The nurse is caring for a client in labor at 37 weeks gestation and notes a baseline fetal heart rate of 180 beats per minute. Which interventions should the nurse perform

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Answer 1

Provide the mother with oxygen

Fetal tachycardia, an abnormal foetal heart rate that can be found on the foetal monitor, is suggested by the heart rate in the description. Tachycardia could result from problems affecting the baby's heart or from conditions affecting the mother, such as fever or dehydration. To boost hydration and oxygenation for the mother and baby, the nurse should increase the IV pace and give the mother oxygen.

What is Fetal tachycardia ?

Having a heartbeat that is faster than 160–180 beats per minute is known as foetal tachycardia (bpm).

This quick pace may be intermittent or continuous, with a regular or irregular rhythm. Fewer than 1% of all pregnancies experience a prolonged foetal tachyarrhythmia.

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If corrective action cannot be taken, the recommended next step is to

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If corrective action cannot be taken, the recommended next step is to be careful

What is a corrective action?

Corrective actions simply refers to those measures taken to adjust, eliminate or balance from errors made.

These actions could be taken or observed from work, school, or could even be in the family

Some few examples of corrective measures includes the following:

SensitivityPunctualityNeatnessObedience

So therefore, if corrective action cannot be taken, the recommended next step is to be careful

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Cyclosporine is prescribed for the client following allogenic kidney transplantation. The nurse should provide which instruction to the client regarding the medication

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Signs of infection of cyclosporine


Combined with additional drugs, cyclosporine prevents the body from rejecting a transplanted organ. It belongs to the group of medicines called immunosuppressive medications.

In a kidney transplant, a patient whose kidneys are no longer functioning properly has a healthy kidney from a living or deceased donor surgically placed into them. Patients with end-stage renal illness need dialysis or a kidney transplant to keep them alive by mechanically eliminating waste from their bloodstream. Cyclosporine may worsen any illnesses you already have or raise your chance of getting new infections. Avoid people who might be sick and spread the disease to others (such as chickenpox, measles, flu)

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Imagine that tom, a 51-year-old man, breaks his foot and is nonambulatory for 8 weeks. What term describes the increase in tom’s energy expenditures?

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Imagine that Tom, a 51-year-old man, breaks his foot and cannot walk for 8 weeks. The term that describes Tom's increased energy expenditure is bedridden patient

What does Nonambulatory mean?

Non-ambulatory Persons” means persons unable to leave a building unassisted under emergency conditions.

What is the difference between ambulatory and non-ambulatory?

Patients were classified as ambulatory or non-ambulatory based on the self-reported ability to walk 150 feet, walk one block, and climb one flight of stairs. Patients who could perform all the activities were classified as ambulatory; those who could perform none of the activities were classified as non-ambulatory.

With this information, we can conclude that The term that describes Tom's increased energy expenditure is bedridden patient

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What is the usual number of posterior film sensor images taken in the parallel technique?

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Posterior film sensor images using the parallel technique for maxillary posterior films the film is placed because it will be placed in the mouth on the surface of one being radiographed ,opposite side of the surface.

If it is placed on the cotton wool before the film is placed for upper teeth and then film is placed for lower teeth.There are some purpose for using this technique that is  increased distance between the radiation sources and film to obtain a bundle of parallel rays.

It is 16 inches long receptor distance which is used with the paralleling technique. This is used to position an intraoral receptor in the mouth and maintain the receptor in position during exposure.

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your initial impressiion reveals severe life threatening bleeding in an adult victim who appears to be unresponsive. your next step should be:

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The next step would be to check the breathing of an adult.

Steps to be taken  if an adult is unresponsive:

The first impression is the life-threatening bleeding in an adult.

Check the breathing of an adult.Apply the cloth to the wounds to stop the bleeding.Apply the compression to the wound.If bleeding is from arms and legs then use Torniquette for short time.Avoid applying Torniqutte for too long as it may cause complications like amputation of the limbs. If there is no response lie down an adultGive CPR by placing both hands in between the chest of an adult.Call a medical emergency.

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It is appropriate for the nurse to recommend smoking cessation for clients with hypertension because nicotine.

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Yes, it is appropriate for the nurse to recommend smoking cessation for clients with hypertension because nicotine in cigarettes causes your blood vessels to constrict and the heart to beat more rapidly, thus raising your blood pressure.

Nicotine is a extremely addictive chemical compound present in a tobacco plant.  Nicotine is a stimulant, which makes tobacco products addicting. Even when people wish to stop using tobacco products, nicotine prevents them from doing so.

