The nurse is describing fetal circulation to new parents and how the circulation changes after birth. The nurse describes a structure that allows the pulmonary circulation to be bypassed, but that shortly after birth this structure should close. Which structure is the nurse describing

Answers

Answer 1

The structure the nurse is describing is the foramen ovale

What is Foramen Ovale?

The Patent Foramen Ovale (FOP) is a channel that allows communication between the right and left cavities of the heart, which is fundamental in the development of the baby during pregnancy. This channel usually closes after birth, and it may persist into adulthood in 20-30% of cases.

With this information, we can conclude that A patent foramen ovale (PFO) is a hole in the heart that didn't close the way it should after birth. The small flaplike opening is between the right and left upper chambers of the heart (atria).

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Related Questions

Cyclosporine is prescribed for the client following allogenic kidney transplantation. The nurse should provide which instruction to the client regarding the medication

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Signs of infection of cyclosporine


Combined with additional drugs, cyclosporine prevents the body from rejecting a transplanted organ. It belongs to the group of medicines called immunosuppressive medications.

In a kidney transplant, a patient whose kidneys are no longer functioning properly has a healthy kidney from a living or deceased donor surgically placed into them. Patients with end-stage renal illness need dialysis or a kidney transplant to keep them alive by mechanically eliminating waste from their bloodstream. Cyclosporine may worsen any illnesses you already have or raise your chance of getting new infections. Avoid people who might be sick and spread the disease to others (such as chickenpox, measles, flu)

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A client is prescribed tamoxifen, 20 mg by mouth twice per day for treatment of breast cancer. The client reports to the nurse that she has worsening bone pain. How should the nurse respond

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The nurse should respond in a way that Acute worsening of bone pain commonly indicates that the drug will produce a good response.

Tamoxifen is a powerful hormone treatment used to treat breast cancer that has hormone receptors. It can significantly lower the incidence of invasive cancer and cancer recurrence. Tamoxifen is used by certain people to reduce their risk of breast cancer.

A known side effect of using tamoxifen is the increase in bone pain. But, it is believed that tamoxifen works if you see acute worsening in bone pain. It is just a part of the process and ultimately the drug will produce a good response.

Therefore, The nurse should respond in a way that Acute worsening of bone pain commonly indicates that the drug will produce a good response.

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Antipsychotic medications work well on ________ symptoms associated with schizophrenia but are less effective on ________ symptoms.

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Antipsychotic medications work well on delusions symptoms associated with schizophrenia but are less effective on lack of emotions symptoms.

Antipsychotic drugs are used to treat a person with a mental disorder also known as psychiatric drugs. Mental health disorder like Schizophrenia occurs too early in people between the age of 16 to 30 due to the alteration in the dopamine and serotonin neurotransmitters in the brain. A person with Schizophrenia cannot distinguish between the real and the imaginary world due to the improper functioning of the brain. It causes symptoms of impaired vision, hallucination, anxiety, memory loss, etc.,

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The nurse is aware that the newborn's circulatory dynamics during transition can be positively affected by which action

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Early clamping(30-40seconds) of the umbilical cord changes circulatory dynamics during transition and is affected positively while late clamping affects it negatively.

What is Umbilical cord?

This refers to a cord which connects the baby to the mother's placenta and helps to supply nutrients and other vital substances such as oxygen to the fetus. This ensures the fetus grows and develops under the right type of environment.  It is usually clamped after birth and falls off after a while when healing is completed.

Early clamping of the cord will ensure that  systemic vascular resistance is increased while on the other hand, late clamping will lead to low cardiac output and the baby will be at risk of asphyxic insult.

This is therefore the reason why early clamping is recommended and will affect the circulatory dynamics positively.

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One of the best ways to increase physical activity is through __________ because it does not require special facilities or expensive equipment and is the most popular form of activity among those who meet the U.S. governments recommended exercise goals.

