In a client who is now recovering following a typical delivery, the nurse has just put a sterile pressure dressing on an epidural site after removing the epidural catheter. respiratory depression is now given priority by the nurse.
Epidural anesthetic complications including respiratory depression should be closely watched in patients who are in labor. A spinal epidural block's side effects include a failure block, an unintended intrathecal block, and a post-dural puncture headache (spinal).
In the care and management of patients receiving epidural analgesia, nurses play a crucial role. Monitoring, recording, determining the degree of sensory and motor block, managing the insertion site and dressings, caring for the pressure region, and withdrawing the epidural catheter are all part of this duty.
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5. How can proper nutrition, rest, exercise, and following God's standards of morality and self-control help prevent disease
Proper nutrition, rest, exercise, and following God's standards of morality and self-control help to body to be overall healthy.
Nutrition is provided to the body by the ingested food. The macromolecules are broken down into micromolecules with the help of enzymes and absorbed into the circulation. Exercise is a key component to improve the metabolism of the body and muscle strength. The resistance training exercises increase muscle endurance. A balanced diet is necessary to avoid muscle protein breakdown. Essential amino acids are obtained from the recommended protein sources like milk-based whey protein, soy-based isolate, and egg protein. Following proper nutrition, exercise and self-control lead to a healthier life.
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A shoulder rehabilitation program should be designed to restore shoulder stability through inclusion of neuromuscular reeducation and muscle balance. Question 11 options: True False
Answer:
I think the answer is true
______ is found in products available at your local pharmacy; in high doses it produces dissociative effects.
Dextromethorphan [DXM] is found in products available at your local pharmacy; in high doses it produces dissociative effects.
What is dextromethorphan?Dextromethorphan is a medication most often used as a cough suppressant in over-the-counter cold and cough medicines.It is in the morphinan class of medications with sedative, dissociative, and stimulant properties.Dextromethorphan comes as a liquid-filled capsule, a chewable tablet, a dissolving strip, a solution (liquid), an extended-release (long-acting) suspension (liquid), and a lozenge to take by mouth.It is usually taken every 4 to 12 hours as needed.Dextromethorphan will not treat a cough that is caused by smoking, asthma, or emphysema.Dextromethorphan comes alone and in combination with antihistamines, cough suppressants, and decongestants.Side effects of dextromethorphan at normal therapeutic doses can include: body rash, nausea, vomiting, drowsiness, constipation, sedation, etc.To learn more about Dextromethorphan,
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Mike is a terminally ill patient who stays at home rather than in a hospital. His treatment focuses on the reduction of pain and suffering since any medical treatment would be of little help. This scenario demonstrates _____.
This scenario demonstrates Palliative care.
What is Palliative care?People with serious illnesses can receive specialized medical care called palliative care. Relief from the illness's symptoms and stress is the main goal of this kind of care. The objective is to enhance the patient's and the family's quality of life.
A specifically trained group of physicians, nurses, and other professionals who collaborate with a patient's medical clinicians to offer an additional layer of support provides palliative care. Palliative care is based on the patient's needs rather than their prognosis. At any age or stage of a serious illness, it is suitable, and it can be given in addition to curative care.
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Which statement would the nurse include in teaching about the psychodynamic theory of conversion disorder
The emotions associated with traumatic events are transformed into physical symptoms." is the statement which will be included to teach psychodynamic theory of conversion disorder.
What is Psychodynamic theory of conversion disorder?This states that the occurrence of some symptoms which aren't caused by organic diseases are usually as a result of psychological factors
Conditions such as traumatic events etc usually have an effect on the physical body.
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A nurse is assessing a newborn with the parents present. The nurse explains that which aspect of newborn behavior is an important indication of neurologic development and function
The presence and strength of a reflex is an important indication of neurologic development and function.
What is meant by neurological development?
