the nurse is providing teaching to a preoperative client just before surgery. the client is becoming more and more anxious and begins to report dizziness and heart pounding. the client also appears confused and is trembling noticeably. considering the scenario, what decision should the nurse make?

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Answer 1

A nurse is providing teaching to a preoperative client just prior to surgery. the client becomes increasingly anxious and begins to report dizziness and palpitations.

The client also appears confused and is visibly shaking. with this scenario in mind, do not attempt any further training at this time. A nurse is a trained person in the health care field who is licensed and works either independently or under the direction of a physician, surgeon, or dentist.

The nurse ascertains the patient's requirements for care, focuses on their needs and acts accordingly. The term "vertigo" is used to describe a variety of sensations, such as feeling weak, dizzy, faint, or unsteady. Vertigo is a type of dizziness where you unintentionally believe that you or those around you are spinning or moving. One of the more common conditions that send adults to the doctor is dizziness.

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the nurse is reviewing lab results from a client's blood draw earlier in the shift. which result for the calcium level would the nurse expect when this client has irregular blood pressure readings, muscle spasms, and recent dental caries?

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Hypocalcemia is a curable illness that occurs when the calcium levels in your blood are too low. By including calcium in your diet on a daily basis, you may avoid calcium deficiency disease.

Hypocalcemia can be caused by a variety of medical disorders, but it is frequently caused by low amounts of parathyroid hormone (PTH) or vitamin D in your body. Hypocalcemia can induce numbness and tingling (particularly around the lips, hands, and feet), as well as muscular cramps. Your blood calcium level will be evaluated at your first post-operative appointment, and you may be weaned off the supplementary calcium prescription following your surgery. Keep in mind that calcium rich meals, such as dairy products, might include a lot of saturated and trans fat.

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true or false: dietitians should recommend only organic foods for clients and patients attempting to lose weight. true false question. true false

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Dietitians should recommend only organic foods for clients and patients attempting to lose weight is a false statement.

Who is a dietitian?

A dietician is an individual that is professionally trained to identify and treat disease conditions that are related to malnutrition which may require nutritional therapy.

Individuals that often require weight loss are obese patients and both organic and conventional foods can be used.

Organic foods are those food products that are grown without the use of fertilizers while conventional foods makes use of fertilizers.

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the nursery nurse is providing shift handoff on a newborn documented as small for gestational age. which clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to communicate about this newborn? select all that apply.

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There in special-care nursery, a nurse is tending to a newborn who is small for gestational age. The characteristics which are recorded are the infant's eating, weight, and infection.

What is the gestational age?

The word most commonly used to define the phase of the a pregnant throughout pregnancy is gestational age. Weeks are tallied from the first day of the woman's most recent period to the present. Between 38 & 42 weeks is the usual gestational period. Premature births are those that take place prior to 37 weeks of pregnancy. Gestational age is a term used in obstetrics to describe the age of a pregnancy. It is calculated from the start of the woman's last period or, if a more precise method is available, from the matching age of the gestation.

Is gestation the same as pregnancy and how you record gestation age?

The term "gestation" refers to the period of time a baby develops and grows inside the uterus of a pregnant parent, between conception and delivery. The term "gestational age" describes the stage of the pregnancy and is typically represented as a collection of days and weeks.

Subtract of weeks your kid was preterm from the actual age of your child in weeks (weeks that since date of birth). This represents your child's actual age. At 39 weeks, a pregnancy now is deemed to be "full term."

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after an adolescent diagnosed with attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder (adhd) begins methylphenidate (ritalin) therapy, a nurse notes that the adolescent loses 10 pounds in a 2-month period. what is the best explanation for this weight loss?

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Due to weight loss in adolescents with ADHD, the pharmacological action of Ritalin leads to a decrease in appetite.

What drug is Ritalin?

Ritalin is a stimulant drug that contains the active ingredient methylphenidate. This drug works by affecting the central nervous system to increase dopamine levels in the brain. Dopamine is a chemical associated with feeling happy, calm, and happy. Doctors may prescribe this drug for the treatment of attention deficit disorder (ADD), attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), and the sleep disorder narcolepsy.