Because of ongoing tobacco use, the number of deaths and disabilities attributable to tobacco use is rising globally (mainly cigarettes). While tobacco use is steadily increasing in high-income countries like the USA, it has reached epidemic proportions in many low- and middle-income nations (The Tobacco Atlas 2015; CDC 2016). 68 % of adult smokers in the United States want to stop, and millions have tried to do so, according to the Centers for Disease Control (CDC 2017).

Each year, 70 % of smokers contact a healthcare provider (AHRQ 2008). Since nurses participate in the majority of these visits and constitute the biggest group of healthcare providers globally, they have the potential to have a significant impact on the decline in tobacco use.

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A nursing student is preparing a class for new mothers about adaptations they can expect in their newborns. Which information about newborn vision should the student include in the presentation

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Newborn Babies have the ability to focus only on objects in close proximity.

Newborn Babies' eye movements might not be coordinated. They might even have crossed eyes. Newborn Babies can only focus at close range when they are born. The distance between a mother's face and the newborn babies in her arms is around 8 to 10 inches.
In the first few weeks of life, infants may follow or track an object. Over the first two to three years of life, focus develops to a typical 20/20 vision. Although they can't see all colors, newborn babies can perceive light and dark.
Babies have not yet fully developed the ability to distinguish easily between two targets or shift their eyes between the two images, despite the fact that they may focus intensively on a target with great contrast. Their main interest is in things. Their main attention is on things that are 8 to 10 inches away from them or the parent's face.

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Your first patient has a musculoskeletal complaint. Using the chart of musculoskeletal medical word elements from your textbook, construct 10 medical terms that would reasonably be involved in a complaint dealing with the muscles and/or bones. Each term should include its meaning in parentheses. Then list 3 tests or procedures that would reasonably be involved in evaluating a patient like this.

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Musculoskeletal disorders (MSD) are injuries or disorders of the muscles, nerves, tendons, joints, cartilage, and spinal discs.

10 medical terms that would reasonably be involved in a complaint dealing with the muscles and/or bonesOste/o (Bone,Osteitis, osteoma, osteocyte)Chondr/o (Cartilage Chondritis, chondroma, chondrocyte)Arthr/o Joint (Arthritis, arthroplasty)Myel/o (Bone marrow Myeloma)Ten/o, tendin/o Tendon (binds muscle to bone) Tendonitis, tenorrhaphy)Ligament/o Ligament (binds bone to bone) Ligamentous injury)Burs/o Bursa, “bag”, (shock absorber between tendons and bones) BursitisMy/o, myos/o Muscle (Myoma, myositis)malacia Softening (Osteomalacia, chondromalacia)porosis, Porous (Osteoporosis)

What are 3 important processes when coming to a diagnosis?

Physical examinationgenerating a provisional and differential diagnosistesting (ordering, reviewing, and acting on test results) reaching a final diagnosis.

With this information, we can conclude that Musculoskeletal Disorders or MSDs are injuries and disorders that affect the human body's movement or musculoskeletal system

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Studies show that a 1% increase in dietary saturated fatty acids will raise the risk of heart disease by what percentage

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Studies show that a 1% increase in dietary saturated fatty acids will raise the risk of heart disease by 2%.

Saturated fatty acid :

A saturated fatty acid is a type of fatty acid that lacks unsaturated linkages between carbon atoms. This type of fatty acid is saturated because it no longer has any double bonds, which prevents it from absorbing any more hydrogen. Animal fats frequently contain saturated fatty acids.

In the worldwide, cardiovascular disease (CVD) is the leading cause of death and disability. Additionally, a poor diet is a major CVD risk factor. Therefore, changes in diet may help to considerably lower the occurrence of CVD. It is well known that saturated fatty acids (SFA) raise LDL cholesterol, a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease.

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A child is recovering from a bout with group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus infection. The child returns to the clinic a week later complaining of decrease in urine output with puffiness and edema noted in the face and hands. The health care provider suspects the child has developed:

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The health care provider suspects the child has developed: Acute post infectious glomerulonephritis.

Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (APSGN) shows symptoms like infection of the skin or throat and caused by nephritogenic strains of group A beta-hemolytic streptococci. Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (GN) is a kidney disease that occurs after infection with certain strains of streptococcal bacteria. The kidneys are responsible for removing waste from the body, regulating electrolyte balance and blood pressure, and stimulating the production of red blood cells. A child is recovering from a bout with group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus infection. The child returns to the clinic a week later complaining of decrease in urine output with puffiness and edema noted in the face and hands. So these are the symptoms of Acute post infectious glomerulonephritis.

