the nurse is conducting an admission assessment with a 45-year-old client who has been demonstrating signs of bipolar disorder. while conducting the assessment, the client starts speaking in illogical rhymes and using word associations. what is the name for this thought pattern?

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Answer 1

The name of the thought pattern of the patient is flight of ideas.

Flight of ideas, according to the American Psychological Association, is a sort of cognitive problem that leads certain people to speak quickly and change between loosely related thoughts when speaking.

Most individuals become enthusiastic from time to time and speak too rapidly or jump between thoughts that come to them. People are frequently aware of and accept the fact that they are speaking rapidly when this occurs.

Flight of ideas, on the other hand, is a form of mental disorder that might manifest as a symptom of another ailment. People suffering from this mental disorder are often unaware that they are moving from issue to subject since everything appears "related" to them.

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Related Questions

health lifestyles emphasizing exercise, a healthy diet, avoidance of unhealthy practices such as smoking, and so on originated in the: a. working class. b. lower class. c. upper lower class. d. lower middle class. e. upper middle class.

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Health lifestyles emphasizing exercise, a healthy diet, avoidance of unhealthy practices such as smoking, and so on originated in the Upper middle class

What is a health lifestyles ?

A healthy lifestyle is a way of life that reduces the chance of developing a major illness or passing away too soon. Although not all diseases may be prevented, a significant number of deaths, especially those caused by coronary heart disease and lung cancer, can be avoided.

Dietary choices, eating habits, usage of alcohol and cigarettes, and amount of exercise are some of the most significant behavioural factors influencing health. Furthermore, a person's likelihood of contracting a variety of fatal diseases is influenced by a number of individual activities.

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a client who has experienced nonunion of a fracture is scheduled for bone grafting using cadaver bone. the client appears restless and anxious about the procedure. after determining that the client understands the surgical procedure, the nurse should explore which item next?

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Bone grafting using cadaver bone is scheduled for a customer whose fracture has failed to heal. The customer seems uneasy and restless during the process. After ascertaining that the patient is aware of the surgical process, the nurse should inquire about any concerns the patient may have with developing hepatitis or perhaps an infection with the human immunodeficiency virus.

Without treatment (such as surgery), nonunion is a broken bone's inability to mend completely. It is common to refer to a fracture with nonunion as a "false joint" or pseudoarthrosis because it typically takes on the structural appearance of a fibrous joint. When there is no healing between two sets of diagnostic imaging, such as an X-ray or CT scan, the diagnosis is typically made. Usually, this happens 6 to 8 months later. A fracture's major consequence, nonunion, can happen when the fracture moves excessively, has insufficient blood supply, or becomes infected. Smokers are more likely to experience nonunion. Normal bone repair is halted or interfered with. In very few instances, a nonunion may continue to mend without treatment since the process of bone healing is highly unpredictable. Generally speaking, if a nonunion is still present at six months after the injury, it won't heal without special care, usually orthopaedic surgery. A delayed union is a non-union that eventually heals.

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while performing a routine history and pe on a 70-year-old male, you note a right carotid bruit. he denies any symptoms suggestive of a tia or cva. a carotid doppler us shows a 50% stenosis of the right common carotid artery. the next most appropriate step would be

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A carotid doppler us shows a 50% stenosis of the right common carotid artery initiate antiplatelet therapy with aspirin.

How serious is carotid artery?

Because carotid artery disease can cut off the blood supply to your brain and result in a stroke, it is a serious condition. A blockage may result from an artery with too much plaque. A blockage may also result from a blood clot or plaque fragment separating from an artery's wall.

Can carotid artery obstruction result from stress?

Stress speeds up the formation of plaque, which can build up in the arteries. It causes the platelets to become sticky and more prone to clotting, which might clog these arteries. Additionally, stress can narrow the arteries, depriving the heart of oxygen-rich blood and resulting in chest pain or a cardiac arrest.

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in educating a mother of a two-year-old client, the health care practitioner explains the importance of vitamin d through diet and exposure to sunlight. what are some sources of vitamin d that the health care practitioner can share with the mother?

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Some sources of vitamin d that the healthcare practitioner can share with the mother are Fish oils and fortified food products such as cereal.

