The client's care plan should take into account the client's spasticity, reduced range of motion, and bone demineralization and contractures.
What is the procedure for removing spinal tumors?General anesthesia is used to accomplish spinal tumor resection. The cancer is removed, the wound is typically closed with staple or nylon stitch, and a sample of the tumor is submitted to a lab for evaluation. An small incision to expose the spine and nerves.
What negative effects might a spinal tumor operation have?Depending on the treatment, recovery following spine surgery could take weeks or even longer. A momentary loss of feeling or other issues, such as bleeding or nerve tissue injury, could occur.
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which interventions are appropriate for a client with diabetes and poor wound healing? select all that apply. question 9 options: instruct the family about how to perform dressing changes teach the client about signs and symptoms of infection perform dressing changes twice a day as ordered gently refocus patient from discussing body image changes administer medications to control the client's blood sugar as ordered
The interventions appropriate for client with diabetes and poor wound healing are:
instruct the family about how to perform dressing changes.teach the client about signs and symptoms of infection.perform dressing changes twice a day as ordered.administer medications to control the client's blood sugar as ordered.Diabetes is the condition where the concentration of dissolved sugar in the blood is very high. It can happen due to ineffective working of insulin producing cells or due to failure of cells to utilize blood sugar for energy.
Infection is the presence of pathogens at any location inside or on the body. The general symptoms include: fever, chills, redness, sneezing, etc.
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a nurse researcher examines the risk factors of obesity. which statements does the nurse find true? select all that apply. Risk factors that identify the odds of being diagnosed with obesity are not clearly defined.Causes of obesity are complex and multifactorial.Obesity increases the risk of of mortality.Obesity decreases the overall life expectancy.
A nurse researcher examines the risk factors of obesity therefore the statements which the nurse would find true include the following below:
Risk factors that identify the odds of being diagnosed with obesity are not clearly defined.Causes of obesity are complex and multifactorial.Obesity increases the risk of mortality.Obesity decreases the overall life expectancy.What is Obesity?This is referred to as a disorder which is characterized by the presence of excessive body fat in an individual that increases the risk of health problems such as cardiovascular disease etc.
It increases the risk of mortality and also decreases the the overall life expectancy of humans.
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which of the following statements is most accurate? hbv vaccine has small parts of the hepatitis b virus, so it can cause hbv infection. hbv vaccine is recommended for unvaccinated adults who are at risk for hbv infection. workers exposed to human blood, body fluids, or opim must receive the hbv vaccination to work in the laboratory. hbv is a mild disease and there is no need for any vac
hbv vaccine has small parts of the hepatitis b virus, so it can cause hbv infection following statements is most accurate .
Does the virus present in the Hep B vaccination exist?Because there are no live viruses in the vaccination, it cannot spread hepatitis B. The World Health Organization has stated that due to the seriousness of the condition, hepatitis B immunization should be given to all newborns worldwide.
All known subtypes of the hepatitis B virus are preventable by the use of the hepatitis B vaccine. The usage of Recombivax HB is permitted in people of all ages. Energix B and Recombivax HB are two of the several commercial names for the hepatitis B vaccine.
Infants, kids, and adults who receive the hepatitis B vaccination are shielded against the disease.
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the nurse instructs a client with chronic kidney disease who is receiving hemodialysis about dietary modifications. the nurse determines that the client understands these dietary modifications if the client selects which items from the dietary menu?
The diet of a hemodialysis patient with chronic kidney disease must include controlled amounts of sodium, potassium, calcium, phosphorus, and fluids.
Can dialysis patients consume vegetables?
Because these types of dialysis can eliminate more potassium, you may need to eat more potassium-rich foods. Leafy green vegetables are a good way to add potassium to your diet and reduce the need for a potassium supplement.
Renal dietitians and nurses advise most hemodialysis patients to eat high-quality protein since it generates less waste for removal during hemodialysis. Meat, poultry, fish, and eggs are good protein sources.