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which intervention would the nurse use to provide emotional support for a resident in a nursing home who recently immigrated from another country

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By offering choices consistent with the client's heritage the nurse would use to provide emotional support for a resident in a nursing home who recently immigrated from another country.

When a nurse offers options that are respectful of the client's cultural values and customs, compliance with a treatment plan is improved. The nurse's cultural or personal biases and views shouldn't affect or get in the way of providing competent care.

The focus right now should be on tailoring treatment to the client's requirements and culture rather than helping them fit into American culture. Unless they are harmful to the person's health, cultural traditions shouldn't be discussed.

In order to help the parents deal with their loss, the nurse should be attentive to any cultural or religious beliefs that they may have.

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Antipsychotic medications work well on ________ symptoms associated with schizophrenia but are less effective on ________ symptoms.

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Antipsychotic medications work well on delusions symptoms associated with schizophrenia but are less effective on lack of emotions symptoms.

Antipsychotic drugs are used to treat a person with a mental disorder also known as psychiatric drugs. Mental health disorder like Schizophrenia occurs too early in people between the age of 16 to 30 due to the alteration in the dopamine and serotonin neurotransmitters in the brain. A person with Schizophrenia cannot distinguish between the real and the imaginary world due to the improper functioning of the brain. It causes symptoms of impaired vision, hallucination, anxiety, memory loss, etc.,

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Drug use over a long period of time typically leads to what condition in the body?

Answers

Answer: Tolerance

Explanation:

which statement by a patient receiving levodopa/carbidopa and an anticholinergic indicates the need for further teaching

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A patient who has parkinsonism will begin taking carbidopa-levodopa. Rise slowly from your bed or your chair to avoid dizziness and falls." will be a statement given to patient by nurse.

The most effective treatment for Parkinson's disease is levodopa, a natural substance that enters your brain and is changed into dopamine. Combining levodopa with carbidopa (Lodosyn) prevents levodopa from being prematurely converted to dopamine outside of the brain.Some anti-nausea and antipsychotic drug varieties are the ones that are most likely to produce this effect. These drugs prevent nerve cells from expressing dopamine receptors. Dopamine levels fall as a result, leading in parkinsonism.The most frequent adverse reactions include involuntary, uncontrollable movements, nausea, and difficulty sleeping or staying asleep.

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invezstments increwase exponentially by about 26% every 3 years if you made a 2000 investment how much money would you have after 45 years

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The amount of money I would have after 45 years with an exponential increase is $64,060.18.

Given:

invezstments increwase by 26%

time = 3 years

investment amount = 2000

To Find:

amount of money after 45 years

What is the Future value of $2000?

The formula for calculating future value:

FV = P(1+r)^n

FV Future value

P = Present valueR = interest rate

• N = number of years = 45 / 3 = 15 years

$2000 x (1.26)^15 = $64,060.18

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One of the best ways to increase physical activity is through __________ because it does not require special facilities or expensive equipment and is the most popular form of activity among those who meet the U.S. governments recommended exercise goals.

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One of the best ways to increase physical activity is through Walking because it does not require special facilities or expensive equipment and is the most popular form of activity among those who meet the U.S. government's recommended exercise goals.

Physical activity decreases the risk of disease and increases well-being. Most people are engaged in physical activities that require gym facilities and other equipment. Physical activities other than the gym which do not require skills and equipment are - walking, running, jogging, etc., are more beneficial to all groups of children and old adults. Daily walking can reduce the risk of heart disease, hypertension, anxiety, and blood pressure and improves memory, stamina also improves quality of life.

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A nurse urges a pregnant client at the first prenatal office visit to begin taking iron supplements immediately. What is the rationale for this intervention

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Anemia is the rationale for this intervention that nurse urges a pregnant client at the first prenatal office visit to begin taking iron supplements immediately.

What is anemia?Low levels of red blood cells are referred to as anemia. Anemia is diagnosed through a standard blood test by a low hematocrit or hemoglobin level.Blood loss, a lack of new red blood cells being produced, and a high rate of red blood cell apoptosis are the three basic causes of anemia. Heavy periods are one factor that may cause anemia.When your body doesn't have enough healthy red blood cells to deliver oxygen throughout it, you have anemia. Anemia may be persistent or transient (chronic). Anemia is frequently moderate, but it can occasionally be significant and even fatal.This kind of anemia is not specifically treated. The underlying illness is the main thing that doctors treat.

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The most common nutritional concern in adolescence is____ Group of answer choices a. ADHD b. early maturation c. late maturation d. obesity

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Obesity is the most common nutritional concern in adolescence because of the overeating.