Side effects of using the drug Ritalin are:

PushLightheadednessNausea and vomitingStomachacheInsomniaDecreased appetiteSweatingNumbness, tingling, or cold sensation in the hands or feetFeelingWeight loss

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a man reports to his doctor that he is tired all the time and his urine has become darker in color. he has not experienced fever or vomiting recently. the physician notes that his eyes are yellowish, and his abdomen is swollen and tender. the man has a history of drug abuse. what is your diagnosis and can this disease cause chronic infection?

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The physician notes that his eyes are yellowish, and his abdomen is swollen and tender and the man has a history of drug abuse so it can be a cause of hepatitis E virus chronic infection.

Hepatitis E virus is a disease caused by the liver disease E virus. It is principally transmitted through drink contaminated with ordure. Symptoms embrace jaundice, lack of craving and nausea. In rare cases, it's going to get to acute liver failure. Hepatitis E typically resolves on its own among four to 6 weeks. Treatment focuses on certificatory care, rehydration and rest.

This chronic infection might not have any obvious symptoms till the liver stops operating properly (liver failure) and will solely be picked up throughout blood tests. Within the later stages it will cause jaundice, swelling within the legs, abdomen, ankles and feet, confusion, and blood in your stools or vomit.

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the nurse is assessing a client at 14 weeks' gestation at a routine prenatal visit and notes the fundal height is at the umbilicus. the nurse will most likely interpret this finding to indicate which situation?

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This finding will probably be interpreted by the nurse as multiple fetal pregnancy.

What is umbilicus?

The umbilical cord connects to the abdomen at the navel, also known as that of the umbilicus and belly button. The navel can be protruding, flat, or recessed. A navel is present in all placental mammals, though it is typically more noticeable in humans. The abdomen can be visibly divided into four quadrants using the umbilicus. The umbilicus is just a noticeable scar on the belly, and human beings generally have the same position for it. The tenth long thoracic nerve supplies the skin all around waist just at level of a umbilicus (T10 dermatome). The location of the umbilicus varies across individuals normally between the L3 or L5 vertebrae, which corresponds to the junction of the L3 & L4 vertebrae.

Is the umbilicus the belly button and write its fucntions?

Technically known as the umbilicus, your navel is also referred to as the "belly button." Every person has them. Other mammals also have them, but they are often flat or smooth, and frequently simply a thin line that is covered by fur.

The umbilical cord is regarded as the fetus's and mother's physical and psychological connection. This arrangement enables the exchange of nutrients and oxygen from the mother's blood into the fetal blood while also eliminating waste materials from the fetal blood for elimination by the mother.

Briefing:

At 20 weeks of gestation, the fundus is usually when at level of the umbilicus. The fundal height is therefore higher than anticipated, raising the possibility of multiple gestation, polyhydramnios, fetal abnormalities, or macrosomia. Smaller measures than anticipated could indicate intrauterine growth restriction or a possible lack of amniotic fluid. The uterus would be displaced by urinary retention.

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a patient reports taking an over-the-counter laxative for constipation daily for the past 3 weeks. what is your best action?

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Every day, consume between 1500 to 2000 mL of fluids, and If you feel the need to go to the bathroom, do so soon away, and To avoid constipation, try to exercise regularly every day.

Where do you feel constipation pain?

Constipated patients may experience tightness in their abdomen or a severe cramping pain in the centre of their gut. They may continually feel like as if they have just finished a full meal even when they haven't fed in several hours.

What is the main cause of constipation?

Consuming insufficient protein in sources like fruit, veggies, and grains an alteration to your daily routine or way of life, such altering your eating patterns.

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the nurse is assessing a new client who presents in early labor. the nurse determines the fetus has an acceptable heart rate if found within which range?

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Nurse is assessing a new client who presents in early labor and the nurse determines the fetus has an acceptable heart rate if found within range : 110 to 160

What is the normal fetal heart rate?