Therefore, Cut out processed meats high in sodium and phosphorus, such as hot dogs and canned chili.
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after teaching a group of nursing students about seizures, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the group identifies seizures that do not impair consciousness but can involve the senses or motor ability as which type?
After teaching a group of nursing students about seizures, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when they identifies seizures that do not impair consciousness but can involve motor ability as a Partial seizure type.
Since focal seizures start in one specific area of the brain, they are also known as partial seizures. Any focused injury that causes scar tangles might be the reason for them. In around half of those who experience focal seizures, a cause (such as trauma, a stroke, or meningitis) may be determined by medical history or an MRI. When abnormal electrical activity affects a specific region of the brain, it causes a partial (focal) seizure.
Simple partial seizures are recognized when the seizure has no impact on consciousness. Straightforward examples of partial seizures include: body muscles are affected by motor disorders. A simple partial seizure has a small chance of developing problems. For example, during a seizure, it is less probable that a person will unintentionally breathe in food.
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the nurse teaches a client diagnosed with hypertension to self-measure blood pressure with an automated device. which client behavior indicates the need for additional teaching?
The patients need to do this when they are taught to use an automatic blood pressure measuring device under what circumstances when their blood pressure will be measured, what blood pressure is normal and ask things to avoid when high blood pressure.
Hypertension is a condition when the pressure of the blood against the walls of the arteries is too high. Usually, hypertension is defined as blood pressure above 140/90 and is considered severe if the pressure is above 180/120.
High blood pressure often has no symptoms. Over time, if left untreated, it can lead to health problems like heart disease and stroke. A healthy diet with less salt, regular exercise, and taking medication can help lower blood pressure.
The causes of hypertension are an unhealthy lifestyle. For example, smoking habits, consuming too much salty food, consuming too much sweet food, and lack of physical activity.
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a medical assistant is measuring the circumference of an infant's head. which of the following actions should the assistant take
The action that the medical assistant should follow is to place the zero mark of the measuring tape against the infant's forehead.
Who is a medical assistant?A medical assistant is defined as the individual that is professionally trained and is licensed to offer assistance to physicians with the purpose of rendering an effective care to patients.
The roles and responsibilities of a medical assistant Include the following:
Taking medical histories.Explaining treatment procedures to patients.Preparing patients for examinations.Assisting the physician during examinations.Collecting and preparing laboratory specimens.Performing basic laboratory tests.Instructing patients about medication and special diets.The circumference of an infant's head is one of the physical assessments that is be carried out in infants that are suspected to have nutritional deficiencies.
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the nurse is caring for a patient who begins to complain of shortness of breath. the nurse assesses the patient and notes 3 pitting edema bilaterally in the lower extremities. which medication taken by the patient causes the most concern?
Oprelvekin (interleukin-11) taken by the patient causes the most concern
What is edema ?Edema is a swelling of the tissues of your body brought on by fluid. It can affect the entire body, although it typically affects the feet, ankles, and legs. Causes of edoema include excessive salt intake
Edema can result from medication side effects, pregnancy, infections, and a host of other medical conditions. Small blood arteries in your body might leak fluid into adjacent tissues to cause edema. The tissue swells as a result of the excess fluid amassing. Almost anything in the body is a potential location.Your skin may stretch due to edema, and if it is not addressed, swelling may worsen and result in major health issues. Depending on the source, edoema may be a temporary or chronic illness.Learn more about Edema here:
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a 32-year-old warehouse worker presents for evaluation of low back pain. he notes a sudden onset of pain after lifting a heavier-than-usual set of boxes. he also states that he has numbness and tingling in the left leg. what test should the nurse perform to assess for a herniated disc?
A straight leg raise test should the nurse perform to assess for a herniated disc.
The straight leg raise test, also known as the Lasegue test, is a basic procedure used during the physical examination of a patient suffering from lower back pain.
This test can be positive in various conditions, the most common of which is lumbar disc herniation. Facet joint cysts or hypertrophy are two other causes of a positive straight leg raise test. This activity explains the pathophysiology of low back pain and emphasizes the interprofessional team's role in managing patients with a positive straight leg raise test.