A fat-soluble vitamin is vitamin D. (soluble in lipids). When exposed to UVB light from the sun, it is a hormone from ergosterol, a cholesterol derivative.

It comes in two forms: D2 (ergocalciferol), which plants create, and D3 (cholecalciferol), which is found in some lichens and animal products. They are 9,10-secosteroids, these two chemicals. The human body also makes vitamin D3 in the skin under the influence of UV radiation.

Under the effect of PTH, vitamin D has a role in the intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphorus and their subsequent reabsorption by the kidneys. The hormone calcitonin balances its effects. It participates in the mineralization and muscle tone of the skeleton and joints.

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a client with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (ckd) is presenting with fever and chest pain, especially when taking a deep breath. the nurse detects a pericardial friction rub on auscultation. which condition does the nurse suspect is common with this stage of kidney disease?

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A patient with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD) has chest pain, especially when inhaling deeply, and a fever. During auscultation, the nurse hears pericardial friction rub. Pericarditis is a problem that the nurse believes is typical of kidney disease at this stage.

Many persons with stage 5 CKD develop pericarditis as a result of their uremia and protracted dialysis. The symptoms of uremic pericarditis are similar to those of viral pericarditis, including all of its possible side effects, such as cardiac tamponade. The presenting symptoms include pericardial friction rub and mild to severe chest discomfort with respiratory accentuation. In the absence of infection, fever might vary and is more frequent in dialysis patients than in those with uremic pericarditis.

The thin, sac-like membrane that surrounds the heart (pericardium) experiences swelling and discomfort when it has pericarditis. Pericarditis may result from a viral infection or a cardiac stroke, among other things. The cause is frequently unknown. Sharp, stabbing chest discomfort that may radiate to the left shoulder and neck is the most typical symptom. Pericarditis typically starts suddenly and ends quickly. Most cases are minor and resolve on their own most of the time. Medication and (rarely) surgery are possible treatments for more severe conditions.

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an adolescent with well-controlled type 1 diabetes has assumed complete management of the disease and wants to participate in gymnastics after school. to ensure safe participation, the nurse should instruct the client to adjust the therapeutic regimen by:

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The nurse should instruct the client to adjust the therapeutic regimen by eating a snack before each gymnastics practice.

What is therapeutic regimen ?

A method of controlling and incorporating into everyday life a program(s) for the treatment of sickness and its aftereffects that is/are sufficient for achieving health-related objectives and can be enhanced.

A regimen is a set of predetermined steps you take to complete a task. Your objective can be to have clear skin, for instance. You might follow a routine that involves abstaining from bad foods, washing frequently with a quality product, and obtaining a full night's sleep.

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for the patient on the intensive care unit (icu) who sustained a motor vehicle crash, which action would the nurse implement to keep the patient's large family informed of the patient's status and decrease the number of status checks by the family?

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The best course of action the nurse should take to inform the patient's vast family of their condition is to ask the patient to designate a spokesman who will speak with the providers.

The best strategy to ensure that the patient's family is informed as soon as possible is to request that they appoint a spokesperson to facilitate communication between the patient's family and the medical staff. It is not appropriate to ask the family to check at the end of the shift because this is the worst time to learn about the patient owing to communication between caregivers as they switch changes. The family will not be able to stay informed of the patient's present condition by asking the doctor to schedule a patient-care conference for them. It is improper to ask security to accompany the family to the main lobby.

Hence, we can state that the patient should choose a spokesperson who will speak with the providers.

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Your question is incomplete. Please find the complete question below.

For the patient in the intensive care unit (ICU) who sustained a motor vehicle crash, which action would the nurse implement to keep the patient's large family informed of the patient's status and decrease the number of status checks by the family?

1 Ask the family members to check on the change of shift.

2 Ask security to escort the family from the waiting room to the main lobby.

3 Ask the healthcare provider to schedule a patient-care conference for the family.

4 Ask the patient to identify a spokesperson to communicate with the providers.

which client most likely faces the highest risk of developing secondary pulmonary hypertension? a client with asthma who uses her inhaled bronchodilator more often than prescribed an older adult client who has been hospitalized for the treatment of community-acquired pneumonia a client who suffered a thermal injury to his lungs in a fire a client with copd and a 35 pack-year smoking history.