Fetal heart rate monitoring is a very common test that healthcare providers use during pregnancy and labor which measures baby's heart rate which is a sign of how well baby is doing.

The average fetal heart rate ranges between 110 and 160 beats per minute and can vary by 5 to 25 beats per minute. The fetal heart rate may change as the baby responds to conditions in uterus.

An abnormal fetal heart rate may mean that the baby is not getting enough oxygen or can be other problems.

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in a synergistic drug interaction group of answer choices one drug blocks the action of another drug. two drugs multiply each other's effects. two or more drugs combine to produce extremely uncomfortable reactions. an individual develops a tolerance to one drug that increases his or her tolerance to another drug.

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In a synergistic drug interaction two drugs multiply each other's effects

An impact on the body (or an organism) caused by the interaction of two or more separate chemicals that is larger than the effect that any molecule would have had acting alone.

When the combined impact of two medications is larger than the individual activity of each agent, this is known as a synergistic interaction. This is a potent remedy that has been applied to a number of illnesses. For instance, the often used drug combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole for bacterial infections has a synergistic effect that acts to disrupt the bacterial folic acid biosynthesis pathway's sequential stages. Furthermore, Amphotericin B and 5-FC work in concert, and death rates substantially rise when one is not available. Drugs that are fungistatic may change to be fungicidal due to synergistic interactions, offering a more potent choice for therapy.

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A condition in which excess cerebrospinal fluid accumulates in the ventricles of the brain.

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Hydrocephalus is an abnormal buildup of fluid in the ventricles (cavities) deep within the brain. This excess fluid causes the ventricles to widen, putting pressure on the brain's tissues. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is the clear, colorless fluid that protects and cushions the brain and spine.

a nurse is caring for a client who has sustained severe trauma and has developed disseminated intravascular coagulation (dic). the nurse will explain this complication to the family based on which physiologic principle?

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The nurse is caring for a client who has sustained severe trauma and has developed disseminated intravascular coagulation Widespread coagulation and bleeding in the vascular compartment.

Going through very disturbing, scary, or distressing events is sometimes known as trauma. whilst we speak approximately emotional or mental trauma, we'd imply: conditions or activities we find demanding. how we're laid low with our experiences.

Recurrent, unwanted distressing recollections of the annoying occasion. Reliving the worrying event as though it were going on again (flashbacks) upsetting desires or nightmares approximately the stressful occasion. severe emotional distress or bodily reactions to something that reminds you of the worrying occasion.

Initial reactions to trauma can include exhaustion, confusion, disappointment, anxiety, agitation, numbness, dissociation, confusion, physical arousal, and blunted affect. most responses are regular in that they have an effect on most survivors and are socially perfect, psychologically powerful, and self-limited.

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john is the compliance officer for the abc internal medicine group. his board of directors wants to know what the final compliance date was for the hipaa omnibus rule that made it mandatory to report all breaches if there was a risk to the patient. john's reply should be what date?

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The date that john should reply to the directors according to the HIPAA OMNIBUS rules final compliance rule is September 2013.

By the HIPAA Omnibus Rules, which were finished in 2012 and went into effect in 2013, all previously established rules had been updated and changed. To enhance the security and privacy of data sharing, changes have been made to the security, privacy, breach notification, and enforcement rules. Omnibus Rules established a complete rule that included all HIPAA and HITECH compliance requirements.

The Omnibus Final Rule, the most recent HIPAA modification, was passed to increase protections for private health information, particularly in electronic format, while improving patient access to personal health information. The Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health (HITECH) Act, which clearly states the consequences of violations, was motivated by this rule.

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a health care provider is called to see a client with angina. during the visit the health care provider advises the nurse to decrease the dosage of atenolol to 12.5 mg. however, because the health care provider is late for another visit, the health care provider requests that the nurse write down the order for the health care provider. what should be the appropriate nursing action in this situation?

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For a client with angina the health care provider advises the nurse to decrease the dosage of atenolol to 12.5 mg, so the appropriate nursing action in this situation is that she should ask the health care provider to come back and write the order.