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One of the best ways to increase physical activity is through Walking because it does not require special facilities or expensive equipment and is the most popular form of activity among those who meet the U.S. government's recommended exercise goals.

Physical activity decreases the risk of disease and increases well-being. Most people are engaged in physical activities that require gym facilities and other equipment. Physical activities other than the gym which do not require skills and equipment are - walking, running, jogging, etc., are more beneficial to all groups of children and old adults. Daily walking can reduce the risk of heart disease, hypertension, anxiety, and blood pressure and improves memory, stamina also improves quality of life.

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To translate DRIs and DGAs into healthy food choices, an individual should follow recommendations from MyPlate, a service of the U.S. ______.

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To translate DRIs and DGAs into healthy food choices, an individual should follow recommendations from MyPlate, a service of the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA).

The panels that create the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) are separate from the ones that create the Dietary Guidelines for Americans (DGA). The DRIs offer a set of numbers reflecting the nutritional requirements of populations that appear to be in good health. To assist parents in preparing wholesome, balanced meals for their children, the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) developed the MyPlate food pyramid.

The interactive, user-friendly MyPlate website offers straightforward messaging like:

Pick diversity; the finest meals balance foods from many dietary categories.Avoiding serving excessive servingsMake the grains at least 50%. you provide Oatmeal, whole-wheat bread, and brown rice are examples of whole grains.Give your child's plate half of it with fruits and veggies.Serve low-fat or fat-free food (1 percent) milk and water as opposed to sugary beverages

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The diet of humans is very flexible and wide-ranging, although the actual foods most people eat are quite limited. Group of answer choices True False

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The statement "diet of humans is very flexible and wide-ranging, although the actual foods most people eat are quite limited" is true.

Human beings are multicellular organisms that are heterotrophic in nature and thus, are not able to produce their own food. They depend on other organisms for their food. The diet of humans is diverse and flexible which includes various dishes (veg and non-veg). This diversity in the diet of humans includes only four limited organic molecules like proteins, carbohydrates, fats, and nucleic acids. Therefore, even after the diversity in the diet human beings eat quite a limited food type.

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Individuals with muscle ________ tend to have well-developed musculature because they devote many hours each day to lifting weights and performing resistance exercises. Most sufferers continue to exercise even when injured.

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Individuals with muscle  hypertrophy tend to have well-developed musculature because they devote many hours each day to lifting weights and performing resistance exercises. Most sufferers continue to exercise even when injured.

When a person regularly subjects their muscles to greater amounts of weight or resistance, their muscles grow in size.  This process is termed as muscle hypertrophy.

Muscle hypertrophy happens when the fibers of the muscles sustain damage or injury.  The body fuses broken fibers to repair them, giving muscles more mass and size.

Other hormones that contribute to muscle growth and repair include testosterone, human growth hormone, and insulin growth factor. The body can benefit from resistance and strength training in the following ways:

Allow the pituitary to release growth hormoneStimulate the release of testosteroneImprove the muscles' sensitivity to testosterone

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your initial impressiion reveals severe life threatening bleeding in an adult victim who appears to be unresponsive. your next step should be:

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The next step would be to check the breathing of an adult.

Steps to be taken  if an adult is unresponsive:

The first impression is the life-threatening bleeding in an adult.

Check the breathing of an adult.Apply the cloth to the wounds to stop the bleeding.Apply the compression to the wound.If bleeding is from arms and legs then use Torniquette for short time.Avoid applying Torniqutte for too long as it may cause complications like amputation of the limbs. If there is no response lie down an adultGive CPR by placing both hands in between the chest of an adult.Call a medical emergency.

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If corrective action cannot be taken, the recommended next step is to

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If corrective action cannot be taken, the recommended next step is to be careful

What is a corrective action?

Corrective actions simply refers to those measures taken to adjust, eliminate or balance from errors made.