The word "neurodevelopment" describes how the brain develops neural networks that affect behaviour or functioning (e.g., intellectual functioning, reading ability, social skills, memory, attention, or focus skills).
The rapid rate of brain development beginning before birth and continuing throughout early childhood is one of the key causes. Although the brain continues to grow and develop throughout adulthood, the first eight years of life can lay the groundwork for future success in learning, health, and living. The differentiation of neural progenitor cells, which starts in the third gestational week (GW), is the first step in the lengthy process of human brain development.
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Give an example of a 2 x 2 matrix game with exactly three nash equilibria in pure strategies. Explain.
Answer:
A Nash equilibrium is a profile of strategies (s1,s2) such that the strategies are best responses to each other, i.e., no player can do strictly better by deviating. This helps us to find the (pure strategy) Nash equilibria.
To start, we find the best response for player 1 for each of the strategies player 2 can play. I will demonstrate this by underlining the best responses:
ABCA1–,10,101–,−10B10–––,01,11,10C−10,110–––,11,1
Player 1 is the row player, player 2 is the column player. If 2 plays column A, then player 1's best response is to play either row A or C, which gives him 1 rather than 0 as payoff. Similarly, the best response to column B is row A, and to column C it is row B.
Now we do the same for player 2 by underlining the best responses of the column player:
ABCA1–,1–0,10–––1–,−10B10–––,01,11,10–––C−10,1–10–––,11,1
So, if player 1 plays row A then player 2 best responds either with column A or column C, giving him 1 rather than 0. We also find the best responses for row B and C.
Now a pure strategy Nash equilibrium is a cell where both payoffs are underlined, i.e., where both strategies are best responses to each other. In the example, the unique pure strategy equilibrium is (A,A). (There may also be mixed strategy equilibria.) In all other cells, at least one player has an incentive to deviate (because it gives him a higher payoff).
EDIT: How to compute mixed strategy equilibria in discrete games?
In a mixed Nash strategy equilibrium, each of the players must be indifferent between any of the pure strategies played with positive probability. If this were not the case, then there is a profitable deviation (play the pure strategy with higher payoff with higher probability).
Consider player 2. He plays column A with probability p, B with probability q, and C with probability 1−p−q. We need to find p,q such that player 1 is indifferent between his pure strategies A,B,C. He is indifferent between row A (left hand side) and row B (right hand side) if p,q are such that
p+10q−10(1−q−p)=q+10(1−p−q).
He is indifferent between B and C if
q+10(1−p−q)=p+q+1−q−p=1.
You just have to solve the first condition for q as function of p, substitute q in the second condition and you have p. Inserting p again in the first gives you q.
Now we do the same with strategies for player 1 such that player 2 is indifferent. Player 1 plays A with probability x, B with probability y and C with probability 1−x−y. The two conditions that follow are
1x+10y−10(1−x−y)=x+10(1−x−y)x+10(1−x−y)=1
Solve this again to find x,y. This is a mixed-strategy equilibrium, because neither player has a profitable deviation. Remember, we constructed the profile (x,y;p,q) such that the other player is indifferent between his pure strategies. So, no matter how the other player unilaterally deviates, his expected payoff will be identical to that in equilibrium (x,y;p,q). In general, depending on the game and solutions x,y,p,q, there may be infinitely many mixed Nash equilibria, or none. The more pure strategies there are, the more tedious it is to compute mixed strategy equilibria, since we solve for N−1 variables for each player (N being the number of pure strategies of the other player).
Moreover, to find all equilibria, if there are more than 2 actions for a player, then every possible combination of actions has to be checked. Here, a player has 3 actions, and a mixed strategy equilibrium could entail mixing over all three or just any two of them. Since such a player would not have to be indifferent regarding the strategy played with probability 0, the equations you have to set up are different. In summary, manually checking for all possible mixed strategy equilibria if at least one player has more than two actions can require a lot of effort.
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Rapid assessment of mrs. bailey’s breathing reveals irregular, gasping breaths. you correctly identify this pattern of breathing as?