Angina is a sort of pain caused by reduced blood flow to the center. Angina may be a symptom of artery illness. Angina is additionally known as angina. Angina pain is commonly delineate as compression, pressure, heaviness, tightness or pain within the chest.

Atenolol is a beta-adrenergic blocker medication primarily wont to treat high vital sign and heart-associated pain. Atenolol, however, doesn't appear to boost mortality in those with high vital sign. different uses embrace the bar of migraines and treatment of bound irregular heart beat.

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a nurse is planning care for a client in acute addisonian crisis. which nursing diagnosis should receive the highest priority?

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Risk for Infection and decreased cardiac output and Impaired physical mobility and Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirement.

Is a disorder a diagnosis?

A illness is recognizable and quantified. While there is insufficient evidence to make a diagnosis, a problem may suggest the possibility of a specific disease. Even while it may be obvious that you do have an autoimmune condition, it may take some time before you are given a precise diagnosis like RA.

What is direct diagnosis?

A clinical lab and biotechnology business called Direct Diagnostics is expanding molecular testing and revolutionizing salivary diagnostics. The next wave of spit tests for infectious diseases and pathogens found in the tongue and periodontium is currently being created.

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a patient admitted to the intensive care unit after an abdominal aortic aneurysm resection has a pulmonary artery catheter with readings of pulmonary artery diastolic pressure (padp): 14; pulmonary artery wedge pressure (pawp): 18; and central venous pressure (cvp), 17. the patient's heart rate is 110 beats/minute and iv fluid running at 150 ml/hr. which health care provider orders would the nurse anticipate receiving?

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The nurse will be ordered by the Physician to reduce IV fluids to 125 mL/hour, then reassess the patient's hemodynamics.

Hemodynamic parameters

Hemodynamic monitoring, as used in the medical field, is the close monitoring of a severely ill patient's circulatory condition and cardiovascular system activities.

Vital information on blood volume, heart contractility, and fluid balance can be found in hemodynamic parameters. All of which are required to assess the patient's general health and the efficacy of their treatment.

Blood pressure, heart rate, body temperature, and capillary refill time are the most frequently measured hemodynamic variables in general contexts (CRT).

the  following are the  main purposes of Hemodynamic monitoring,:

Early detection of complications and life-threatening illnesses to maintain appropriate circulation of the internal organs (e.g, heart failure)to direct fluid delivery and the course of treatmentprecisely assessing the cardiovascular function of critically ill patients in order to establish the efficacy of treatment approaches

Conclusively, mild tissue disorder  can develop to organ failure and death if hemodynamic instability is not promptly treated. Early identification and rapid treatment are therefore essential for controlling hemodynamic instability.

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a client who is status post-gastric-bypass surgery may have a deficiency associated with absorption. what supplemental vitamin would the nurse need to administer to this client?

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Clients whose status after gastric bypass surgery may have deficiencies related to absorption so they need iron vitamins. Other than that can be added other vitamins such as vitamin B and Vitamin D.

After gastric bypass surgery, food intake must be reduced, and this can sometimes lead to malnutrition and other complications. So patients are advised to take vitamin supplements. Conditions after gastric bypass surgery can experience complaints such as anemia, pernicious anemia, vitamin deficiency, and osteoporosis, which are common in people who have undergone this operation.

So Health experts recommend certain foods, such as spinach, peas, fish and meat, etc., as they are good sources of vitamins and minerals.

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which perspective on health, illness, and medicine focuses on the need for policy and medical interventions that address the interlocking systems of power at the structural and cultural level as well as at the level of individual patients?

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There is a perspective on health, illness, and medicine that focuses on the need for policy and medical interventions that address the interlocking systems of power (structural, cultural, and individual patients level). This perspective is called: the intersectional approach.

What is the intersectional approach?

An intersectional approach is a way that people’s social identities can overlap that focuses on the discrimination challenge those people face. This discrimination could happen because of differences in race, age, gender, ethnicity, physical ability, etc. The intersectional approach recognized that the identity markers cannot exist independently, hence it creates a complex convergence of oppression. This approach deepens our understanding of diversity and nuances.