Answers

The client which is at the highest risk of developing secondary pulmonary hypertension is a client with COPD and a 35 pack-year smoking history.

Secondary pulmonary hypertension is an advanced, severe malady that considerably affects the standard of life and over time results in right coronary failure. A timely analysis, correct treatment, regular follow up and patient education will absolutely have an effect on the result of the malady.

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a chronic inflammatory respiratory organ malady that causes obstructed flow of air from the lungs. Symptoms embody respiratory issue, cough, secretion (sputum) production and unhealthy. Smoking is that the main explanation for COPD and is believed to be answerable for around nine in each ten cases. The harmful chemicals in smoke will harm the liner of the lungs and airways.

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the mental health nurse is preparing a presentation about prescription drug abuse to a local community group. when describing the incidence, which age group would the nurse identify as experiencing an increase?

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The mental health nurse ought to concentrate on both sexes between the ages of 12 and 17 for educational interventions linked to prescription medication addiction.

What is mental health?

Our emotional, physical, and social well-being are all parts of our mental health. It influences our thoughts, emotions, and behaviors. Additionally, it influences how we respond to stress, interact with others, and make good decisions. Every period of life, from adolescence and childhood to maturity, is vital for mental health. Your emotional well-being is referred to as "mental health." Having a broad sense of wellbeing, confidence, and self-esteem is a sign of good mental health. Achieving strong mental health allows you to appreciate and design the life you desire, build healthy relationships with the others, and get through the day.

What is the main goal of mental health?

The objectives for mental health and mental disorders have included raising the level of living and enhancing the health of persons who experience these issues. Mental diseases affect people of all ages and from all racial and ethnic backgrounds, but some subgroups are disproportionately affected.

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the nurse determines the risk for a pressure ulcer in an older adult who is 6 feet tall and weight 155 pounds. which client information should the nurse use in planning care to reduce this individual's risk for a pressure ulcer? (select all that apply)

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The patient information that the nurse can use in planning care to reduce this individual's risk for a pressure ulcer include:

B. Dry mucous membranes

C. Prealbumin level of 7 mg/dL

D. Fasting glucose of 140 mg/dL

F. Uses food stamps to get food

How to illustrate the information?

One area of concern that the nurse should address is the possibility of skin breakdown as a result of arthritic pain or immobility. Because this man is underweight, malnourished, and dehydrated, as evidenced by dry mucous membranes, the nurse plans care to address dehydration as a significant risk factor for pressure ulcers.

Because water is required for intracellular functioning and cell durability, dehydration increases the risk of pressure ulcers. Because this man is underweight and malnourished, the nurse bases his care on an assessment of hypoproteinemia, which increases his risk of pressure ulcers significantly.

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Complete question

The nurse determines the risk for a pressure ulcer in an older adult who is 6 feet tall and weighs 155 lb. Which patient information should the nurse use in planning care to reduce this individual's risk for a pressure ulcer? (Select all that apply.) a. Osteoarthritis of the neck b. Dry mucous membranes c. Prealbumin level of 7 mg/dL d. Fasting glucose of 140 mg/dL e. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/dL f. Uses food stamps to get food

an older adult reports anxiety and is prescribed diazepam by a primary care provider. the office nurse is asked to explain to the client the problematic side effects of this medication. which instruction about this drug would be most important for the nurse to emphasize?

Answers

You may feel dizzy and be prone to falls after taking this medication  instruction about this drug would be most important for the nurse to emphasize.

When is anxiety too much?

A little anxiousness is normal, but persistent anxiety may result in more severe health issues, such hypertension (hypertension). Additionally, you can be more susceptible to illnesses. You may suffer from an anxiety condition or an anxiety attacks if you constantly feel anxious or if it interferes with your daily activities.

Does anxiety ever go away?

Anxiety is not entirely reversible because it is a normal aspect of being human. But experiencing anxiety should only last when a source of stress or trigger is present.

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when two or more diagnoses equally meet the definition for principal diagnosis, either one can be selected as the principal diagnosis.

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True. Any one of two or even more diagnoses may be chosen as the major diagnosis if they all equally match the criteria.

What exactly is a primary diagnosis?

