Nurse is caring for client who has been admitted with possible clotting disorder. The nurse knows to take extra care to check for signs of bruising or bleeding in : C)Hypocalcemia
What do you understand by hypocalcemia?Hypocalcemia or low serum calcium levels can affect clotting, therefore, in this condition, nurse should take extra care to check for bruising or bleeding.
Hypocalcemia is a treatable condition that happens when levels of calcium in the blood are too low. Many different health conditions can also cause hypocalcemia, and it's mostly caused by abnormal levels of parathyroid hormone or vitamin D in your body.
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a nurse has completed a client assessment and is preparing to identify appropriate nursing diagnoses. which areas would the nurse likely address in the diagnosis? select all that apply.
A nurse has completed client assessment and is preparing to identify appropriate nursing diagnoses. Areas that nurse would address in the diagnosis : a) Ineffective coping, d) Impaired mobility and e) Imbalanced nutrition.
What is nursing diagnoses?A nursing diagnosis is defined by NANDA International as clinical judgment concerning human response to health conditions processes, or vulnerability for that response, by an individual, family, group, or community.
Nursing diagnosis is part of the nursing process and is a clinical judgment about individual, family, or community responses to actual or potential health problems processes. Four types of nursing diagnosis are actual, risk, health promotion and Syndrome.
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a psychiatric-mental health nurse develops a plan that identifies strategies and alternatives to assist the client in attainment of expected outcomes. which standard of practice is the nurse utilizing?
During planning, the registered nurse develops a plan that details the approaches and options to take in order to accomplish the intended outcomes.
The registered nurse conducts a thorough investigation of the patient's condition and/or health during the examination. The registered nurse assesses the evaluation data in order to determine a diagnosis or pinpoint a problem. During implementation, the registered nurse executes (carries out) the specified plan. EDP guidelines state that objectives and results that directly impact patient care are defined at the planning stage. The achievement of these patient-specific goals contributes to a good result. Nursing care plans are essential throughout this stage of goal setting.
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a client has chronic hyponatremia, which requires weekly laboratory monitoring to prevent the client lapsing into convulsions or a coma. what is the level of serum sodium at which a client can experience these side effects?
Although it can vary slightly in different laboratories, hyponatremia is defined as a serum sodium content of less than 135 mEq/L.
When the amount of total body water exceeds the amount of sodium in the body, it results in hyponatremia, a common electrolyte disorder. The ratio of total body solutes, such as total body sodium and total body potassium, to total body water, as determined by Edelman, determines serum sodium concentration rather than total body sodium. A ratio imbalance when the entire amount of body water exceeds the total amount of body solutes is hyponatremia.
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oral ingestion of 4.5 g of drug x produces a blood concentration of 60.1 mg/l.if the person has a blood volume of 10.5 pints, how many total grams of drug x are absorbed from the gi tract? (2 pints
The total grams of drug x absorbed from the gi tract is 0.299 grams. The result is obtained by using the formula for concentration of a solution.
What is the concentration of a solution?In a solution, the concentration can be calculated by
C = n/V
Where
C = mass concentrationn = mass of soluteV = volume of solutionOral ingestion of 4.5 g of drug x produces a blood concentration of 60.1 mg/l. A person has a blood volume of 10.5 pints. Find the total grams of drug x that are absorbed from the gi tract!
We have:
C = 60.1 mg/LV = 10.5 pintsThe blood volume in liters is
10.5 pints = 10.5 × 0.473 liters
10.5 pints = 4.97 liters
With that concentration, the mass of drug x absorbed is
C = n/V
n = CV
n = 60.1 mg/L × 4.97 L
n = 299 mg
n = 0.299 g
Hence, the mass of drug x absorbed from the gi tract is 0.299 grams.
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a patient has contact dermatitis on the hand, and the nurse observes an area that is thickened and rough between the thumb and forefinger. what does the nurse know that this is significant of related to repeated scratching and rubbing?
