The same force is applied to two hoops. The hoops have the same mass, but the larger hoop has twice the radius. How are the angular accelerations of the hoops related

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

The angular accelerations of the hoops are related by the following equation [tex]\alpha _1 = 2\alpha_2[/tex].

Explanation:

Net force on the hoop is given by;

[tex]F_{net} = ma[/tex]

where;

a is linear acceleration

m is the mass

Net torque on the hoop is given by;

[tex]\tau_{net} =I\alpha[/tex]

where;

I is moment of inertia

α is the angular acceleration

But, τ = Fr

[tex]Fr = I \alpha\\\\\alpha = \frac{Fr}{I} \\\\\alpha = \frac{Fr}{mr^2} \\\\\alpha = \frac{F}{mr} \\\\\alpha = \frac{1}{r} (\frac{F}{m} )\\\\(since\ the \ force\ and \ mass \ are \ the \ same, \frac{F}{m} = constant=k)\\\\ \alpha = \frac{k}{r}\\\\k = \alpha r[/tex]

[tex]\alpha _1 r_1= \alpha_2 r_2[/tex]

let the angular acceleration of the smaller hoop = α₁

let the radius of the smaller hoop = r₁

then, the radius of the larger loop, r₂ = 2r₁

let the angular acceleration of the larger hoop = α₂

[tex]\alpha _1 r_1= \alpha_2 r_2\\\\\alpha_2= \frac{ \alpha _1 r_1}{r_2} \\\\\alpha_2=\frac{\alpha _1 r_1}{2r_1} \\\\\alpha_2= \frac{\alpha _1}{2} \\\\\alpha _1 = 2\alpha_2[/tex]

Therefore, the angular accelerations of the hoops are related by the following equation [tex]\alpha _1 = 2\alpha_2[/tex]


Related Questions

find the velocity of the object for all relevent times find the position of the object for all relevent times a softball is popped up vertically velocity of 32 m/s

Answers

Answer:

whats the formula

Explanation:

A wire of 0.50m length is suspended by a pair of flexible leads in a uniform magnetic field of magnitude 0.98T. The vurrent in the wire is 2.0A in the direction shown. What is the mass of the wire if the current and the magnetic field are sufficient to remove the tension in the supporting leads?

Answers

Answer:

0.1 kg or 100 g

Explanation:

The length of the wire = 0.5 m

the field magnitude = 0.98 T

the current through the wire = 2.0 A

magnetic force due to a wire carrying current is

F = [tex]IlB[/tex]

where

F is the force

[tex]I[/tex] is the current = 2 A

[tex]l[/tex] is the length of the wire

B is the magnetic field strength

Substituting, we have

F = 2 x 0.5 x 0.98 = 0.98 N

This force balances the weight of the mass

weight = mg

where m is the mass of the wire

g is acceleration due to gravity = 9.81 m/s^2

therefore, weight = m x 9.81 = 9.81m

equating this weight with the force, we have

0.98 = 9.81m

m = 0.98/9.81 = 0.099 kg ≅ 0.1 kg or 100 g

Answer:

100 g

Explanation:

A velocity selector in a mass spectrometer uses a 0.100-T magnetic field. (a) What electric field strength is needed to select a speed of 4.00 . 106 m/s

Answers

Answer:

The electric field strength needed is 4 x 10⁵ N/C

Explanation:

Given;

magnitude of magnetic field, B = 0.1 T

velocity of the charge, v = 4 x 10⁶ m/s

The velocity of the charge when there is a balance in the magnetic and electric force is given by;

[tex]v = \frac{E}{B}[/tex]

where;

v is the velocity of the charge

E is the electric field strength

B is the magnetic field strength

The electric field strength needed is calculated as;

E = vB

E = 4 x 10⁶ x 0.1

E = 4 x 10⁵ N/C

Therefore, the electric field strength needed is 4 x 10⁵ N/C

What is the need for satellite communication elaborate

Answers

The high frequency radio waves used for telecommunications links travel by line of sight and so are obstructed by the curve of the Earth. The purpose of communications satellites is to relay the signal around the curve of the Earth allowing communication between widely separated geographical points.

Explanation:

hope it helps!!

A bar magnet is dropped from above and falls through the loop of wire. The north pole of the bar magnet points downward towards the page as it falls. Which statement is correct?a. The current in the loop always flows in a clockwise direction. b·The current in the loop always flows in a counterclockwise direction. c. The current in the loop flows first in a clockwise, then in a counterclockwise direction. d. The current in the loop flows first in a counterclockwise, then in a clockwise direction. e. No current flows in the loop because both ends of the magnet move through the loop.