You correctly identify this breathing pattern on agonal, Breathing patterns consist of tidal volume and respiratory rate in an individual. An average breathing pattern is 12 breaths per minute and 500 mL per breath. Eupnea is normal breathing at rest. There are types of altered breathing patterns that are symptoms of many diseases.
What is breathing pattern?The normal adult, at rest, breathes comfortably 12 to 18 times per minute. Newborns, this value reaches 30 to 40 breaths per minute, that is, almost double that of an adult at rest and children can reach 25 to 30 breaths per minute.
With this information, we can conclude that Breathing rate is the number of breaths you take per minute.
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Dr order: Infuse 2750 mL of 0.45% Normal Saline at 150 mL/hr
Drop Factor: 15 gtt/mL
How many gtt/min will you regulate the IV?
A nurse is caring for an infant who is receiving IV therapy. Which assessment finding indicates fluid volume excess
A nurse is caring for an infant who is receiving IV therapy. An elevated blood pressure and bounding pulses are finding indicates fluid volume excess.
what do you understand by fluid volume excess?
Hypervolemia is another name for fluid overflow. It occurs when your body has too much fluid. It can be brought on by a number of various illnesses, such as pregnancy, cirrhosis, heart failure, or renal failure.
Sodium retention by your kidneys leads to fluid volume excess. The fluid and salt balance in your body is controlled by your kidneys. The amount of sodium in the rest of your body rises when something makes your kidneys retain sodium. Your body produces too much fluid as a result of this.
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Pulmonary disease, gallstones, bone and joint disorders, reduced physical agility, and hypertension are all health conditions that are tied to _______.
Pulmonary disease, gallstones, bone and joint disorders and hypertension are all health conditions that are tied to obesity.
What is Obesity?
This is a condition in which an individual is overweight and has excessive body fat.
This fat clogs the artery and increases the heart pressure thereby reduces blood flow to vital organs and resulting in pulmonary disease, bone and joint disorders etc.
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A nurse manager is teaching the staff about professional negligence and malpractice. Which criteria that establishes malpractice will the nurse include
That duty was breached.
Duty of care was owed to the patient.
Specifically, nursing malpractice or negligence refers to a nurse failing to adequately complete his or her tasks, ultimately resulting in harm to the patient.
What are Malpractices and professional negligence ?A nurse's errors that are considered malpractice include administering the wrong medication, giving the wrong dosage, or giving the medication too early or too late.
A negligence claim may be in connection to variety of circumstances, including incorrect or delayed diagnosis, medication errors or administering the wrong treatment.Anyone suing a health care provider, including a nurse, for malpractice must prove four elements in order to prevail: duty, breach, causation, and harm.Learn more about Malpractices here:
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The period of gestation that is characterized by the largest fetal weight gain and fat deposition is the ________ trimester.
The period of gestation that is characterized by the largest fetal weight gain and fat deposition is the third trimester.
The third trimester is the last phase of gestation. It lasts for weeks 29 to 40, or months 7, 8, and 9.The baby grows, develop, and begins to change position in preparation for birth during this trimester. By the end, a full-term infant usually is between 19 and 21 inches long and between 6 and 9 pounds.
Pregnancy causes major physical and psychological changes in women. Weight gain during the third trimester is a normal part of pregnancy and typically not a reason for concern.
During the third trimester, many women will gain weight quickly. This is because, according to the Office on Women's Health (OWH)Trusted Source, the fetus normally accumulates the most weight during this time.
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#SPJ4A community health nurse is working to address barriers to health care for rural clients. Which area would the nurse most likely identify as a barrier
A rural area has six or fewer persons per square mile.
The following social determinants are obstacles to healthcare access for rural communities: Higher rates of poverty may make it more challenging for participants to pay for services or programs. Social and cultural expectations for healthy behavior. Low levels of health literacy and incomplete views of health as an obstacle to healthcare.