These actions could be taken or observed from work, school, or could even be in the family

Some few examples of corrective measures includes the following:

SensitivityPunctualityNeatnessObedience

So therefore, if corrective action cannot be taken, the recommended next step is to be careful

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The nurse reinforces teaching for a client newly diagnosed with primary open-angle glaucoma. Which of the following client statements indicate that teaching has been effective

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The statement by the client which shows that the teaching has been effective is; "taking the drugs regularly is important so that loss of vision does not occur"

What is  primary open-angle glaucoma?

The primary open-angle glaucoma is one of the types of glaucoma which a person could have without showing any sign of bad vision until it progresses to the point in which the person undergoes a complete vision loss.

The statement by the client which shows that the teaching has been effective is; "taking the drugs regularly is important so that loss of vision does not occur"

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Your first patient has a musculoskeletal complaint. Using the chart of musculoskeletal medical word elements from your textbook, construct 10 medical terms that would reasonably be involved in a complaint dealing with the muscles and/or bones. Each term should include its meaning in parentheses. Then list 3 tests or procedures that would reasonably be involved in evaluating a patient like this.

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Musculoskeletal disorders (MSD) are injuries or disorders of the muscles, nerves, tendons, joints, cartilage, and spinal discs.

10 medical terms that would reasonably be involved in a complaint dealing with the muscles and/or bonesOste/o (Bone,Osteitis, osteoma, osteocyte)Chondr/o (Cartilage Chondritis, chondroma, chondrocyte)Arthr/o Joint (Arthritis, arthroplasty)Myel/o (Bone marrow Myeloma)Ten/o, tendin/o Tendon (binds muscle to bone) Tendonitis, tenorrhaphy)Ligament/o Ligament (binds bone to bone) Ligamentous injury)Burs/o Bursa, “bag”, (shock absorber between tendons and bones) BursitisMy/o, myos/o Muscle (Myoma, myositis)malacia Softening (Osteomalacia, chondromalacia)porosis, Porous (Osteoporosis)

What are 3 important processes when coming to a diagnosis?

Physical examinationgenerating a provisional and differential diagnosistesting (ordering, reviewing, and acting on test results) reaching a final diagnosis.

With this information, we can conclude that Musculoskeletal Disorders or MSDs are injuries and disorders that affect the human body's movement or musculoskeletal system

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A licensed physician who suffers from an impairment that affects their ability to actively practice medicine must report this impairment to the Medical Board at the time they renew their license.

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True, A licensed physician who suffers from an impairment that affects their ability to actively practice medicine must report this impairment to the Medical Board at the time they renew their license.

After your registration expires, you have a grace period of thirty days during which you can renew it without incurring any fees. The Medical Board makes your arrest record available to the public. Each time you are arrested, you are required to notify the Board right away.

Can you practice medicine in Texas with expired license?

However, neither the Texas Medical Board regulations nor the Texas Occupation Code authorize a doctor to practice without a valid license for even a single day. And to make matters worse, every day a doctor practices medicine without a valid license is regarded as a brand-new criminal offense.

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A client is prescribed a topical antipruritic cream for multiple bug bites. The client asks the health care practitioner if the cream will stop the pain and itch. How should the health care practitioner respond

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The health care practitioner should respond by saying, the medicine contains benzocaine to stop the pain.

It is common practice to administer benzocaine to patients suffering from sunburn or other mild burns, poison ivy, insect bites or stings, poison oak, or poison sumac, minor cuts or scratches, and other disorders that cause pain and irritation.

Benzocaine is a topical local anaesthetic, which is a class of medication that belongs to a larger group. The nerve endings inside the skin become less sensitive as a result. This medicine does not put a patient to sleep in the same way that general anaesthetics do when they are administered during surgery.

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In the dental formula for the adult dog, “2 x (i 3/3, c 1/1, pm 4/4, m 2/3)”, the “2 x” refers to the left and the right side of the mouth.
true or false

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It is absolutely very true that the dental formula for the adult dog, is given by: “2 x (i 3/3, c 1/1, pm 4/4, m 2/3)”, the “2 x” refers to the left and the right side of the mouth.