What is the most common nutritional concern during adolescence?

The nutritional concern during adolescence include problems of overeating and consistently making poor food choices, resulting in obesity. Many adolescents develop problems with unhealthy and restrictive dieting without meeting the minimum nutritional requirements that are necessary for healthy growth and development of an adolescence.

So we can conclude that Obesity is the most common nutritional concern in adolescence because of the overeating.

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In the dental formula for the adult dog, “2 x (i 3/3, c 1/1, pm 4/4, m 2/3)”, the “2 x” refers to the left and the right side of the mouth.
true or false

Answers

It is absolutely very true that the dental formula for the adult dog, is given by: “2 x (i 3/3, c 1/1, pm 4/4, m 2/3)”, the “2 x” refers to the left and the right side of the mouth.

Interestingly, dogs are omnivorous animals, meaning that they feed both plants and animals.

The dental formula for Dog is:

2 x (3142 / 3143) = 42 teeth (6 incisors 2 canine 8 premolars and 4 molar) / (6 incisors 2 canine 8 premolars and 6 molar) = 42 teeth.

What is omnivorous animals?

Omnivorous animals are animals that feed on both plants and animals. Examples include: human being, dog, cat, lion, tiger, elephant etc.

So therefore, it is absolutely very true that the dental formula for the adult dog, is given by: “2 x (i 3/3, c 1/1, pm 4/4, m 2/3)”, the “2 x” refers to the left and the right side of the mouth.

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With your partner seated, what movement of the spine could you ask him to perform so you can feel the movement of the spinous processes?

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Asked your partner to sit straight so you can feel the movement of the spinous processes. The spinous processes throughout the spine function as a series of levers both for muscles of posture and for muscles of active movement. Most of the muscles that attach to the spinous processes act to extend the vertebral column.

The lumbar spinous processes (LSP) have an important anatomical and biomechanical function protecting the neural structures in the spinal canal, and as an anchor for the interspinous and supraspinous ligaments, and the intersegmental paraspinal muscles. Spinous process is a bony projection off the posterior (back) of each vertebra. The spinous process protrudes where the laminae of the vertebral arch join and provides the point of attachment for muscles and ligaments of the spine.

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When educating a client that has been prescribed long-term corticosteroids, which of the following should the health care practitioner caution the client about

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that his body also is producing cortisol and if he stops they may be lower than usual or even adrenal insufficiency . also depressed immune system

A client is prescribed a topical antipruritic cream for multiple bug bites. The client asks the health care practitioner if the cream will stop the pain and itch. How should the health care practitioner respond

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The health care practitioner should respond by saying, the medicine contains benzocaine to stop the pain.

It is common practice to administer benzocaine to patients suffering from sunburn or other mild burns, poison ivy, insect bites or stings, poison oak, or poison sumac, minor cuts or scratches, and other disorders that cause pain and irritation.

Benzocaine is a topical local anaesthetic, which is a class of medication that belongs to a larger group. The nerve endings inside the skin become less sensitive as a result. This medicine does not put a patient to sleep in the same way that general anaesthetics do when they are administered during surgery.

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A client is prescribed tamoxifen, 20 mg by mouth twice per day for treatment of breast cancer. The client reports to the nurse that she has worsening bone pain. How should the nurse respond

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The nurse should respond in a way that Acute worsening of bone pain commonly indicates that the drug will produce a good response.

Tamoxifen is a powerful hormone treatment used to treat breast cancer that has hormone receptors. It can significantly lower the incidence of invasive cancer and cancer recurrence. Tamoxifen is used by certain people to reduce their risk of breast cancer.

A known side effect of using tamoxifen is the increase in bone pain. But, it is believed that tamoxifen works if you see acute worsening in bone pain. It is just a part of the process and ultimately the drug will produce a good response.

Therefore, The nurse should respond in a way that Acute worsening of bone pain commonly indicates that the drug will produce a good response.

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A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyphagia. Which outcome statement is the priority for this client

Answers

Adequate cellular nourisment

In people with diabetes, glucose do not enter inside the cells to be used for energy. This can be due to either low insulin levels or insulin resistance

What is Diabetes mellitus ?

Diabetes mellitus Type 1 is characterized by hyperglycemia that precipitates glucosuria and polyuria (frequent urination), polydipsia (excessive thirst), and polyphagia (excessive hunger).

Polyphagia is a consequence of cellular malnourishment when insulin deficiency prevents utilization of glucose into the cell for energy.

So the outcome statement should include stabilization of adequate cellular nutrition which is done by providing the insulin supplement the client needs.