Nurse knows that this is significant of related to repeated scratching and rubbing is Lichenification.
The secondary skin lesion lichenification is characterised by hyperpigmentation, thick skin, and highlighted wrinkles. These skin lesions manifest up as a result of repetitive rubbing or scratching of elbow-related regions. Hyperpigmentation, or the darkening of a skin area, frequently marks the start of the lesion. Little papules, or elevated, tiny skin lumps, usually appear after that. The skin might also get thicker, which would make the lines and patterns on the skin more noticeable.
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suppose that you were involved in an automobile accident and suffered a back injury. when examined by your physician you are told that you have a slipped disc in the lower back. what type of tissue is involved?
The type of tissue involved if a disc slips in the lower back is muscle tissue.
What is a low back injury?Low back pain is a pain in the waist or lower back that can be felt up to the buttocks and thighs. In some cases, the pain can even radiate to the legs.
The lower back is composed of the spine, ligaments, and muscles. This part of the body is a strong structure and plays an important role in supporting the body when standing upright and when moving in various directions.
Some of the causes of lower back pain are:
AccidentArthritisSpinal thinningLifting excess weightObesitySo if there is an accident and a disc slips in the lower back, it will disrupt the muscle tissue, causing pain.
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a nurse is educating a pregnant client in preterm labor on the use of the client's home monitoring equipment and medications. which factor could impede the client's ability to learn?
In order to take action, improve practice, and improve client outcomes, reflection must be intentional.
The actual name of the client?An opinion from a specialist is sought by a noun, which could be a person, a company, etc. An individual who utilizes the services of, registers with, or receives financial support from a welfare agency
What makes a customer different from another?A customer is someone who purchases products or services from a company, regardless of whether they are goods or services. A client is a special form of consumer who uses professional services provided by a business.
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which medication prescription would the nurse expect to see in the medical record prior to intubating a patient with a nasointestinal tube
In order to intubate a patient with a nasointestinal tube, the nurse would anticipate seeing a prescription for the medicine metoclopramide in the patient's medical file.
What is metoclopramide?Prokinetic agents, which include methoclopramide, are a group of drugs. By accelerating food transit time through the stomach and intestines, it achieves its desired effect.It helps prevent nausea and vomiting, which may occur after receiving chemotherapy or radiation therapy (treatment for cancer). It also helps prevent any sickness you might experience as a result of a migraine. if you recently underwent surgery.Patients who have experienced tardive dyskinesia or a dystonic response in the past should not use metoclopramide. With high doses or prolonged use, there is a risk of tardive dyskinesia (TD), which is covered in a boxed warning in the prescribing information that is mandated by the FDA.For more information on metoclopramide kindly visit to
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asthma, emphysema, and chronic bronchitis belong to a group of chronic respiratory conditions known as:
Asthma, emphysema, and chronic bronchitis belong to a group of chronic respiratory conditions known as Chronic Pulmonary Obstructive Disease
What is COPD?The term "chronic obstructive pulmonary disease," or "COPD," refers to a set of that impair breathing and impede airflow. Emphysema and persistent bronchitis are included. For the 16 million Americans who suffer from COPD, breathing becomes difficult.Your airways may narrow, swell, and create more mucus if you have asthma. This may impede breathing and cause coughing, wheezing when you exhale, and shortness of breath.Emphysema is a lung ailment that makes you feel breathless. The lungs' air sacs (alveoli) are harmed in emphysema patients.A productive cough that lasts at least three months and recurs for at least two years in a row is considered to be chronic bronchitis.For more information on chronic obstructive pulmonary disease kindly visit to
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a patient who has been newly diagnosed with diabetes and prescribed insulin therapy asks why more than one injection of insulin each day will be required. what is your best response?
The best response to a patient who asks why he needs more than one injection of insulin would be that "your blood insulin levels and patterns of food intake would not be accurately matched by a single daily dose of insulin".