The ailment that was determined through research to be the main factor in the patient's admission to a hospital for treatment is known as the principal or primary diagnosis. As an illustration, a patient may visit the emergency room when dehydrated and admitted for gastroenteritis.

The primary diagnosis is established in what way?

Only when a doctor has finished all essential tests and examinations is a principal diagnosis—the reason for a patient's first hospital admission—assigned. The disease that led to the patient's hospital admission is referred to as the primary diagnosis.

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a patient describes a history of intermittent and uncontrollable twitching of his right hand that spreads to involve the entire arm after a few minutes. afterward, the arm is extremely weak. there are no other areas of involvement, sensory deficit or altered consciousness. what is the most likely seizure diagnosis?

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The diagnosis for the patient is most likely simple partial seizure.

When there is an electrical shift in a particular area of the brain that impacts these signals, simple partial seizures can occur. Many different simple partial seizure syndromes have unknown causes, however hereditary factors may be involved.

They often come from the supplementary motor region and generate tonic contractions of the limbs and trunk on the same side as well as turning motions of the head and neck to the opposite side. There may or may not be widespread clonic movements after this. Uncontrolled electrical activity bursts known as seizures alter feelings, behaviors, consciousness, and muscular actions. Although epilepsy cannot be cured, there are several therapeutic alternatives. Up to 70% of epilepsy patients can control their condition with medication.

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which statement is true about emtala? a. a person who presents anywhere on the hospital campus and requests emergency services does not fall under emtala. b. emtala applies to physician's office. c. emtala primarily affects physicians and not the hospitals. d. emergency departments must post signs notifying patients and visitors of their right to a medical screening examination and treatment for emergency medical conditions.

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The statement which is true about EMTALA is d. emergency departments must post signs notifying patients and visitors of their right to a medical screening examination and treatment for emergency medical conditions.

In 1986, Congress enacted the Emergency Medical Treatment & Labor Act (EMTALA) to confirm public access to emergency services despite ability to pay. Section 1867 of the Social Security Act imposes specific obligations on Medicare-participating hospitals that provide emergency services to produce a medical screening examination (MSE) once missive of invitation is created for examination or treatment for an emergency medical condition (EMC), as well as active labor, despite a person's ability to pay. Hospitals are then needed to produce stabilising treatment for patients with EMCs. If a hospital is unable to stabilize a patient inside its capability, or if the patient requests, an applicable transfer ought to be enforced.

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a client is admitted to the health care facility with new onset of right-sided paralysis, slurred speech, and lethargy. a nurse obtains in the history that the client has uncontrolled hypertension and smokes 2 packs of cigarettes a day. which nursing diagnosis is priority for the client upon admission?

Answers

Risk for Aspiration should nursing diagnosis is priority for the client upon admission.

Finding the sickness or condition that best explains a person's symptoms and indicators is known as medical diagnosis. The term "diagnosis" is most frequently used, with the implied medical context. the process of determining an illness, condition, or injury based on its symptoms and indicators. To aid in the diagnosis, a physical examination, medical history, and testing such blood tests, imaging tests, and biopsies may be employed. Mild concussion was identified as the cause. His physician initially determined that he had pneumonia. A diagnosis of the issues affecting urban schools was released by the committee. identification of a disease, ailment, or damage based on the signs and symptoms a patient is experiencing as well as the patient's medical history and results of a physical examination A clinical diagnosis may be followed by additional testing, such as blood tests, imaging tests, and biopsies.

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which of the following patients would be an appropriate candidate for the adjuvanted influenza vaccine (aiiv4)? a 5 year-old child with asthma a 26 year-old woman with no health conditions a 72 year-old woman with copd a 62 year-old pharmacist with hypertension

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A 62 year-old pharmacist with hypertension would be an appropriate candidate for the adjuvanted influenza vaccine (aiiv4). Influenza viruses cause the disease.

Adults 65 and older are advised by the CDC to obtain preference for any of the following higher influenza vaccinations, either dosed or adjuvanted: quadrivalent high-dose inactivated influenza vaccine (HD–IIV4), RIV4 quadrivalent recombinant influenza vaccination Adjuvanted quadrivalent inactivated influenza vaccine (aIIV4). There are two kinds of Human influenza A and B epidemics occur. Both Types may cause minor to severe sickness in people of all ages. While influenza A viruses infect both people and animals, Only humans are affected by influenza B viruses. In the event that none of these three vaccinations are accessible, then any other age-appropriate influenza vaccination should be administered. Be put to use Inactivated and recombinant vaccinations are administered as an injection into the muscle.