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The best bone detail may be obtained when radiographing the clavicle when the patient's position is:

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The best bone detail may be obtained when radiographing the clavicle when the patient's position is prone.

What is clavicle? The clavicle is the bone that connects the breastplate (sternum) to the shoulder. It is a very solid bone that has a slight S-shape and can be easily seen in many people. It connects to the sternum at a joint with cartilage called the sternoclavicular joint.

What are the roles of the clavicle?

The clavicle, popularly known as the collarbone, is a part of your shoulder. It is a prominent bone that connects the arm with the rest of the skeleton. Its functions include allowing free movement of the shoulder away from the body. Along with the rib cage, the clavicle helps protect the heart from external trauma.

What is the reason for the PA projection of the clavicle?

A common projection included in the Clavicle series is the Clavicle AP view. By showing the shoulder in its normal anatomical position, the projection enables a sufficient radiography study of the entire clavicle.

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The diet of humans is very flexible and wide-ranging, although the actual foods most people eat are quite limited. Group of answer choices True False

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The statement "diet of humans is very flexible and wide-ranging, although the actual foods most people eat are quite limited" is true.

Human beings are multicellular organisms that are heterotrophic in nature and thus, are not able to produce their own food. They depend on other organisms for their food. The diet of humans is diverse and flexible which includes various dishes (veg and non-veg). This diversity in the diet of humans includes only four limited organic molecules like proteins, carbohydrates, fats, and nucleic acids. Therefore, even after the diversity in the diet human beings eat quite a limited food type.

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What drug or substance that might change the way things work in a synapse

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Stimulants and depressants have an effect on the synapses among neurons in the frightened system:

stimulants purpose greater neurotransmitter molecules to diffuse throughout the synapse.depressants stop the next neurone sending nerve impulses.

Psychotropic drugs exert their outcomes by changing a synaptic occasion. these alterations in the end change the pastime of a neurotransmitter. some psychotropic drugs facilitate the effects of a neurotransmitter, and are referred to as agonistic.

Tablets make their effects regarded via performing to beautify or intervene with the interest of neurotransmitters and receptors in the synapses of the mind. some neurotransmitters carry inhibitory messages across the synapses, at the same time as others bring excitatory messages.

Amphetamine, heroin, marijuana, nicotine, alcohol, and prescription painkillers, can regulate a person's conduct by way of interfering with neurotransmitters and the regular communique between brain cells.

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The nurse reinforces teaching for a client newly diagnosed with primary open-angle glaucoma. Which of the following client statements indicate that teaching has been effective

Answers

The statement by the client which shows that the teaching has been effective is; "taking the drugs regularly is important so that loss of vision does not occur"

What is  primary open-angle glaucoma?

The primary open-angle glaucoma is one of the types of glaucoma which a person could have without showing any sign of bad vision until it progresses to the point in which the person undergoes a complete vision loss.

The statement by the client which shows that the teaching has been effective is; "taking the drugs regularly is important so that loss of vision does not occur"

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A licensed physician who suffers from an impairment that affects their ability to actively practice medicine must report this impairment to the Medical Board at the time they renew their license.

Answers

True, A licensed physician who suffers from an impairment that affects their ability to actively practice medicine must report this impairment to the Medical Board at the time they renew their license.

After your registration expires, you have a grace period of thirty days during which you can renew it without incurring any fees. The Medical Board makes your arrest record available to the public. Each time you are arrested, you are required to notify the Board right away.

Can you practice medicine in Texas with expired license?

However, neither the Texas Medical Board regulations nor the Texas Occupation Code authorize a doctor to practice without a valid license for even a single day. And to make matters worse, every day a doctor practices medicine without a valid license is regarded as a brand-new criminal offense.

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Which of the following is a benefit of static stretching after an exercise session? Reduces muscle soreness Reduces muscle pliability Increases muscle inflammation Reduces muscle length

Answers

Static stretching is an activity which is performed after going through an exercise session because this helps to remove muscle tension. This is done by stretching the muscles till the point to which they can be stretched and then that position is held for a few seconds.

Correct answer-

Reduces muscle soreness- This is the correct answer because static exercises reduces the tension in muscles after an exercise session. It also increases the flexibility of muscles.

Incorrect answers-

Reduces muscle pliability- This is incorrect because, muscle pliability increases after performing static exercises. The extent to which muscles can bend increases after tension is reduced by static stretching.Increases muscle inflammation- This is incorrect because muscle inflammation decreases after performing static stretching due to the release of tension. Reduces muscle length- This is also incorrect because muscle length cannot be reduced by stretching.

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