Educational and linguistic disparities and few options for reliable, inexpensive, or public transportation. unpredictable work schedules or joblessness. Reduced population density to maximize program economies of scale.
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An example of an abbreviation is _____.
a. mri
b. alzheimer disease
c. trendelenburg position
d. cabg
Answer:
An example of an abbreviation is an MRI.
Explanation:
MRI stands for Magnetic Resonance Imaging
The infection control nurse observes a new graduate nurse in the intensive care unit. Which action by the graduate nurse requires intervention by the infection control nurse
The action that requires intervention by the infection control nurse is when the graduate nurse scrubs beneath artificial nails when performing hand hygiene.
What is hand hygiene?Hand hygiene is a fundamental issue for the prevention and control of infectious diseases.
Hand hygiene needs to be practiced by the nurse in order to avoid cross-infection contamination.
In conclusion, the action that requires intervention is when the graduate nurse scrubs beneath artificial nails when performing hand hygiene.
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The North American Nursing Diagnosis Association (NANDA) began a data standardization process by developing the first set of nursing diagnoses in 1982. True or false
The statement is true.
The North American Nursing Diagnosis Association (NANDA) is known to form a nursing diagnosis classification system. A clinical judgment that concerns an individual and deals with the health condition is called nursing diagnosis. The diagnosis is formed by the data collected during the nursing assessment and helps the nurse to create a patient care plan. A nursing diagnosis differs from a medical diagnosis, in which the diagnosis is formed by an advanced health care practitioner. Such an individual who formulates the medical diagnosis deals more with the diseases, pathological state, and clinical conditions. NANDA improves the nursing professional role, nursing awareness, and treatment abilities.
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for patients post-acl reconstructive surgery, is rehabilitation with dry needling effective in comparison to standard rehabilitation in increasing rom
Knee's stability and functionality can typically be recovered with a successful ACL restoration and targeted physical therapy.
What about ACL surgery?Anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction involves replacing the knee's anterior cruciate ligament with tissue grafts through surgery in order to recover function after an injury. Before reconstructing the knee using an arthroscopic treatment, the torn ligament can be either removed from the knee or maintained.Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction surgery is performed to replace a torn ACL, a significant knee ligament. Sports with abrupt pauses and changes in direction, such soccer, football, basketball, and volleyball, are the ones where ACL injuries most frequently happen.Most ACL reconstruction surgeries are completed in under two hours.It will be informed by your doctor how long the procedure will take. The time required for the full surgical procedure might depend on a number of factors, including: the kind of graft you're getting: an allograft or an autograft.Learn more about ACL reconstructive here:
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Etiology is another word for:
Answer:
their causes
Explanation:
Etiology for mental disorders is a description of the causes and progress of a disease or disorder. A disease's cause or etiology is what led to it. The research on how illnesses are caused is known as etiology.
What is etiology?In other disciplines, like philosophy and physics, it can also refer to the study of how things come to be, or their causes, to develop.
For instance, the etiology of the disease in the case of cancer is a mix of your genes, which had alterations that made you more likely to develop a certain form of cancer, and certain events in your life that may have increased the likelihood that it would occur (for example, you smoke cigarettes.
Therefore, etiology is a description of the causes, and progress of a disease or disorder.
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You are an epidemiologist studying an emerging disease reported over the past three years in Wisconsin, Minnesota, and Michigan. You have noticed a seasonal pattern of disease, with new cases appearing in late April through September and peaking in July. No new cases appear during late fall or the winter months. This pattern is suggestive of __________.
This pattern is suggestive of disease transmission by an arthropod vector, such as a mosquito or tick.