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numerous studies, including genetic studies, randomized controlled trials on lipid lowering medications, and observational studies point to ldl having a causal role in heart disease. which term best describes the concept that ldl plays a causal role in heart disease?

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Theory term best describes the concept that ldl plays a causal role in heart disease.

What is defined as heart disease?

Heart disorders of various kinds are referred to as "heart disease." Coronary artery diseases (CAD), that affects heart blood flow, is the most prevalent kind of heart disease in the US. A heart attack may be brought on by decreased blood flow. A test that captures the heart's electrical activity is called an electrocardiogram (ECG). The ECG shows what is happening throughout the heart and aids in identifying any issues with heart rhythm or rate.

Can heart disease be cured?

Although there is no known cure for coronary heart disease, treatment can help alleviate the symptoms and lower the risk of complications like heart attacks. Treatment options include modifying one's lifestyle to include regular exercise and quitting smoking.

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a child who is scheduled for a kidney transplant receives a prescription for basiliximab (simulect) 20 mg iv 2 hours prior to surgery. the medication is available in a 20 mg vial that is reconstituted by adding 5 ml sterile water for injection, and administered as a secondary infusion of normal saline 50 ml to be infused over 30 minutes. the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour? (enter the numeric value only as a whole number.)

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The 5 ml of medication is added to 50 ml of sterile water once the drug vial has been reconstituted by the nur

What Do Drugs Mean, Really?

Chemicals or other substances are referred to as "medicines" when they are used to treat, halt, or prevent illness, lessen symptoms, or help in the diagnosis of illnesses. Numerous diseases can now be treated, and lives can be saved thanks to medical advancements. Many sources produce drugs today.

What is the justification for drug use?

People take drugs to treat illnesses, recover from illnesses, and prevent illnesses from occurring in the future. When choosing which medication to give a patient, a doctor takes into account the underlying factors that contributed to their condition.

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the nurse is providing care for a client whose history of intimate partner violence has resulted in posttraumatic stress disorder (ptsd). the client has few friends and states that the client is estranged from the client's family. how can the nurse best enhance the client's social support?

Answers

Encourage the PTSD patient to join a support group.

A support group can provide valuable social support. If the client states that he or she is estranged from his or her family, the nurse should not approach this issue on their own. Making new friends is difficult for a (posttraumatic stress disorder) PTSD patient. Educational resources can be beneficial, but they are not a replacement for social support.

Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition caused by witnessing or experiencing a terrifying event. Flashbacks, nightmares, and severe anxiety, as well as uncontrollable thoughts about the event, are some of the symptoms.

People suffering from PTSD have intense, disturbing thoughts and feelings about their traumatic experience that last long after the event has ended. They may relive the event in flashbacks or nightmares, experience sadness, fear, or anger, and feel detached or estranged from others.

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a client is taking 50 mg of oral spironolactone twice a day to assist with blood pressure control. while the nurse is performing the morning assessment, the client reports nausea, general muscle cramps, and weakness. the ecg strip shows a peaked, narrow t-wave, which is a change. what electrolyte imbalance does the nurse suspect?

Answers

A client is taking 50 mg of oral spironolactone two times a day to assist with blood pressure control. whilst the nurse is appearing for the morning evaluations   Hyperkalemia

If hyperkalemia comes on suddenly and you've got very excessive ranges of potassium, we can sense heart palpitations, shortness of breath, chest pain, nausea, or vomiting. sudden or intense hyperkalemia is a life-threatening situation. It calls for immediate hospital therapy.

Hyperkalemia is the medical term that describes a potassium degree in our blood that is higher than every day. Potassium is a chemical this is important to the function of nerve and muscle cells, including those in our hearts.

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the nurse is conducting a preadmission class for a group of parents on the safety features that are utilized to help prevent infant abduction. the nurse should prioritize which factor as most essential to ensure the program's success?

Answers

The most crucial component in ensuring the program's success is the parents' cooperation with hospital policies.

