distribute and simplify left side

2L - 32 + 2L = 160

4L - 32 = 160 ( add 32 to both sides )

4L = 192 ( divide both sides by 4 )

L = 48

Substitute L = 48 into W = L - 16

W = 48 - 16 = 32

Thus length = 48 feet and width = 32 feet

Answer:

l = 48 cm

w =  32 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

length = l

Width w= l - 16

Perimeter = 160 ft

2*(l + w) = 160

2*(l + l -16) = 160

2*(2l - 16) = 160

Use distributive property

2*2l - 2*16 = 160

4l - 32 = 160  {add 32 to both sides}

4l = 160 + 32

4l = 192            {Divide both sides by 4}

l = 192/4

l = 48 cm

W = 48 - 16 = 32 cm

Answer:

a. 3.5 inches by 4.5 inches

b. 1.5 inches

c. Divide 48 inches by 2 and multiply 1 inch by 12 to get a scale of 1 : 2

Step-by-step explanation:

A scale is a representative fraction showing the relationship between length on a drawing and actual length.

i.e scale = [tex]\frac{length on a drawing}{actual length}[/tex]

 scale = 1 inch : 4 feet

a. The dimensions in the drawing can be determined as;

1 inch : 4 feet implies an inch on the drawing equates 4 feet on actual length.

[tex]\frac{14}{4}[/tex] = 3.5 inches

[tex]\frac{18}{4}[/tex] = 4.5 inches

Dimensions on drawing is 3.5 inches by 4.5 inches.

b. The length of the sofa is 6 feet, its length on the drawing is;

[tex]\frac{6}{4}[/tex] = 1.5 inches

c. To enlarge the scale so as to double the dimensions of the drawing, we have;

12 inches = 1 feet

4 feet = 4 × 12 = 48 inches

given scale = 1 inch : 48 inches

Thus, divide 48 inches by 2 and multiply 1 inch by 12.

scale = 12 inch : 24 inch

scale = 1 : 2

To double the dimensions of the drawing, the scale required is 1 : 2. This implies that a unit measure on the drawing is synonymous to 2 measures on the actual reading.

Answer:

48 minutes

240 at 60mph = 4 hrs.

240 at 50 mph = 4.8 hrs.

it would take an extra 60*.8 or 48 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

The trip will be of 48 minutes longer when the speed is decreased by 10 miles per hour.

What is the formula for time?

The time is given by distance/speed. The unit of time is minutes or seconds.

When distance of 240 miles is cover by the speed of 60 miles per hour then the time take to travel this distance will be 240/60=4 hours

When distance of 240 miles is cover by the speed of 50 miles per hour then the time take to travel this distance will be 240/50=4.8 hours

The difference between 4.8 hours and 4 hours is of 0.8 hours or 0.8*60=48 minutes.

Therefore, the trip will be of 48 minutes longer.

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Answer:

Below,...

Step-by-step explanation:

They are saying that if you add a odd number + a odd number than you'd get a even number,... odd + even = odd,... odd x even = even,... and so on,...

Hope it helps,... Chow!

The ratio 3:4 means for every 3 pounds made in away team tickets versus home team tickets. Multiply both sides by 9000 to have that 4 turn into 36000. The ratio 3:4 will then turn into 27000:36000

With this new ratio, we see that the away team pulls in 27000 and the home team pulls in 36000. Add the two amounts to get the final answer

27000+36000 = 63000

------------

We could alternatively add 3 and 4 (from the ratio 3:4) to get 3+4 = 7. Then multiply by that same scale factor 9000 getting 9000*7 = 63000.

Step-by-step explanation:

8²+10²= x²

64+100 =x²

164=x²

√164=√x²

square and squre root do cancel each other

x=√164

hope this helps

Answer:

x = [tex]\sqrt{164[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

In order to find the hypotenuse of a right triangle, you have to add,

[tex]8^{2} + 10^{2}[/tex]

which simplifies to,

64 + 100 =

[tex]\sqrt164[/tex]

Hope this helps! :)

This is a 30-60-90 triangle. The shortest leg (opposite the smallest angle) is half that of the hypotenuse, so y = 6/2 = 3.

Extra info: The long leg is sqrt(3) times the short leg, so x = y*sqrt(3) = x = 3*sqrt(3)

Answer:

D.) 3

Step-by-step explanation:

I got it correct on founders edtell

The line was reflected about the line y = -x.

-----------------------------------------

This question is solved using reflection concepts.

There are various kinds of reflections, 90º clockwise about the origin, 90º counterclockwise, among other, and each of them has a rule.

-----------------------------------------

In this question:

From this, we have the following rule: (x,y) -> (-y,-x)

Checking the rules, it can be said that the line was reflected about the line y = -x.

A similar question can be found at https://brainly.com/question/16130908

Answer:

refer to the pic attached

Answer:

414.48 cm²

Step-by-step explanation:

The following data were obtained from the question:

Pi (π) = 3.14

Slant height (l) = 16 cm

Diameter (d) = 12 cm

Surface Area (SA) =....?

Next, we shall determine the radius.

This can be obtained as follow:

Diameter (d) = 12 cm

Radius (r) =..?

Radius (r) = diameter (d) /2

r = d/2

r = 12/2

r = 6 cm

Finally, we shall determine the surface area of the cone as follow:

Pi (π) = 3.14

Slant height (l) = 16 cm

Radius (r) = 6 cm

Surface Area (SA) =....?

SA = πr² + πrl

SA = (3.14 × 6²) + (3.14 × 6 × 16)

SA = (3.14 × 36) + 301.44

SA = 113.04 + 301.44

SA = 414.48 cm²

Therefore, the surface area of the cone is 414.48 cm²