Because type 1 diabetes causes the body to stop producing insulin, daily insulin injections are necessary for survival. In people with type 2 diabetes, the body either produces insufficient insulin or insulin that is produced does not function properly. This is the reason why diabetic patients need to take insulin more than once in a day to make their blood insulin levels and patterns of food intake.
Human insulin is used to control blood sugar in people with type 1 diabetes, a condition where the body cannot produce insulin and cannot, therefore, control the amount of sugar in the blood, or type 2 diabetes, a condition where the blood sugar is too high due to the body's inability to produce enough insulin, or the amount produced is not functioning.
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You are in the process of verifying and filling a prescription of Alprazolam for a patient, the patient has come into the store five times within the last six months. Knowing this is a schedule IV controlled drug, Federal law may restrict the amount of times it can be refilled after the original date of issue.
After the original date of issue, the prescription can only be refilled how many times?
A. Five times within six months from the date written.
B. Six times within 6 months from the date written.
C. Because Alprazolam is a highly diverted drug, it should not be refilled more than twice.
D. None of the above.
Federal law may restrict the amount of times it can be refilled after the original date of issue Five times within six month from the date written. The correct option to this question is C.
How often alprazolam prescription refilled? The total permissible quantity, including the initial prescription amount, does not exceed five refills and does not exceed six months from the date of issuing of the original prescription.Alprazolam is a Schedule II restricted drug. Prescriptions can only be refilled a certain number of times; consult your pharmacist if you have any questions.Depending on the individual, a single dose of Xanax can last anywhere from 31 hours to 134.5 hours (5.6 days) in the bloodstream. The calming, relaxing, and sedative effects of Xanax, on the other hand, normally wear off within eight to twelve hours.For more information on refill of prescription kindly visit to
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a client with coronary artery disease receives a prescription for clopidogrel (plavix) 300 mg po. the medication is available in 75 mg tablets. how many tablets should the nurse administer? (enter numeric value only.)
The nurse should administer the client with 4 tablets.
Since the prescription is 300 mg and available in 75g then the number of tablets should be 300/75 = 4 tablets.
Plavix is a brand name for diclofenac, an antiplatelet medicine used to lower the risk of heart disease and stroke in those who are predisposed to them. Aspirin is also utilized to treat heart attacks when a ventricular stent is implanted. It is administered orally. It is likely that the major blood arteries of the heart are ill or wounded.
Plaque accumulation is the most common reason. As a result, the coronary arteries constrict, reducing the volume of blood reaching the heart. Heart attacks and chest pain are two symptoms of coronary heart disease. Angioplasty, surgery, medication, and lifestyle modifications are among the treatment possibilities.
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a patient is diagnosed with a condition in which the brain cells cannot withstand low oxygen delivery long enough for cell-reversible changes to happen. which condition is the patient exhibiting?
The condition of the brain cells not being able to withstand low oxygen delivery long enough is hypoxia.
Hypoxia is a condition of low oxygen levels in the body's cells. As a result, cells in all parts of the body cannot function normally.
Normally, the oxygen obtained from the breathing process will be transported by the blood from the lungs to the heart. Furthermore, the heart will drink oxygen-rich blood to all body cells through blood vessels.
Hypoxia occurs when oxygen does not get to the cells in the body. This results in decreased oxygen levels in the body's organs and is followed by the appearance of various complaints and symptoms.
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tina has trouble sleeping. she wakes up around the same time each night feeling like she cannot breathe. her physician suspects she may have sleep apnea, a sleep disorder. which neuroimaging technique is her physician likely to use to determine if tina has a sleep disorder?
EEG is the neuroimaging technique which her physician likely to use to determine if tina has a sleep disorder.