What regulations and practices apply to hospitals?

Hospital policies and procedures aid in holding staff members responsible for carrying out the proper measures when providing patient care. They ensure that all patients receive the same level of treatment by standardizing procedures across the whole business. Patients are kept safe by standardized procedures across the institution.

Which are the primary categories of health policies?

The two types of health policies are as follows. Regulatory health laws aid in the standardization and management of particular populations. Allocative health policies take from others in order to give to one set of people money or influence.

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the nurse discovers that an infusion of total parenteral nutrition (tpn) through a central line is empty, and a replacement bag is not yet ready. what should the nurse do next while waiting for the replacement bag?

Answers

The nurse should Hang an intravenous infusion of 10% dextrose in water while waiting for the replacement bag

What is total parenteral nutrition (tpn) ?

A feeding technique that omits the gastrointestinal tract is called total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The majority of the nutrients the body requires are delivered through a vein in a particular mix. When a person cannot or shouldn't receive fluids or a feeding through their mouth, the technique is used.

TPN should not be abruptly stopped (particularly in patients taking insulin), since this could result in hypoglycemia. If, for whatever reason, the TPN solution runs out while a new bag is being prepared, hang D5W at the same rate of infusion until the new TPN bag is ready.

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if an asymptomatic patient older than 50 years is offered a test to detect colon cancer, which, if completed, will reduce the cost of his or her health insurance, this would be an example of which type of intervention?

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According to the given statement Secondary intervention—motivation an example of which type of intervention.

What is the asymptomatic patients?

Asymptomatic denotes the absence of symptoms. If then: Have cured from a disease or ailment and don't have any symptoms, you are deemed asymptomatic. Have a disease or condition yet lack the symptoms of it, such as glaucoma or early-stage high blood pressure.

What are the rules for asymptomatic Covid?

Day 0 refers to the day symptoms first manifested or the date that specimen was taken for the positive test in the case of patients who are asymptomatic with COVID-19. These individuals should stay isolated for at at least five days. They had to wear masks the entire tenth day.

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a patient who is postoperative day 2 following a coronary artery bypass graft (cabg) has been experiencing significant pain in the region of his sternal incision. what patient teaching should the nurse perform with this patient?

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"Try hugging a folded blanket across your chest once you move or breathe deeply," instruction should the nurse give to this patient.

How to Deeply Breathe

Take a regular breath first. After that, take a deep breath: Allow your chest and lower belly to rise as you inhale slowly through your nose. Allow your abdomen to expand completely. Exhale slowly through your mouth.

What is the advantage of taking deep breaths?

Deep breathing (also known as diaphragmatic breathing) is a technique that allows more air to enter your body while also helping to calm your nerves and reduce stress and anxiety. It can also help you develop your concentration and reduce pain.

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mr. gonzalez, an 82-year-old man, fell down three weeks ago and broke his leg. he has been living at shady grove nursing home for the past two years. his family only visits him every 2-3 months. mr. gonzalez has been confined to the bed. the staff have been ignoring him lately; they don't move him hardly at all sometimes for 24 hours. at first the skin on his buttocks was shiny and red, but progressed to a shallow open sore. there is no sign of infection. based on the most probable diagnosis, can the doctor make this diagnosis just on the visual examination of his skin alone?

Answers

Yes, based solely on a visual examination at his skin, the doctor made this diagnosis.

What distinguishes a diagnosis from a diagnosis?

Diagnoses, which is pronounced [dahy-uhg-noh-seez], is the plural form. Diagnose is the verb form. To diagnose is to provide a diagnosis of what precise ailment is afflicting the patient; a doctor may diagnose an illness or a patient, but the concept is the same in both cases.

A doctor can they make a diagnosis?

A doctor and other healthcare professional often makes a diagnosis after a physical examination and just a thorough review of the patient's medical history. The next step is to prescribe tests or other diagnostic procedures to identify the underlying disease or injury that's also causing the symptoms.

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a client presents to the emergency department with delirium. laboratory results reveal sodium level of 123 meq/l (123 mmol/l). the physician orders fluid replacement with hypertonic iv solution, 20 mg furosemide, and intravenous pyelogram. which result would the nurse expect?