Arthropod vectors include mosquitoes, flies, midges, ticks, mites, fleas, bed bugs, lice, and other arthropods that carry and transmit disease-causing organisms or pathogens from one host to another. Vector-borne diseases are infections transmitted by the bite of infected arthropod species such as mosquitoes, ticks, triatomine bugs, sand flies, and black flies. Arthropod vectors are cold-blooded (ectothermic) and therefore particularly sensitive to climatic factors. Arthropods transmit the parasites either by injecting them into the host's bloodstream directly through their salivary glands, or by driving the parasites into the pool of blood that develops when the skin is chewed.
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Lisa was taken to the emergency room with symptoms of a heart attack, but she also has a fever. Does her husband need to be concerned she has an infection instead
Lisa may have an infection. The fever may also be a sign of inflammation caused by the injury to the cardiac tissues probable during a heart attack.
The symptoms of a heart attack include chest pain, shortness of breath, weakness, fainting, and more. The inflamed cardiac tissues can be a result of a heart attack that led to fever. Fever is also a response of the body to combat an infection. Again, a bacterial infection called Anthrax is likely to produce symptoms like a heart attack, accompanied by fever. Anthrax is caused by the pathogen Bacillus anthracis and spreads by contaminated vegetation. However, the correct cause of Lisa's symptoms can only be identified upon testing patient samples.
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prepare sop for sickling by microscopy method
SOP (Standard Operating Procedure) for sickling (SCD) involves checking for presence of hemoglobin S.
What is the SOP for sickling?Sickling or Sickle-cell disorder (SCD) is when the hemoglobin inside red blood cells sticks or clumps together, causing the cell to become fragile, rigid, and crescent or sickle-shaped.This is a genetic disorder affecting hemoglobin of RBCs.Diagnostic testing in potentially affected individuals is usually undertaken prenatally, or at or soon after birth. A sickle cell test looks only for the presence of an abnormal form of hemoglobin called hemoglobin S, which causes SCD. A negative test is normal. It means your hemoglobin is normal. A positive test result may mean you have sickle cell trait or SCD.The complete blood count (CBC) is a primary test to characterize the different types of anemia.
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) is usually elevated in SCD patients receiving hydroxyurea (medication used in SCD). Moreover, elevated red cell distribution width (RDW) is seen in SCD patients because of RBCs’ different subpopulations.Although CBC is widely used to describe the hematological parameter as valuable information, it is insufficient to give a complete picture of patients’ diagnoses.Therefore, peripheral blood smear (PBF) analysis is performed to examine SCD.
PBF examines the morphology of the blood cell and evaluates any microscopic changes.The preparation of these blood smear slides is relatively simple, rapid, and inexpensive.In sickle cell anemia, moderate to severe anisopoikilocyte (different shape of RBCs) is seen with a variable number of elongated sickle cells.Although peripheral blood smear is an informative hematological test, it relies on the pathologist’s skills.Learn more about sickle-cell anemia here:
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The nurse conducts telephone screenings with several clients who are scheduled for CT scan of the abdomen with oral contrast. The nurse should notify the health care provider about which client before the CT scan is performed
The nurse should notify the health care provider about Client with a history of stroke who has dysphagia and is drooling.
Why is an oral contrast performed?Oral contrast increases the visibility and helps in detailed analysis of the Gastrointestinal (GI) structures on CT scan.Computed Tomography (CT) scan is a test that combines X-rays and computer scans.Oral contrast helps to opacify the bowel and helps to get better images of the abdomen for diagnosis. It makes specific organs to stand out (GI tract) thus for better detection of a disease or an injury.Commonly used contrast agents in CT imaging are based on barium and iodine.Therefore, the nurse should check first if a patient has iodine allergy.Also the nurse should check if any patient has difficulty in swallowing the contrast or his own drool (Dysphagia) as it can be the symptom of a stroke.Learn more about CT scan here:
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The nurse is proving discharge instructions for a client with a new arrhythmia. Which statement should the nurse include
Your family and friends may want to take a CPR class
Having friends and family learn to take a pulse and perform CPR will help patients to manage their condition. Antiarrhythmic medication should be taken on time. Lightheadedness and dizziness are symptoms which should be reported to the provider.