The patient must be in a specific position for the straight leg raise test. It also necessitates movement in specific joints. Some contraindications to performing the straight leg raise test include:
The patient does not consent to the test.
Due to underlying issues such as serious spinal disease, advanced scoliosis, and so on, the patient is unable to lie down straight.
The patient has advanced knee or hip joint disease, which makes the procedure extremely painful for the patient.
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a client presents to the ed with a myocardial infarction. prior to administering a prescribed thrombolytic agent, the nurse must determine whether the client has which absolute contraindication to thrombolytic therapy?
Thrombolytic therapy (additionally known as thrombolysis) is the usage of medications to dissolve blood clots. Thrombolysis reduces damage to your frame's organs and tissues while there are clots by way of enhancing blood waft.]
Thrombolytic remedies can encompass the usage of medicinal drugs to ruin blood clots or prevent new blood clots from forming. it's also known as fibrinolytic therapy. some of these clot-busting capsules are taken by mouth.
Thrombolytic dealers set off plasminogen to form plasmin, which hastens the lysis of thromboembolic. The thrombolytic remedy is used in patients with acute pulmonary embolism (PE) to rapidly dissolve the embolic burden and enhance cardiorespiratory hemodynamics.
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anastasia is a neurosurgeon who specializes in the cerebrum. what report did she most likely publish? a. the brain and the endocrine system: working together b. keeping the heart pumping without any brain power c. how patients maintain posture and balance following injuries d. why patients lose memories after brain surgery
The doctor is most likely to publish a book on Why Patients Experience Memory Loss Following Brain Surgery.
The cerebrum, or front of the brain, is composed of white and gray matter (the cerebral cortex). The cerebrum, the main region of the brain, regulates temperature as well as beginning and directing movement. Speech, judgment, thinking and reasoning, problem-solving, emotions, and learning are all enabled by different parts of the cerebrum. Touch, hearing, sight, and other senses are examples of extracurricular activities.
Memory loss and other cognitive issues can be brought on by a number of circumstances, including depression, infections, and severe medication responses. Occasionally, the issue may be remedied, and cognition improves. In other circumstances, the issue is an irreversible brain illness such as Alzheimer's.
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the nurse is caring for an infant that is awaiting cardiac surgery to correct a congenital heart defect. which assessment findings does the nurse determine is an early indicator that the infant is developing heart failure?
While evaluation the nurse determine respiratory trouble, immoderate sweating and boom troubles and high blood pressure as an early indicator that the toddler is growing coronary heart failure.
The nurse is being concerned for an toddler this is looking ahead to cardiac surgical operation to accurate a congenital coronary heart defect. Some ability symptoms and symptoms of coronary heart troubles in babies consist of:
1.feeding troubles
2.respiratory trouble
3.immoderate sweating
4.boom troubles
5.low blood pressure
Additional symptoms and symptoms may also consist of a quick coronary heart fee that exceeds one hundred fifty beats in step with minute Trusted Source and a quick respiratory fee that exceeds 50 breaths in step with minute. Diagnosing coronary heart failure in babies A medical doctor may also base trusted Source a initial analysis of coronary heart failure at the symptoms. They may additionally order chest X-rays to search for expansion of the coronary heart. If they believe coronary heart failure, the medical doctor may also refer the kid to a pediatric or congenital coronary heart cardiologist, who may also order extra tests. This may also consist of an EKG to compare coronary heart rhythm and an echocardiogram, an ultrasound of the coronary heart that assesses coronary heart feature and structure.
Signs of congestive coronary heart failure consist of speedy respiratory, regularly with gasping breaths, and terrible weight gain. Heart infections. Congenital coronary heart defects can boom the threat of contamination of the coronary heart tissue (endocarditis), which can result in new coronary heart valve troubles. Irregular coronary heart rhythms (arrhythmias). Congenital coronary heart sickness may also first of all be suspected in the course of a habitual ultrasound experiment of the infant withinside the womb. Specialist ultrasound, known as foetal echocardiography, will then be achieved at round 18 to 22 weeks of the being pregnant to try and verify the precise analysis.