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am was admitted for removal of a growth on his upper lip. the pre-op diagnosis was abnormal cell growth on the upper lip. the post-op diagnosis is malignant neoplasm of buccal aspect of upper lip. the correct code for this admission is

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The appropriate code for this admission is 00.3 if Sam was admitted for the removal of a growth on his top lip and the pre-op diagnostic was abnormal cell growth here on upper lip.

What occurs when a cell grows?

A series of procedures known as the cell cycle occur in tandem with a cell's growth and division. In what is termed as interphase, a cell spends a lot of its time growing, duplicating its chromosomes, and preparing to divide. After exiting interphase, the cell completes mitosis and completes division.

What is cell growth so crucial?

Controlling cell growth and division is crucial for the preservation of cellular homeostasis and for cell proliferation in animal cells and models. These pathways may be flawed, which could result in cancer formation and aberrant cell growth.

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the nurse is monitoring a client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus for signs of complications. which sign or symptom, if frequently exhibited in the client, indicates that the client is at risk for chronic complications of diabetes if the blood glucose is not adequately managed?

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He may experience polyuria if the blood glucose is not well regulated, which may cause the patient to have excessive urination.

You urinate more than usual when you have excessive urine volume (also known as polyuria). If your daily intake of urine exceeds 2.5 litres, this is considered excessive. Your age and gender will determine the "normal" urine volume. But less than 2 litres a day is typically thought to be normal. Although it is a frequent ailment, increased urine excretion shouldn't continue longer than a few days. The condition is typically first noticed at night. Nocturnal polyuria is the term used in this instance (or nocturia). Polyuria may also appear during a CT scan or any other medical procedure that involves injecting a dye into your body. The following day, increased urination production is typical.

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when planning care for multiple patients on the intensive care unit (icu), which common patient problems must the nurse address? select all that apply.

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Pain, anxiety, and nutrition are major patient issues that nurses seek to address when providing care for a number of patients on the critical care unit.

What are nursing patient issues?

A problem-focused diagnosis refers to a patient issue that was discovered during a nursing assessment. Typically, the issue persists for a number of shifts or the duration of a patient's hospital stay. Nevertheless, based on the medical and nursing treatment, it might be cured during a shift.

Why is a patient challenging?

Up to 30% of the patients that primary care physicians classify as "difficult" 4–8 These individuals include those that exhibit hostile, manipulative, or irrational behavior, have ambiguous symptoms or conditions, are medically or psychiatrically unwell, have difficult social situations and limited assistance.

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an 11-month-old patient presented for emergency surgery to repair a severely broken arm after falling from a third story window. what qualifying circumstance code(s) may be reported in addition to the anesthesia code?

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The type of code to report the occurrence of emergency conditions with an addition to the anesthesia code would be Qualifying circumstance code.

What is anesthesia?

Anesthesia, which is induced for therapeutic reasons, is a controlled, brief loss of feeling or awareness. It could involve some, all, or none of the following: analgesia (pain alleviation or prevention), paralysis (muscle relaxation), amnesia (loss of recollection), and unconsciousness. A person who is anesthetized is one who is under the influence of anesthetic medications.

Anesthesia makes it possible to execute surgeries that would be technically impossible or would otherwise cause a patient to experience acute or intolerable pain.

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medical staff at a community health center were concerned about the oral health of many of their patients. to improve patients' oral and overall health, they wanted to improve the coordination between medical and dental services, with medical providers more reliably providing appropriate referrals for dental care based on patients' age and risk factors. what would you identify as the best outcome measure for the project?

Answers

You may generate particular improvement ideas using change concepts that you would not have thought of otherwise.

Why is having an objective statement crucial when you start a model for improvement?

The voice of the client, or those we serve, is captured in a strong objective statement. It helps bring together many stakeholders, keeps the team concentrated on the current tasks, fosters a sense of urgency to complete the work, offers a vision of what success looks like, and acts as a predictor of success.