Answers

Answer:

b. The current in the loop always flows in a counterclockwise direction.

Explanation:

When a magnet falls through a loop of wire, it induces an induced current on the loop of wire. This induced current is due to the motion of the magnet through the loop, which cause a change in the flux linkage of the magnet. According to Lenz law, the induced current acts in such a way as to repel the force or action that produces it. For this magnet, the only opposition possible is to stop its fall by inducing a like pole on the wire loop to repel its motion down. An induced current that flows counterclockwise in the wire loop has a polarity that is equivalent to a north pole on a magnet, and this will try to repel the motion of the magnet through the coil. Also, when the magnet goes pass the wire loop, this induced north pole will try to attract the south end of the magnet, all in a bid to stop its motion downwards.

The current in the loop always flows in a counterclockwise direction. Hence, option (b) is correct.

The given problem is based on the concept and fundamentals of magnetic bars. When a magnet falls through a loop of wire, it induces an induced current on the loop of wire. There is some magnitude of current induced in the wire.

This induced current is due to the motion of the magnet through the loop, which cause a change in the flux linkage of the magnet. According to Lenz law, the induced current acts in such a way as to repel the force or action that produces it. For this magnet, the only opposition possible is to stop its fall by inducing a like pole on the wire loop to repel its motion down. An induced current that flows counterclockwise in the wire loop has a polarity that is equivalent to a north pole on a magnet, and this will try to repel the motion of the magnet through the coil. Also, when the magnet goes pass the wire loop, this induced north pole will try to attract the south end of the magnet, all in a bid to stop its motion downwards.

Thus, we can say that the current in the loop always flows in a counterclockwise direction. Hence, option (b) is correct.

Learn more about the magnetic field here:

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how can you relazie a perfect balck body in pratice​

Answers

a perfect black body can’t be realized

The element sodium can emit light at two wavelengths, λ1 = 588.9950 nm and λ2 = 589.5924 nm. Light in sodium is being used in a Michelson interferometer. Through what distance must mirror M 2 be moved if the shift in the fringe pattern for one wavelength is to be 1.00 fringe more than the shift in the fringe pattern for the other wavelength?

Answers

Answer:

The distance is  [tex]d = 0.00029065 \ m[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The  first wavelength is  [tex]\lambda _1 = 588.9950 nm = 588.9950 *10^{-9} \ m[/tex]

     The  second wavelength is  [tex]\lambda _2 = 589.5924 nm = 589.5924 *10^{-9} \ m[/tex]

     The  difference in the  fringe pattern is  n =  1.0  

Generally the equation defining the effect of the movement of  the mirror M 2 in a Michelson interferometer is mathematically represented as

          [tex]2 * d = [\frac{\lambda _1 * \lambda_2 }{\lambda_2 - \lambda _1 } ] * n[/tex]

Here d is the mirror M 2  must be moved

substituting values

         [tex]2 * d = [\frac{(588.9950*10^{-9} ) * (589.5924 *10^{-9}) }{(589.5924 *10^{-9}) - (588.9950*10^{-9} ) } ] * 1.0[/tex]

        [tex]d = 0.00029065 \ m[/tex]

Two sources of light of wavelength 700 nm are 9 m away from a pinhole of diameter 1.2 mm. How far apart must the sources be for their diffraction patterns to be resolved by Rayleigh's criterion

Answers

Answer:

The distance is  [tex]D = 0.000712 \ m[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The wavelength of  the  light source is  [tex]\lambda = 700 \ nm = 700 *10^{-9} \ m[/tex]

     The distance from a pin hole is  [tex]x = 9\ m[/tex]

       The  diameter of the pin  hole is  [tex]d = 1.2 \ mm = 0.0012 \ m[/tex]

     

Generally the distance which the light source need to be in order for their diffraction patterns to be resolved by Rayleigh's criterion is

mathematically represented as

              [tex]D = \frac{1.22 \lambda }{d }[/tex]

substituting values

             [tex]D = \frac{1.22 * 700 *10^{-9} }{ 0.0012 }[/tex]

             [tex]D = 0.000712 \ m[/tex]

A worker wants to load a 12 kg crate into a truck by sliding the crate up a straight ramp which is 2.5 m long and which makes an angle of 30 degrees with the horizontal. The worker believes that he can get the crate to the very top of the ramp by launching it at 5 m/s at the bottom and letting go. But friction is not neglible; the crate slides 1.6 m upthe ramp, stops, and slides back down.