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assessment findings of a patient ejected from a motorcycle indicate that he has a flail chest wall segment to his right anterior chest. he exhibits labored breathing and a spo2 at 94%. breath sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. the segment has been stabilized, and you are prepared to start positive pressure ventilation. given these assessment findings, what type of injury underlying the flail segment is your primary concern
Assessment findings indicate that he has a flail chest wall segment to his right anterior chest, exhibits labored breathing and a spo2 at 94%, so Pulmonary contusion is injury underlying the flail segment is primary concern.
A pulmonary contusion is an injury to the respiratory organ parenchyma within the absence of laceration to respiratory organ tissue or any vascular structures. It always results from blunt chest trauma, shock waves related to penetrating chest injury, or explosion injuries. These injuries will cause respiratory organ failure and death
A flail chest arises once these injuries cause a phase of the chest wall to maneuver severally of the remainder of the chest wall. A flail chest will produce a major disturbance to metabolism physiology. This disturbance in metabolism operate is vital in patients who are older or who have chronic lung unwellness.
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Mr. Lucas is a man with Alzheimer's disease who no longer communicates verbally. His feet have dry skin and you need to apply lotion to them and change his socks. How should you proceed?
For Mr. Lucas who has Alzheimer's disease and can no longer communicate verbally, to apply lotion to his feet to prevent dry skin the best way to proceed is by communicating with body language and facial expressions.
How should a person with Late-stage Alzheimer's disease be cared for?Alzheimer's disease patients can be supported with concentration planning and orientation through:
Engaging them in their favorite hobbiesSupporting them with communication by paying attention to their body language and facial expressionsHelping them with mobilityMonitoring their eating and drinkingAiding them with their toilet schedulesLearn more on Alzheimer's disease here: https://brainly.com/question/18406872
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You should check the resraints position every
Answer:
every 15 minutes or as directed by whomever is giving the instructions
Explanation:
how should the healthcare professional reply when parents question why a computed tomographic (ct) scan of the head was not ordered for their 5-year-old child after a minor fall?
Answer it as their child doesn't meet the indication for CT-scan and the risks outweigh the benefits if a child is going to CT-scan but does not meet the indications.
Traumatic Brain Injury ImagingFor head injuries, the best imaging is a CT scan. Besides being able to visualize bones well, CT scans can also show edema, bleeding, contusions, ventricular shifts. Besides that, in emergency cases such as head injuries that require a diagnosis in a short time, CT scanning is also superior to MRI which requires a long time.
However, not all patients after head injuries have to undergo a CT scan. For children 2-18 years old, there are indications for a CT scan using the PECARN Pediatric Head Trauma CT Decision Guide approach.
High risk (immediate CT scan)
Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) <15 Sign of basilar skull fracture (raccoon eyes, battle sign, rhinorrhea, otorrhea) Altered mental status (agitation, somnolence, slow response, repetitive question)Intermediate risk (consider to CT-scan)
Vomiting Loss of consciousnessSevere headacheSevere mechanism of injury (fall > 5 ft, bike/pedestrian vs vehicle, struck by high impact object)If you are at intermediate risk, you may consider having a CT scan with the following factors:
Worsening condition at time of evaluation Experience of physician Preference of parentWhen a child with a head injury does not meet the indication criteria for a CT scan, tell the parents:
There is no indication for doing a CT-scan CT-scan has a fairly high level of radiation, many times higher than regular X-rays because it takes image per layer of the body. The child will be placed in a narrow tunnel. If the child is less cooperative and moves around in the CT-scan device, the result will not be good.Learn more about CT-Scan here: https://brainly.com/question/21049445
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a child with spastic cerebral palsy receiving intrathecal baclofen therapy is admitted to the pediatric floor with vomiting and dehydration. the family tells the nurse that they were scheduled to refill the baclofen pump today but had to cancel the appointment when the child became ill. which action should the nurse take?