Interestingly, dogs are omnivorous animals, meaning that they feed both plants and animals.

The dental formula for Dog is:

2 x (3142 / 3143) = 42 teeth (6 incisors 2 canine 8 premolars and 4 molar) / (6 incisors 2 canine 8 premolars and 6 molar) = 42 teeth.

What is omnivorous animals?

Omnivorous animals are animals that feed on both plants and animals. Examples include: human being, dog, cat, lion, tiger, elephant etc.

So therefore, it is absolutely very true that the dental formula for the adult dog, is given by: “2 x (i 3/3, c 1/1, pm 4/4, m 2/3)”, the “2 x” refers to the left and the right side of the mouth.

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which statement by a patient receiving levodopa/carbidopa and an anticholinergic indicates the need for further teaching

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A patient who has parkinsonism will begin taking carbidopa-levodopa. Rise slowly from your bed or your chair to avoid dizziness and falls." will be a statement given to patient by nurse.

The most effective treatment for Parkinson's disease is levodopa, a natural substance that enters your brain and is changed into dopamine. Combining levodopa with carbidopa (Lodosyn) prevents levodopa from being prematurely converted to dopamine outside of the brain.Some anti-nausea and antipsychotic drug varieties are the ones that are most likely to produce this effect. These drugs prevent nerve cells from expressing dopamine receptors. Dopamine levels fall as a result, leading in parkinsonism.The most frequent adverse reactions include involuntary, uncontrollable movements, nausea, and difficulty sleeping or staying asleep.

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Imagine that tom, a 51-year-old man, breaks his foot and is nonambulatory for 8 weeks. What term describes the increase in tom’s energy expenditures?

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Imagine that Tom, a 51-year-old man, breaks his foot and cannot walk for 8 weeks. The term that describes Tom's increased energy expenditure is bedridden patient

What does Nonambulatory mean?

Non-ambulatory Persons” means persons unable to leave a building unassisted under emergency conditions.

What is the difference between ambulatory and non-ambulatory?

Patients were classified as ambulatory or non-ambulatory based on the self-reported ability to walk 150 feet, walk one block, and climb one flight of stairs. Patients who could perform all the activities were classified as ambulatory; those who could perform none of the activities were classified as non-ambulatory.

With this information, we can conclude that The term that describes Tom's increased energy expenditure is bedridden patient

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invezstments increwase exponentially by about 26% every 3 years if you made a 2000 investment how much money would you have after 45 years

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The amount of money I would have after 45 years with an exponential increase is $64,060.18.

Given:

invezstments increwase by 26%

time = 3 years

investment amount = 2000

To Find:

amount of money after 45 years

What is the Future value of $2000?

The formula for calculating future value:

FV = P(1+r)^n

FV Future value

P = Present valueR = interest rate

• N = number of years = 45 / 3 = 15 years

$2000 x (1.26)^15 = $64,060.18

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Which of the following is a benefit of static stretching after an exercise session? Reduces muscle soreness Reduces muscle pliability Increases muscle inflammation Reduces muscle length

Answers

Static stretching is an activity which is performed after going through an exercise session because this helps to remove muscle tension. This is done by stretching the muscles till the point to which they can be stretched and then that position is held for a few seconds.

Correct answer-

Reduces muscle soreness- This is the correct answer because static exercises reduces the tension in muscles after an exercise session. It also increases the flexibility of muscles.

Incorrect answers-

Reduces muscle pliability- This is incorrect because, muscle pliability increases after performing static exercises. The extent to which muscles can bend increases after tension is reduced by static stretching.Increases muscle inflammation- This is incorrect because muscle inflammation decreases after performing static stretching due to the release of tension. Reduces muscle length- This is also incorrect because muscle length cannot be reduced by stretching.