One justification for using PDSA cycles instead of a more conventional version of the scientific method when seeking to improve a process (such as a randomized, controlled trial) PDSA cycles offer a way to modify improvement suggestions as the project moves forward.

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regarding the patient with parkinson's disease (pd) who recently entered a long-term care facility, which action would the health care team implement to promote adequate nutrition for this patient?

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Throughout the day, serve easy-to-chew and swallow small, frequent meals.

What is the main cause of Parkinson's disease?

The hindbrain, a region of the brain, loses nerve cells, which results in Parkinson's disease. Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that is made by nerve fibers in this area of the brain. Parkinson's disease is a disorder in which a portion of your brain worsens over time, resulting in increasingly severe symptoms.

What are the top 4 Parkinson's disease symptoms?Hand, arm, leg, jaw, or head tremblingMuscle stiffness, or persistent tensing of the muscle.Sluggishness of motion.Impaired coordination and balance, which can result in falls.

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following surgery for a mitral valve replacement, a patient was required to take coumadin. this medication is classified as an

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According to the research, the correct answer is anticoagulant. Following surgery for a mitral valve replacement, a patient was required to take coumadin. This medication is classified as an anticoagulant.

What is an anticoagulant?

It is a drug with an inhibitory effect on blood coagulation being used for the treatment of thrombosis due to its ability to hinder the blood coagulation process.

In this sense, coumadin is an anticoagulant medication that prevents the formation of clots or thrombi in the blood or prevents them from increasing in size.

Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, coumadin is classified as an anticoagulant since it prevents clot formation associated with heart disease.

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while assessing a peritoneal dialysis client in the home, the nurse notes that the fluid draining from the abdomen is cloudy, is white in color, and contains a strong odor. the nurse suspects this client has developed a serious complication known as:

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The client has developed peritonitis, a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis. Peritonitis is an inflammation of the peritoneum, the lining of the abdominal cavity.

Peritonitis is a serious medical condition that occurs when the lining of the abdominal cavity, known as the peritoneum, becomes inflamed. This can happen due to a number of reasons, such as a ruptured appendix, a bacterial infection, or a leaking abdominal organ. When peritonitis occurs, it is a medical emergency and can be fatal if not treated promptly. Symptoms of peritonitis include severe abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, and fever. Treatment typically involves antibiotics and surgery.

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5. a member reports that he had colon surgery and developed a serious infection post-surgery. is this potential qoc?

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Chances are it will potentially qnc, but that will be adjusted to the conditions of the previous infection.

Surgical wound infections are generally caused by bacteria, such as Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, and Pseudomonas. Surgical wounds can become infected with these bacteria through interactions between surgical wounds and germs on the skin, and interactions with germs that are spread in the air.

If you have infected stitches, you should see a doctor immediately. Without treatment, the infection in the stitches can spread to other parts of your skin or body and cause complications such as abscess formation, cellulitis, or even sepsis.

Some of the symptoms of postoperative infection are the surgical wound feeling hot, swelling of the surgical wound, fever, and the surgical wound emitting pus or odor.

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a patient newly diagnosed with hypertension asks the nurse what happens when uncontrolled hypertension is prolonged. the nurse explains that a patient with prolonged uncontrolled hypertension is at risk for developing what health problem?

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Uncontrolled hypertension increases the risk of heart attack, heart failure, kidney disease, stroke, and cognitive decline

What is uncontrolled hypertension ?

The primary organs that are damaged by hypertension are the heart, kidneys, brain, and arterial blood vessels. Uncontrolled hypertension speeds up this organ damage, which eventually leads to organ failure, cardiovascular death, and disability.

Uncontrolled hypertension" refers to blood pressure that is not adequately managed as opposed to blood pressure that is unresponsive to therapy, as might be seen with secondary causes of hypertension like renal artery stenosis.

A blood pressure reading of 180/120 or higher results in an 80% chance of passing away within a year if untreated, with an average survival rate of ten months. Heart attack, stroke, blindness, and kidney disease can all result from persistent, untreated high blood pressure.