An electroencephalogram (EEG) is a test that uses tiny metal discs (electrodes) connected to the scalp to assess electrical activity in the brain. Brain cells interact by electrical impulses and thus are constantly active, even while sleeping. On an EEG recording, this activity appears as wavy lines. One of the primary diagnostic tests for epilepsy is an EEG. An EEG can also be used to diagnose various types of brain diseases.
An EEG might potentially be used to establish brain death in somebody who has been in a coma for a long time. A continuous EEG is employed to assist in determining the appropriate amount of sedation for a person who is medically induced coma. EEGs are non-invasive and painless. Seizures are sometimes purposely induced in patients with epilepsy during the test, although proper medical treatment is provided if necessary.
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there are times when documentation is incomplete or insufficient to support the diagnoses found in the chart. the most common way of communicating with the physician for answers is by
The most common way of communicating with the physician for answers is by using established physician query protocols.
In order to support the evaluation of the medical necessity for the service provided and, occasionally, to establish the proper compensation, diagnosis codes are utilized in conjunction with procedure information from claims.
Boost patient confidence. In the absence of fractures or a snake bite, raise the patient's legs above the level of the heart while keeping their heads flat on the ground. Then, immobilize fractures and treat any wounds or burns. Adjust the tightness of your neck, chest, and waistline.
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the nurse cares for a client with a coagulation factor deficiency who is actively bleeding. which blood component replacement does the nurse anticipate administering?
FFP component replacement the nurse anticipate administering.
The liquid fraction of whole blood is used to create fresh frozen plasma (FFP), a component of blood. Low amounts of blood clotting factors or other blood proteins are used to treat several illnesses. In plasma exchange, it could also serve as the replacement fluid. While not required, using ABO compatible plasma may be advisable. It is not advised to use as a loudness expander. A vein receives a gentle injection of it.
Irritation and nausea are side effects. Rarely, infections, blood clots, and allergic reactions might occur. It is unknown if utilising it during pregnancy or when nursing a newborn is safe for the infant. Heart failure, protein S shortage, and IgA inadequacy all require extra vigilance.
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When assessing an elderly patient who fell, it is important to remember that:- bilateral hip fractures usually occur when an elderly person falls. - any fall in the elderly is considered to be high-energy trauma. - elderly patients who fall usually have a secondary head injury. - osteoporosis can cause a fracture as a result of a fall from a standing position.
It's crucial to keep in mind that osteoporosis can result in a fracture if an elderly patient falls from a standing position when evaluating them after a fall.
What are the consequences when an elderly person falls?With age, the risk of hip fracture increases. Due to the age-related weakening of bones, risk is increased (osteoporosis). Older persons are more prone to falling, one of the most prevalent causes of hip fracture, due to many drugs, poor vision, and balance issues.
If an elderly patient falls, look for wounds that might be indicated by bruising, skin discoloration, or signs of a break. Call an ambulance if the patient groans or cries out when you touch their limbs or when they try to move. Till aid arrives, keep them relaxed and lying down.
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for a patient with jaw pain, muscle spasms, drooling, and an inability to close his mouth, which intervention is indicated initially?
For a patient experiencing jaw pain, muscle spasms, drooling, and an inability to close his mouth, assist with jaw reduction is initially recommended.
What is jaw reduction?Surgery to narrow the lower third of the face, especially the mandible and its musculature, is known as jaw reduction or mandible angle reduction. There are numerous methods of treatment, both surgical and non-surgical. In order to make the jaw smaller, bone is removed during jawline surgery. This procedure is occasionally used to feminize the face. A jaw reduction concentrates on the area behind the ears of the jaw. It can aid in removing any protrusions and make the face appear slimmer overall.
Here,
Assist with jaw reduction is initially advised for a patient who is experiencing jaw pain, muscle spasms, drooling, and an inability to close his mouth.
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what is the name given to the only nationally accredited and credentialed nutrition experts in the united states?
In the United States, the terms nutritionist and dietitian are used interchangeably in the professional world.