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A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyphagia. Which outcome statement is the priority for this client

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Adequate cellular nourisment

In people with diabetes, glucose do not enter inside the cells to be used for energy. This can be due to either low insulin levels or insulin resistance

What is Diabetes mellitus ?

Diabetes mellitus Type 1 is characterized by hyperglycemia that precipitates glucosuria and polyuria (frequent urination), polydipsia (excessive thirst), and polyphagia (excessive hunger).

Polyphagia is a consequence of cellular malnourishment when insulin deficiency prevents utilization of glucose into the cell for energy.

So the outcome statement should include stabilization of adequate cellular nutrition which is done by providing the insulin supplement the client needs.

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Why would a high-carb diet be more beneficial for growth in the transgenic salmon model than a low-carb diet

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Transgenic salmon are salmons which are genetically modified to gain better features and withstand harsher environmental conditions. A high-carb diet is beneficial for the growth of a transgenic salmon because these carbohydrates are required less frequently and induce the growth hormones which increase their growth rate.

Transgenic salmons were created to reduce the amount of growth time of salmon, without hampering its other qualities. Fishes usually have minimal carbohydrate requirements, this is because of their inability to digest or metabolize too much carbohydrates. However, in the case of transgenic salmon the growth gene is genetically modified. This growth gene requires a high-amount of carbohydrate to be induced to increase the rate of growth. Also the other metabolisms that are required for a faster growth of the salmon are effected by the presence or absence of carbohydrates.

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The best bone detail may be obtained when radiographing the clavicle when the patient's position is:

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The best bone detail may be obtained when radiographing the clavicle when the patient's position is prone.

What is clavicle? The clavicle is the bone that connects the breastplate (sternum) to the shoulder. It is a very solid bone that has a slight S-shape and can be easily seen in many people. It connects to the sternum at a joint with cartilage called the sternoclavicular joint.

What are the roles of the clavicle?

The clavicle, popularly known as the collarbone, is a part of your shoulder. It is a prominent bone that connects the arm with the rest of the skeleton. Its functions include allowing free movement of the shoulder away from the body. Along with the rib cage, the clavicle helps protect the heart from external trauma.

What is the reason for the PA projection of the clavicle?

A common projection included in the Clavicle series is the Clavicle AP view. By showing the shoulder in its normal anatomical position, the projection enables a sufficient radiography study of the entire clavicle.

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Studies show that a 1% increase in dietary saturated fatty acids will raise the risk of heart disease by what percentage

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Studies show that a 1% increase in dietary saturated fatty acids will raise the risk of heart disease by 2%.

Saturated fatty acid :

A saturated fatty acid is a type of fatty acid that lacks unsaturated linkages between carbon atoms. This type of fatty acid is saturated because it no longer has any double bonds, which prevents it from absorbing any more hydrogen. Animal fats frequently contain saturated fatty acids.

In the worldwide, cardiovascular disease (CVD) is the leading cause of death and disability. Additionally, a poor diet is a major CVD risk factor. Therefore, changes in diet may help to considerably lower the occurrence of CVD. It is well known that saturated fatty acids (SFA) raise LDL cholesterol, a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease.

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Drug use over a long period of time typically leads to what condition in the body?

Answers

Answer: Tolerance

Explanation:

A nurse urges a pregnant client at the first prenatal office visit to begin taking iron supplements immediately. What is the rationale for this intervention

Answers

Anemia is the rationale for this intervention that nurse urges a pregnant client at the first prenatal office visit to begin taking iron supplements immediately.

What is anemia?Low levels of red blood cells are referred to as anemia. Anemia is diagnosed through a standard blood test by a low hematocrit or hemoglobin level.Blood loss, a lack of new red blood cells being produced, and a high rate of red blood cell apoptosis are the three basic causes of anemia. Heavy periods are one factor that may cause anemia.When your body doesn't have enough healthy red blood cells to deliver oxygen throughout it, you have anemia. Anemia may be persistent or transient (chronic). Anemia is frequently moderate, but it can occasionally be significant and even fatal.This kind of anemia is not specifically treated. The underlying illness is the main thing that doctors treat.