The nurse should arrange for the pump to be refilled in the hospital.
Pump refills are planned ahead of predicted low-volume warnings by several days in order to prevent baclofen withdrawal. Insisting that the pump be filled as soon as possible should be the nurse's top priority. Baclofen should never be abruptly stopped because it might cause serious side effects such as high fever, tight muscles, altered awareness, and even death.
A low dose or withdrawal may result from waiting until the child is discharged from the hospital for a refill. The client is put in danger if they wait for the low-volume alarm since sometimes the team members who can refill the pump and provide the medication are not immediately available.
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nursing students are reviewing information about the advantages and disadvantages of the different types of feeding tubes. the students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which as an advantage of a nasointestinal feeding tube?
Nursing college students are reviewing information approximately the blessings and disadvantages of the distinct styles of feeding tubes. the students demonstrate knowledge of the records after they identify a reduced chance for aspiration.
Tube feeding also has dangers of its own, including infections and leaks across the tube. in addition, some sufferers with feeding tubes need to be limited physically or with pills to keep them from trying to eliminate the tubes. hardly ever, feeding tubes can reason critical contamination and death.
A prime complication of aspiration is damage to the lungs. when food, drink, or stomach contents make their way into your lungs, they could harm the tissues there. The harm can on occasion be severe. Aspiration additionally increases your chance of pneumonia.
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the nurse is caring for a client who, because of cultural beliefs, attributes their anxiety to a supernatural cause. when developing a plan of care for this client, which information would be most important for the nurse to keep in mind?
Nurses should accommodate each client's cultural beliefs and values whenever possible, unless there is direct conflict with essential health practices. communication, fosters mutual respect, promotes sensitive and effective care, and increases adherence with the treatment plan client's and family needs met.
What is cultural belief ?Cultural beliefs, which differ from knowledge in that they are not based on empirical discovery or analytic proof, are the concepts and ideas shared by a number of people that control interaction both within and among these people, as well as between them, their gods, and other groups.
Many diverse things, including one's religion, ancestry, skin colour, language, class, education, career, skill, family, and political opinions, have an impact on one's cultural identities. These elements play a role in the formation of one's identity.Learn more about Cultural belief here:
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a toddler who has been hospitalized for vomiting due to gastroenteritis is sleeping and difficult to wake up. assessment reveals vital signs of a regular heart rate of 230 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 30 per minute, bp of 84/52, and capillary refill time of 3 seconds. which dysrhythmia does the nurse suspect in this child?
A toddler who has been hospitalized for vomiting because of gastroenteritis is slumbering and difficult to awaken Supraventricular tachycardia.
Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is usually not existence-threatening until we got heart harm or other heart conditions. but, in severe instances, an episode of SVT might also motivate unconsciousness or cardiac arrest.
Most people with supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) do not need remedy. but, if we have long or frequent episodes, our health care company may endorse the Carotid sinus rubs down. A healthcare company applies gentle stress at the neck in which the carotid artery splits into branches.
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a client is hospitalized for open reduction of a fractured femur. during the postoperative assessment, the nurse notes that the client is restless and observes petechiae on the client's chest. which nursing action is indicated first?
Oxygen administration is a recommended nursing action for all patients who are having trouble breathing. When a patient's room air saturation reaches 98%, oxygen is recommended.
Why do we give oxygen?Numerous factors can lead to the administration of oxygen. Increased metabolic demand, maintaining oxygenation while administering anesthesia, supplementation during diagnosis of pulmonary diseases that affect oxygen exchange, treating headaches, and carbon monoxide exposure are a few instances for its initiation.
Which is the most popular way to administer oxygen?Typically, a healthcare professional can apply nasal prongs and a straightforward face mask (low-flow oxygen apparatus). A respiratory therapist must set up and use any additional oxygen equipment (high-flow systems). Nebulizer treatments for asthmatics should use more oxygen than 6 L/min.