What is Arrhythmia ?An arrhythmia is an irregular heartbeat. It means your heart is out of its usual rhythm.
Narrowed heart arteries, a heart attack, abnormal heart valves, prior heart surgery, heart failure, cardiomyopathy and other heart damage are risk factors for almost any kind of arrhythmia.The most common life-threatening arrhythmia is ventricular fibrillation.Learn more about Arrhythmia here:
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Which medication will be prescribed for a patient complaining of muscle spasms resulting from a back injury
Answer: A muscle relaxant such as diazepam is occasionally prescribed for a few days if the back muscles become very tense and make the pain worse. Diazepam is one of a group of medicines called benzodiazepines which can be habit-forming and should be taken for as short a period of time as possible.
Explanation:
A bypass or shunt operation that diverts the cerebrospinal fluid is treatment for.
A bypass or shunt operation that diverts the cerebrospinal fluid is the treatment for (B) hydrocephalus.
What is hydrocephalus?A buildup of fluid in the brain's deep cavities.The additional fluid exerts pressure on the brain and can harm it. It is particularly common in infants and the elderly.In babies, hydrocephalus is characterized by head enlargement. Headache, blurred vision, cognitive impairments, lack of coordination, and incontinence are common symptoms in adults and older children.A tube (shunt) is frequently placed surgically into a ventricle to drain excess fluid.Hydrocephalus is treated by a bypass or shunt procedure that redirects the cerebrospinal fluid.As the description itself says, hydrocephalus is treated by a bypass or shunt procedure that redirects the cerebrospinal fluid.
Therefore, a bypass or shunt operation that diverts the cerebrospinal fluid is the treatment for (B) hydrocephalus.
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Complete question:
A bypass or shunt operation that diverts the cerebrospinal fluid is the treatment for ______
A. meningitis.
B. hydrocephalus.
C. encephalitis.
D. cerebral palsy.
A client with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes is admitted to the metabolic unit. The primary goal for this admission is education. Which goal should the nurse incorporate into her teaching plan
Reducing one's weight through food and activity
There are various ways that exercise combats the consequences of type 2 diabetes. As a result, the cells are better equipped to utilise whatever insulin that is present to absorb glucose from the blood. Additionally, even in the absence of insulin, muscle cells can still absorb glucose when they contract during exercise.
What is Type 2 diabetes ?A disorder in the body's ability to control and utilise sugar (glucose) as fuel is type 2 diabetes.
This chronic (long-term) disorder causes the bloodstream to circulate with an excessive amount of sugar. Over time, cardiovascular, neurological, and immune system issues might result from excessive blood sugar levels.Learn more about Type 2 diabetes here:
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When a woman presents with abdominal pain or other vague symptoms, the EMT is often unable to determine the nature of the problem until he or she:
When a woman presents with abdominal pain or other vague symptoms, the EMT is often unable to determine the nature of the problem until he or she has gathered patient history information.
Who is an EMT?An EMT is an acronym that stands for Emergency Medical Technician. They are individuals that are specially trained with skills that are needed for emergency health situations.
Pain is the way our body reacts to an abnormal internal or external stimuli.
Abdominal pain is a type of pain experience at the abdominal region of the body.
The EMT would needs to obtain an information from the patient, which is often call patient history information.
This would help the technician set up a treatment plan for this patient.
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Interstitial fluid (IF) is ________.
Group of answer choices
a)the fluid in the cytosol of the cells
b)none of the above
c)the fluid component of blood
d)the fluid between the cell membranes
43
Answer:
b)
Explanation:
Interstitial fluid is the body fluid between blood vessels and cells, containing nutrients from capillaries by diffusion and holding waste products discharged out by cells due to metabolism.
Which diagnostic findings will the nurse expect when caring for a patient who is a experiencing worsening of asthma symptoms