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which intervention would the nurse use to provide emotional support for a resident in a nursing home who recently immigrated from another country

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By offering choices consistent with the client's heritage the nurse would use to provide emotional support for a resident in a nursing home who recently immigrated from another country.

When a nurse offers options that are respectful of the client's cultural values and customs, compliance with a treatment plan is improved. The nurse's cultural or personal biases and views shouldn't affect or get in the way of providing competent care.

The focus right now should be on tailoring treatment to the client's requirements and culture rather than helping them fit into American culture. Unless they are harmful to the person's health, cultural traditions shouldn't be discussed.

In order to help the parents deal with their loss, the nurse should be attentive to any cultural or religious beliefs that they may have.

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What drug or substance that might change the way things work in a synapse

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Stimulants and depressants have an effect on the synapses among neurons in the frightened system:

stimulants purpose greater neurotransmitter molecules to diffuse throughout the synapse.depressants stop the next neurone sending nerve impulses.

Psychotropic drugs exert their outcomes by changing a synaptic occasion. these alterations in the end change the pastime of a neurotransmitter. some psychotropic drugs facilitate the effects of a neurotransmitter, and are referred to as agonistic.

Tablets make their effects regarded via performing to beautify or intervene with the interest of neurotransmitters and receptors in the synapses of the mind. some neurotransmitters carry inhibitory messages across the synapses, at the same time as others bring excitatory messages.

Amphetamine, heroin, marijuana, nicotine, alcohol, and prescription painkillers, can regulate a person's conduct by way of interfering with neurotransmitters and the regular communique between brain cells.

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What is the usual number of posterior film sensor images taken in the parallel technique?

Answers

Posterior film sensor images using the parallel technique for maxillary posterior films the film is placed because it will be placed in the mouth on the surface of one being radiographed ,opposite side of the surface.

If it is placed on the cotton wool before the film is placed for upper teeth and then film is placed for lower teeth.There are some purpose for using this technique that is  increased distance between the radiation sources and film to obtain a bundle of parallel rays.

It is 16 inches long receptor distance which is used with the paralleling technique. This is used to position an intraoral receptor in the mouth and maintain the receptor in position during exposure.

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A child is recovering from a bout with group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus infection. The child returns to the clinic a week later complaining of decrease in urine output with puffiness and edema noted in the face and hands. The health care provider suspects the child has developed:

Answers

The health care provider suspects the child has developed: Acute post infectious glomerulonephritis.

Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (APSGN) shows symptoms like infection of the skin or throat and caused by nephritogenic strains of group A beta-hemolytic streptococci. Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (GN) is a kidney disease that occurs after infection with certain strains of streptococcal bacteria. The kidneys are responsible for removing waste from the body, regulating electrolyte balance and blood pressure, and stimulating the production of red blood cells. A child is recovering from a bout with group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus infection. The child returns to the clinic a week later complaining of decrease in urine output with puffiness and edema noted in the face and hands. So these are the symptoms of Acute post infectious glomerulonephritis.

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The most common nutritional concern in adolescence is____ Group of answer choices a. ADHD b. early maturation c. late maturation d. obesity

Answers

Obesity is the most common nutritional concern in adolescence because of the overeating.

What is the most common nutritional concern during adolescence?

The nutritional concern during adolescence include problems of overeating and consistently making poor food choices, resulting in obesity. Many adolescents develop problems with unhealthy and restrictive dieting without meeting the minimum nutritional requirements that are necessary for healthy growth and development of an adolescence.

So we can conclude that Obesity is the most common nutritional concern in adolescence because of the overeating.