Answers

The result the nurse would expect is intracellular hydration, an increase in sodium levels, and the removal of the excess water.

Symptomatic (ie, neurological) hyponatremia is usually treated with hypertonic saline and loop diuretics, such as furosemide, to increase water excretion. This combination works to regulate plasma sodium levels while eliminating excess water in the body. A complication of prompt treatment of hyponatremia is an osmotic demyelination known as central demyelination, which produces severe neurological sequelae and sometimes death. It is not a wait for treatment. Thus, we would expect the intracellular hydration, the removal of the excess water etc.

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a client tells the nurse she completed an educational program to manage her stress incontinence but is now discouraged. which information from the client indicates the need for further teaching? select all that apply.

Answers

Answer:

1. She performs the Kegel exercises every other day.

2. She quit drinking coffee with cream but drinks diet cola.

5. She has begun an exercise program that includes lifting weights.

Explanation:

Rationale: With stress incontinence, the client loses a small amount of urine involuntarily during activities that increase abdominal pressure, such as coughing, jogging, or lifting weights. This is due to weakened pelvic muscles and the inability to tighten the urethra enough to counteract bladder contraction. Kegel exercises, in which the woman contracts and relaxes the pelvic muscles to regain muscle tone should be done on a daily basis and may take up to 3 months before yielding positive results. Clients should avoid caffeine and alcohol that stimulate bladder contraction. Diet cola likely contains caffeine. The exercise program involving weight lifting also increases abdominal pressure, leading to incontinence. The client is correct to lose weight (source for increased abdominal pressure) and maintain adequate fluid intake.

the nurse is caring for a client with essential hypertension. the nurse reviews lab work and assesses kidney function. which action of the kidney would the nurse evaluate as the body's attempt to regulate high blood pressure?

Answers

The kidney excretes sodium and water action of the kidney would the nurse evaluates as the body's attempt to regulate high blood pressure .

Blood pressure (BP) is the force exerted by moving blood against the walls of blood vessels. The heart's action of pumping blood through the circulatory system is primarily responsible for this pressure. The pressure in the major arteries is what is meant when the word "blood pressure" is used without a qualifier. Systolic pressure (maximum pressure during one heartbeat) over diastolic pressure (minimum pressure between two heartbeats) is the typical way blood pressure is expressed in the cardiac cycle. It is expressed in millimeters of mercury (mmHg) above the ambient air pressure.

Along with respiratory rate, heart rate, oxygen saturation, and body temperature, blood pressure is one of the vital indications that healthcare practitioners consider when assessing a patient's health. An adult's normal resting blood pressure is roughly 120 millimeters of mercury.

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the nurse knows that a client who is being taught to perform home blood pressure monitoring (hbpm) understands the teaching plan when he makes which statement about the size of the bp cuff? the cuff should:

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Blood pressure be 1 in (2.5 cm) above the crease of the elbow and fit snugly around the upper arm with room for a fingertip to slid the cuff (HPBM)The most frequent reversible cause of cardiovascular disease is hypertension.

Major recommendations advise patients with hypertension to use home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM), a self-monitoring technique that may be included into their therapy. A increasing body of research demonstrates the advantages of patient HBPM over office-based monitoring, including better blood pressure control, the identification of white-coat hypertension, and cardiovascular risk prediction.

HBPM is more affordable and practical than 24-hour ambulatory blood pressure monitoring

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the nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving iv furosemide (lasix) and morphine for the treatment ofacute decompensated heart failure (adhf) with severe orthopnea. which clinical finding is the best indicatorthat the treatment has been effective

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Clinical finding through an echocardiogram examines the heart rhythm using electrodes and ultrasound technology to see how blood flows through the heart.

How should you treat decompensated heart failure?

Identification of acute decompensation inducers, and also noninvasive characterization of cardiac filling pressures and output, is critical to management. To relieve symptoms, diuretics, vasodilators, positive airway pressure, and inotropes can be used.

An echocardiogram treatment by the nurse is the best indicator for a patient who is receiving iv furosemide (Lasix) and morphine for the treatment of acute decompensated heart failure (hf) with severe orthopnea.

Therefore, an echocardiogram can aid the nurse in the diagnosis of heart conditions such as heart failure (adhf).

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