What is nutritionist?An expert on food, nutrition, and the effects on health is referred to as a nutritionist. Some people choose to specialize in certain fields, including animal nutrition, public health, or sports nutrition, among others. Nutritionists deal with general nutritional aims and behaviors as opposed to dietitians, who are qualified to diagnose eating disorders and create diets to treat particular medical conditions. Schools, hospitals, cafeterias, long-term care facilities, and athletic organizations frequently employ nutritionists. Experts in food and diet, dietitians and nutritionists support people in maintaining good health and preventing or treating medical conditions. Dietitians and nutritionists are frequently miscategorized due to their varying credentials and training.
Here,
The terms nutritionist and dietitian are interchangeable in the professional world in the United States.
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which are clinical findings usually associated with type 1 diabetes mellitus (select all that apply)
Polyuria, Polydipsia and Polyphagia clinical findings usually associated with type 1 diabetes mellitus
What is diabetes mellitus ?A condition where the kidneys produce an excessive volume of urine and the body is unable to regulate the blood's level of glucose (a form of sugar). This condition develops when the body does not produce enough insulin or uses it improperly.
Two interconnected issues are the main causes of type 2 diabetes Insulin resistance develops in muscle, fat, and liver cells. They don't take in enough sugar because these cells don't interact with insulin normally. To control blood sugar levels, the pancreas cannot generate enough insulin.
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a client is taking prescription beta-blockers for hypertension. which exercise is the safest for him to perform?
Standing cobra exercise is the safest for him to perform when a client is taking prescription beta-blockers for hypertension.
What is hypertension?Usually, high blood pressure comes on gradually. Unhealthy lifestyle decisions, such as not engaging in enough regular physical activity, can contribute to it. Obesity and certain medical conditions like diabetes can raise one's risk of developing high blood pressure. High blood pressure is referred to as hypertension. Two numbers are recorded when taking your blood pressure. The systolic and diastolic blood pressures are indicated by those figures. The pressure in the arteries fluctuates between a higher pressure and a lower pressure as a result of the heart's pumping action. By enlarging your blood vessels, calcium channel blockers lower blood pressure. Amlodipine, felodipine, and nifedipine are typical examples. There are also other medications available, including verapamil and diltiazem. Constipation, swollen ankles, and headaches are a few potential side effects.
Here,
The safest exercise for him to perform when a client is taking prescription beta-blockers for hypertension is the standing cobra.
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a woman with an epidural is 10 cm dilated and the baby is at 0 station. there is a reassuring fetal heart pattern, although the woman does not feel the urge to push. which are appropriate actions by the nurse?
The appropriate action to be taken by the nurse when a woman with an epidural is 10 cm dilated and the baby is at station 0:
Instruct the patient to wait to push until he feels the urge.Encourage frequent position changes while remaining in bed.The movement of the baby into the pelvis is described based on the station, which is a standard gynecological measurement. The station is an indicator of where the baby's head is positioned ranging from -3 to +3. The highest station is -3, indicating that the baby's head is above the pelvis. Station +3 indicates that the baby is right in the birth canal, with the head starting to come out of the birth canal. While station 0 shows the baby in the right position, with the head at the bottom of the pelvis.
a 10 cm epidural is the complete opening, where the cervix has dilated by 10 cm. Mother will experience strong contractions with a long duration. At this stage, the baby's head is visible, the amniotic fluid continues to flow, and pushing can be done under the guidance of a midwife or doctor.
So, that when the epidural is 10 cm and the baby is in station 0, the nurse's action for the client is when there is an urge to push and change positions frequently while still in bed to stimulate the baby's pressure.
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why should the physcian order the medications using the generic name instead of the brand name
Answer:
Brand name medicines have higher healthcare costs. If product has bioequivalent alternatives, the phisicist dhould buy that one.
providing direct care to a client which action is true as related to the role of the registered nurse (rn) in active delegation?