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Here is a list of numbers: 8.2, 0.4, 7.7, 2.8, 4.8, 6.1, 6.1 ,10 ,8.2 ,3 state the median. change you are very fortune to exclamatory sentence I WILL MARK YOU BRAINLIEST IF YOU ANSWER THIS. which of dees actions in everyday use by alice walker is in line with the following description of her character? The Purpose of Education and the Use of the Ideas of Existentialism and Essentialism Imagine that you have a friend who has expressed interest in designing and programming video games. He loves to play video games, and he thinks it would be a lot of fun to be able to work in the industry behind his favorite hobby. What would you say to him to get him to understand the qualifications needed to work in video game design Stone tools become more frequent at hominin sites that date to about ____ million years ago. The volume of a cone is 37x cubic units and its height is x units.Which expression represents the radius of the cone's base, in units?3x6x 297X2 Prior to starting all demolition operations, osha 1926.850 (a) requires that an engineering survey of the structure be conducted by a competent person. the purpose of this survey is:_________. The downside of proximity cards is that they are portable. a) True b) False WordMeaningWhen to UseWhen Not to UseDetengan la injusticia!Stop the injustice!formal command, pluralinformal, singular What is the standard form equation of an ellipse that has vertices (2,14) and (2,12) and co-vertices (9,1) and (13,1)? You want to be super private with your email. You'd like to be able to download your email to a single device, then remove it from your email server. What email protocol can you use to do that? Which of the following is true about hypnosis? (1) A positive charge +3 C is separated from another positive charge of +5 C by a distance of 7m. What is the magnitude of the electric force between the two charges?(a.) 1.9 10 to the 10th power N (b.) 2.8 10 to the 9th power N (c.) 2.1 N (d.) 0.31 N(2) A molecule has 223 electrons and 218 protons. what is the net charge on the molecule ? (a.) 5 10 the the - 19th power C (b.) - 5 10 to the - 19th power C (c.) 8 10 to the - 19h power C (d.) -8 10 to the - 19th power C(3) A negative charge of 2 10 to the negative 4 C and a positive charge of 8 10 to the negative 4 C are separated by a distance of 0.3 m. what is the magnitude of the force between the charges? (a.) 4800 N (b.) 1.78 10 to the - 6th power N (c.) 16000 N (d.) 0.001 N(4) Which one of these statements is true of a neutral or charged object? (a.) A neutral object does not have any charged particles in it. (b.) A neutral object does not have any protons or electrons in it. (c.) A neutral object has equal numbers of protons and electrons. (d.) The protons and electrons in a neutral object do not have any charge. THEY ARE ALL SEPARATE QUESTIONS THANK YOU NEED HELP ASAP Factor the trinomial: x +22x + 72. Explain your steps. When you create a wireframe drawing and then apply highlights and shadows to it, the process is called _____. The following statements are all incorrect. Explain the statements and the errors fully using the probability rules discussed in topic two. 1.The number 7 is a lucky number so you are more likely to win raffles with ticket number 7 than with a different number. 2.I roll two dice and add the results. The probability of getting a total of 8 is 1/12 because there are 12 different possibilities and 8 is one of them. 3.Mr. Verde has to have a major operation. Ninety-three percent of the people who have this operation make a complete recovery. There is a 93% chance that Mr. Verde will make a complete recovery if he has this operation.4.The Ramblers play the Chargers. The Ramblers can win, loose, or draw, so the probability that they win is 1/3. 5.I have flipped an unbiased coin four times and got heads. It is more likely to get tails the next time I flip it.6.Thirty random college students are asked if they study during the week. Since 60% said yes, a statement can be made that 40% of students only study on the weekend. Assume the oligopeptide with the amino acid sequence: alphahelicks, forms one continuous -helix. the carbonyl oxygen of the glutamic acid residue is hydrogen bonded to the amide nitrogen of? A typical ____________________________ fiscal policy allows government to decrease the level of aggregate demand, through increases in taxes.