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A patient newly diagnosed with hypertension asks the nurse what happens when uncontrolled hypertension is prolonged.

How does hypertension kill you?

High blood pressure can burst or block arteries that supply blood and oxygen to the brain, causing a stroke. Brain cells die during a stroke because they do not get enough oxygen. Stroke can cause serious disabilities in speech, movement, and other basic activities, and a stroke can kill you. The Kidneys.

What are the non modifiable risk factors for hypertension?

Non-modifiable risk factors include a family history of hypertension, age over 65 years and co-existing diseases such as diabetes or kidney disease.  Hypertension is called a "silent killer". Most people with hypertension are unaware of the problem because it may have no warning signs or symptoms.

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during assessment of the lower extremities, the nurse notes that the bilateral lower extremities are pink, intact, warm, and soft to touch, as well as normal in contour with a 4-mm depression in the skin after pressing that returns after 2 seconds. which is the correct interpretation and documentation of this result?

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The correct interpretation and documentation of this result is 2+ pitting edema noted on bilateral lower extremities.

A more basic definition of edema is any swelling brought on by an accumulation of extra fluid in the body. Edema is a buildup of the interstitial fluid present in tissues as a result of anything disturbing the body's fluid balance.

Pitting edema is a particular kind of edema that is marked by pitting or indentation in the afflicted areas and is frequently brought on by illnesses that cause blood to collect in the legs or feet. In pitting edema, water makes up the majority of the extra fluid that accumulates.

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a client is brought to the emergency department with a blood glucose level of 19 mg/dl. what drug should the nurse prepare to administer intravenously?

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A patient with such a blood glucose of 19 mg/dl is taken to the emergency room, prompting the nurse to make Glucagon.

What is blood glucose?

The level of glucose of humans or other animals is referred to as "glycaemia," sometimes known as "blood sugar," "glucose levels concentrations," and "blood glucose level." A 70 kg person's blood contains 4 grams or less of the simple sugar glucose at all times. Hyperglycemia, or high blood sugar levels, may be a symptom of diabetes, a condition that can lead to serious, life-long health issues. Other diseases, such as issues with the pancreas or adrenal glands, that might impact insulin and blood glucose in your blood can also contribute to high blood sugar.

What is normal level of glucose in blood and how should it be controlled?

Fasting blood glucose levels of 99 mg/dL and under are regarded as normal, levels of 100 mg/dL to 125 mg/dL as prediabetic levels, and levels of 126 mg/dL or more as diabetes levels.

A balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, keeping a healthy weight, or engaging in physical activity all can assist control the blood glucose level. Keep an eye on your blood glucose levels to determine what causes it to rise or fall.

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a client is being treated with colchicine for pain in the big right toe. the client begins to complain of severe right flank pain and is diagnosed with kidney stones. which type of kidney stone does the nurse recognize this client is most likely affected by?

Answers

A uric acid stone is a type of kidney stone that is a hard item formed from chemicals found in urine. The stone may remain in the kidney or migrate down the urinary path into the ureter after creation.

Non-moving stones can cause severe discomfort, urine outflow blockage, infection, and other health issues. Calcium stones are one kind of kidney stone. The majority of kidney stones are calcium stones, generally in the form of calcium oxalate. Struvite stones arise as a result of a urinary tract infection. Uric acid stones. Cystine stones.

Drinking extra water may be advised at first. Medications can also be utilized to relieve discomfort or to aid in the passage of the stone. To lower uric acid levels in the blood, medications such as allopurinol may be used. Other medications that can make urine less acidic include citrate (or more alkaline).

Purines are a natural chemical substance found in foods such as beef, chicken, pig, fish, and especially organ meats such as liver. A purine-rich diet can result in uric acid. High purine intake increases the production of monosodium urate, which can form uric acid stones in the kidneys under the right conditions. Uric acid stones form when the levels of uric acid in the urine are consistently too high and/or the urine is too acidic.

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