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foods that are high in dietary fiber (like whole grains) usually contain both soluble and insoluble fiber. according to the spreadsheet report, there are 2.3 grams of soluble fiber (fib-s) and 1.6 grams of insoluble fiber (fib-i) in the oatmeal. what is the primary benefit of the insoluble fiber in oatmeal?
The primary benefit of the insoluble fiber in oatmeal is that when the food reaches your digestive tract the insoluble fibers that are present in the oatmeal will not be broken down and also it will not absorb water as well so instead it will add more bulk to your stool and hence will create a regular bowl moment.
Oats, beans, peas, apples, carrots, barley, citrus fruits, psyllium, and oat bran all contain fiber that is insoluble This type of fiber can be helpful for people who experience irregular stools or constipation since it encourages the flow of material through your digestive system and increases stool bulk.
Among the health advantages is Losing weight Insoluble fiber, like soluble fiber, can help people manage their weight by reducing hunger. Digestive health: Insoluble fiber helps keep you regular and can help you feel better if you become constipated. Eating more of it can assist weight loss and digestive health.
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a client with left-sided weakness needs assisted living. the client's family plans to sell the client's home to pay for assisted living, but the client refuses to sell because the client feels that the family should pay the expenses. what would the nurse do at this time?
The greatest way to soothe a patient who needs assisted living and has left-sided weakness is to ask the woman to share her experiences with the home.
A common consequence of stroke is hemiparesis, which results in weakness on one of the body's sides. Your mobility may be restricted by this one-sided weakness, which may also have an impact on your ability to dress, eat, and walk. Hemiplegia and hemiparesis are frequently misunderstood.
One of the 5 Major Moral Standards in Healthcare is represented by the action the nurse made.
I. NON-MALFEASANCE.
II. BENEFICENCE.
III. UTILITY.
IV. DISTRIBUTIVE JUSTICE.
V. AUTONOMY.
Gently inform them that you believe they may be experiencing a panic attack, let them know you are for them, and urge them to take deep breaths.
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a client with a history of chronic pyelonephritis has been admitted several times with recurrent bacterial infection of the urinary tract. the nurse should anticipate educating this client with regard to which common treatment regimen?
Even if the infection's symptoms go away, you should still take antibiotics for the full 10 to 14 days.
Why do antibiotics exist?Antibiotics are drugs that treat bacterial illnesses in people and animals by either eradicating the bacteria of making it difficult for the bacterial growth and reproduce. A germ is a bacteria.
Is antibiotic use ever necessary?Antibiotics Are Required When. Only certain bacterial infections require the use of antibiotics, while some bacterial infections can be treated successfully without them. We depend on antibiotics to treat severe, perhaps fatal illnesses including pneumonia or sepsis, the body's severe reaction to an infection.
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a 56-year-old client who suffers from seasonal affective disorder is being assessed by the nurse in an outpatient mental health clinic. the nurse is aware which treatment is the most effective type of treatment for this condition?
Light therapy treatment is perhaps the most effective form of treatment for the this condition.
What are the benefits of light therapy?A light therapy box simulates outdoor light. This type of light is thought to cause a chemical change inside the brain that lifts your mood and alleviates other SAD symptoms such as being tired almost all of the time and sleeping excessively.
Who should not use laser therapy?The main contraindications for using light therapy are diseases involving the retina of the eye, such as diabetes, including the use of photosensitizing medicines such as lithium, melatonin, triazine antipsychotics, and certain antibiotics.
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following resuscitation, an infant weighing 1,814 g (4 lb) is admitted to the nicu. the nurse would initiate enteral feedings based on which assessment?
Following resuscitation, an infant weighing 1,814 g (4 lb) is admitted to the NICU, then the nurse would initiate internal feedings based on the assessment of the heart rate of the newborn.
What are the assessment based on after resuscitation?A rise in the heart rate of baby is the best indicator of a successful response to the resuscitative techniques.