Considering the costs of a registered nurse (RN) against an LPN. Choosing the kind of assistance that nursing staff will provide.
What is role of registered nurse?The nurse manager in the complete client care model of nursing compares the costs of RNs, LPNs, and unlicensed assistive personnel (UNP). A direct care nurse in the functional nursing paradigm is in charge of providing care to the group of clients. The nurse manager in the functional nursing model is in charge of providing care to a patient in an ambulatory clinic. The RN must delegate a task to an LPN; the nurse manager is not responsible for doing so.For more information on registered nurse kindly visit to
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which suggestion is made by the institute of medicine (iom) to promote a connected patient care approach?
The IOM study committee suggested six goals for improvement: health care should be egalitarian, timely, safe, and patient-centered. Two of those goals—patient-centered and equitable health care—are the main topics of this essay.
What does the medical institution do?The Institute of Medicine (IOM) is a nonprofit, nonpartisan body that operates independently of the government and offers objective guidance to the general public and decision-makers.
Why is IOM significant for nurses?The IOM claims that in order to create a health care system that provides the right care—high-quality care that is patient-centered, accessible, evidence-based, and sustainable—at the right time, it is necessary to transform the working atmosphere, scope of practise, education, and number of American nurses.
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Discuss 2 alternative treatments for end-stage heart failure.
The 2 alternative treatments for end-stage heart failure;1. Left Ventricular Assist Device: A left ventricular assist device is an implantable mechanical pump used to assist the heart in pumping blood.2. Cardiac Transplantation: Cardiac transplantation is a major surgery that involves replacing a patient’s damaged heart with a healthy donor heart.
What is the surgery ?
Surgery is a medical procedure that involves cutting into the body to repair, remove, or replace damaged or diseased tissue or organs. It is typically performed by a surgeon, although some surgical procedures are done by medical specialists such as obstetricians and ophthalmologists. Surgery is often used to treat conditions that may be too advanced or complex for other treatments, such as medications or physical therapy. Surgery can also be used to alleviate pain, improve function, and help patients live longer and healthier lives. Surgery can be done in a wide variety of ways and can range from minimally invasive procedures to complex operations that require significant recovery time.
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the nurse will administer which recommended immunizations to an 11- or 12-year-old client during a wellness visit? select all that apply.
A patient of school age would receive the Tdap, HPV, and MCV vaccines. Other vaccinations could be given as a catch-up shot, and some are given to kids who are thought to be at high risk.
What is immunization schedule for 12 years old?To keep kids up to date with immunizations, it's crucial that the nurse review immunization records at each visit while also considering any changes to immunization recommendations.
The NIP advises and pays for two immunization booster shots for teenagers. Your youngster will receive a whooping cough, diphtheria, and tetanus booster. This three-in-one vaccine is administered as a single injection dosage. The A, C, W, and Y strains of meningococcal disease will be strengthened for your youngster.
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Complete question:The nurse will administer which recommended immunizations to an 11- or 12-year-old patient during a wellness visit? Select all that apply.
Tetanus, diphtheria, pertussis (Tdap)
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Meningococcal vaccine (MCV)
a client is diagnosed with extreme thrombocytosis. the nurse knows this condition is a result of which elevated blood cell count?
the drug ritalin (methylphenidate) is commonly taken by people who have attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. this information reflects which method of classifying the drug?
This information reflects that Ritalin (methylphenidate) is classified by its therapeutic use.
Drugs can be classified in a variety of ways, including by their chemical structure, their therapeutic use, and their potential for abuse.
Ritalin (methylphenidate) is commonly taken by people who have Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD), which is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity.
Ritalin is a stimulant medication that works by increasing the levels of dopamine and norepinephrine in the brain, which can help to improve attention and reduce hyperactivity and impulsivity.
The therapeutic classification of drugs is based on their intended use, which is determined by the FDA (Food and Drug Administration) after clinical trials have been conducted.
The classification of Ritalin as a medication for ADHD reflects its therapeutic use as it has been approved for this specific indication.
In conclusion, the information that Ritalin (methylphenidate) is commonly taken by people who have attention deficit hyperactivity disorder reflects its therapeutic use method of classifying the drug.
This is because Ritalin is a stimulant medication that works by increasing the levels of dopamine and norepinephrine in the brain, which can help to improve attention and reduce hyperactivity and impulsivity, and it has been approved for this specific indication.
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1. Roberta Sleether is a new patient who saw Dr. Morganstern to report feeling tired all the time. She stated that she
was exhausted even after a full 8 hours of sleep at night. Roberta said that she did not have much of an appetite and
that she had been eating mostly salads and chicken with a bowl of fruit as snacks. She is not overweight and her
blood pressure and other vital signs were normal. Dr. Morganstern decided to perform a complete blood count, an
electrolyte panel, and a lipid panel. He also ordered a urinalysis, an iron-binding capacity, and a vitamin B₁2 test.
The physician asked if she had noticed any blood in her urine or stool, and she denied blood in the urine but did
mention she had several episodes of diarrhea. Dr. Morganstern added an occult blood test and a stool culture to check
for pathogens. The physician placed Roberta on multivitamin therapy and told her to return in 1 week to discuss her
laboratory test results. He spent approximately 30 minutes with Roberta, taking a detailed history and performing a
detailed examination, making low-complexity medical decisions. Roberta scheduled her appointment for the follow-
ing week and left the clinic.
2. Diagnosis: Left cheek laceration
Procedure: Repair left cheek laceration
After the patient was prepped with local anesthetic to the left cheek area, the cheek was dressed and draped with
Betadine. The 1.7 cm chin laceration of the skin was closed with three interrupted 6-0 silk sutures. Gentamicin
ointment was applied to the lacerations and a dressing was placed on the left cheek. The patient tolerated the
procedure well.
What is the appropriate CPT code for this procedure?
Can a modifier be used for this procedure? If so, what would be the most appropriate?
Because anesthesia was used, can an appropriate anesthesia CPT code be used?
3. Diagnosis: Abdominal pain
Procedure: Esophagogastroduodenoscopy with biopsy
The patient was premedicated and brought to the endoscopy suite where his throat was anesthetized with Cetacaine
spray. He then was placed in the left lateral position and given 2 mg Versed, IV.
An Olympus gastroscope was advanced into the esophagus, which was well visualized with no significant spasms.
Subsequently the scope was advanced into the distal esophagus, which was essentially normal. Then the scope
was advanced into the stomach, which showed evidence of erythema and gastritis. The pylorus was intubated and the duodenal bulb visualized . The duodenal bulb showed severe erythema suggestive of duodenitis .Biopsies of both the duodenum and the stomach were obtained .the scope was withdrawn the pariente tolerated the procedure well
I need the coding of cpt please helppp me
The ICD-10-PCS code(s) for the given operation is 0DB98ZX, 0DB68ZX.
What is ICD-10-PCS codes?A medical categorization coding system for procedural codes is called ICD-10-PCS. ICD-10-PCS codes are seven characters long and alphanumeric. All information from the "long description" and "table description" format files is included in the UMLS Metathesaurus.For a quick lookup of all current American ICD-10-CM (diagnosis) and ICD-10-PCS (procedure) medical billing codes, visit ICD10Data.com, a free reference website.The seven-character alphanumeric code format of ICD-10-PCS. Up to 34 different values are conceivable for each character. Each number stands for a particular choice for the overall character description (e.g., stomach is one of the values for the body part character).Tracking public health issues will benefit from better data quality thanks to CD-10-CM/PCS code sets (complications, anatomical location) enhanced information for epidemiological research (severity of illness, co-morbidities) measuring patient outcomes and care given.Learn more about ICD-10-PCS codes refer to ;
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