Current NRP guidelines recommend the use of umbilical cord palpation, auscultation, pulse oximetry and electrocardiography for the assessment during neonatal resuscitation at birth.
Newborns who require resuscitation at birth are transferred to an environment where close monitoring and anticipatory care can be provided.
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the nurse is conducting a head-to-toe assessment of a patient at the beginning of a shift. the nurse has palpated the patient's radial pulse for 1 minute to determine the patient's heart rate and has detected an irregular rhythm. how should the nurse follow-up this assessment finding?
Auscultate the patient's apical pulse and feel the patient's radial pulse at the same time.
Look for a pulse deficit if the rhythm is off. A pulse deficit occurs when the radial pulse is weaker than the apical pulse. This means that there are less perceptible pulses at the radial location than there are beats audible when the apical pulse is auscultated. Normally, when a heart is perfusing the periphery, there is no pulse deficit. According to experts, a pulse deficiency of more than 10 should be looked into further, especially if it's accompanied by additional symptoms.
Use the following procedures to check for a pulse deficit:
Additionally to palpating the radial pulse, auscultate the apical pulse. Usually, you can accomplish both at once and note whether they are equal.If they are not equal, count the apical pulse for a minute before counting the radial pulse. Next, calculate the client's pulse deficit by deducting the radial pulse from the apical pulse. Using the apical and radial pulses as an example, if the apical pulse is 90 beats per minute and the radial pulse is 72 beats per minute, you can calculate the pulse deficit as 18 beats per minute (90 - 72 = 18), which means that during those 18 times the heart contracts, the periphery is not receiving blood flow.Learn more about radial pulse here
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the client with preeclampsia asks the nurse why she is receiving magnesium sulfate. the nurse's most appropriate response to is to tell the client that the priority reason for giving her magnesium sulfate is to
According to the research, the correct answer is it reduces the risk of eclampsia. The nurse's most appropriate response to is to tell the client with preeclampsia that the priority reason for giving her magnesium sulfate is to reduce the risk of eclampsia.
What is preeclampsia?It is a disease that occurs in the third trimester of pregnancy and is characterized by the appearance of hypertension, edema and proteinuria.
In this sense, if it is not treated properly it can evolve towards the eclamptic attack (convulsions) where magnesium sulfate is the medicine of choice to prevent said convulsions (eclampsia) in women with preeclampsia.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, magnesium sulfate, when administered to women with preeclampsia, which is a syndrome unique to pregnancy, reduces the risk and prevents seizures in the event of eclampsia.
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a malpractice lawsuit was filed after a nurse restrained the client for screaming at and attempting to strike anyone who was within striking distance. the nurse followed agency procedures that were consistent with joint commission standards. for which reason is this malpractice lawsuit most likely to be unsuccessful?
The lawsuit against the nurse who restrained the client for screaming at and attempting to strike anyone who was within striking distance will be unsuccessful because the nurse did not breach duty.
In this question, it is stated that a lawsuit was filed against a nurse because the nurse restrained a client for screaming and attempting to strike anyone who was within the striking distance. The nurse followed every agency's procedure which is compatible with Joint Commission standards. The lawsuit will be unsuccessful because the nurse did not breach duty.
In order to control the client and maintain the values and morals for the duty, the nurse only followed the procedure known to the joint commission and due to this, there was no breach of the duty. Hence, the lawsuit will be unsuccessful.
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the school nurse is doing a health class on the functional organization of the circulatory system. what is the function of the capillaries in the circulatory system? pump blood
The function of the capillaries is to act as a link between the arteries and veins and where the exchange of substances between the blood and tissue fluids takes place.
Blood vessels are part of the circulatory system that circulates blood to all parts of the human body. These vessels circulate blood cells, nutrients, and oxygen to the body's tissues and transport waste and carbon dioxide to be removed from the body.
Capillaries are a combination of branching arteries and veins. These vessels have very thin walls. This allows nutrients to enter the cells and tissues of the body. Inside the capillaries, the processes of filtration and absorption occur.
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