Required:
a. Assuming that the friction force actingon the crate is constant, find its magnitude.
b. How fast is teh crate moving when it reachesthe bottom of the ramp?

Answers

Answer:

a) The magnitude of the friction force is 55.851 newtons, b) The speed of the crate when it reaches the bottom of the ramp is 2.526 meters per second.

Explanation:

a) This situation can be modelled by the Principle of Energy Conservation and the Work-Energy Theorem, where friction represents the only non-conservative force exerting on the crate in motion. Let consider the bottom of the straight ramp as the zero point. The energy equation for the crate is:

[tex]U_{g,1}+K_{1} = U_{g,2}+K_{2}+ W_{fr}[/tex]

Where:

[tex]U_{g,1}[/tex], [tex]U_{g,2}[/tex] - Initial and final gravitational potential energy, measured in joules.

[tex]K_{1}[/tex], [tex]K_{2}[/tex] - Initial and final translational kinetic energy, measured in joules.

[tex]W_{fr}[/tex] - Work losses due to friction, measured in joules.

By applying the defintions of translational kinetic and gravitational potential energies and work, this expression is now expanded:

[tex]m\cdot g \cdot y_{1} + \frac{1}{2}\cdot m\cdot v_{1}^{2} = m\cdot g \cdot y_{2} + \frac{1}{2}\cdot m\cdot v_{2}^{2} + \mu_{k}\cdot m \cdot g \cdot \cos \theta[/tex]

Where:

[tex]m[/tex] - Mass of the crate, measured in kilograms.

[tex]g[/tex] - Gravitational acceleration, measured in meters per square second.

[tex]y_{1}[/tex], [tex]y_{2}[/tex] - Initial and final height of the crate, measured in meters.

[tex]v_{1}[/tex], [tex]v_{2}[/tex] - Initial and final speeds of the crate, measured in meters per second.

[tex]\mu_{k}[/tex] - Kinetic coefficient of friction, dimensionless.

[tex]\theta[/tex] - Ramp inclination, measured in sexagesimal degrees.

The equation is now simplified and the coefficient of friction is consequently cleared:

[tex]y_{1}-y_{2}+\frac{1}{2\cdot g}\cdot (v_{1}^{2}-v_{2}^{2}) = \mu_{k}\cdot \cos \theta[/tex]

[tex]\mu_{k} = \frac{1}{\cos \theta} \cdot \left[y_{1}-y_{2}+\frac{1}{2\cdot g}\cdot (v_{1}^{2}-v_{2}^{2}) \right][/tex]

The final height of the crate is:

[tex]y_{2} = (1.6\,m)\cdot \sin 30^{\circ}[/tex]

[tex]y_{2} = 0.8\,m[/tex]

If [tex]\theta = 30^{\circ}[/tex], [tex]y_{1} = 0\,m[/tex], [tex]y_{2} = 0.8\,m[/tex], [tex]g = 9.807\,\frac{m}{s^{2}}[/tex], [tex]v_{1} = 5\,\frac{m}{s}[/tex] and [tex]v_{2} = 0\,\frac{m}{s}[/tex], the coefficient of friction is:

[tex]\mu_{k} = \frac{1}{\cos 30^{\circ}}\cdot \left\{0\,m-0.8\,m+\frac{1}{2\cdot \left(9.807\,\frac{m}{s^{2}} \right)}\cdot \left[\left(5\,\frac{m}{s} \right)^{2}-\left(0\,\frac{m}{s} \right)^{2}\right] \right\}[/tex]

[tex]\mu_{k} \approx 0.548[/tex]

Then, the magnitude of the friction force is:

[tex]f =\mu_{k}\cdot m\cdot g \cdot \cos \theta[/tex]

If [tex]\mu_{k} \approx 0.548[/tex], [tex]m = 12\,kg[/tex], [tex]g = 9.807\,\frac{m}{s^{2}}[/tex] and [tex]\theta = 30^{\circ}[/tex], the magnitude of the force of friction is:

[tex]f = (0.548)\cdot (12\,kg)\cdot \left(9.807\,\frac{m}{s^{2}} \right)\cdot \cos 30^{\circ}[/tex]

[tex]f = 55.851\,N[/tex]

The magnitude of the force of friction is 55.851 newtons.

b) The energy equation of the situation is:

[tex]m\cdot g \cdot y_{1} + \frac{1}{2}\cdot m\cdot v_{1}^{2} = m\cdot g \cdot y_{2} + \frac{1}{2}\cdot m\cdot v_{2}^{2} + \mu_{k}\cdot m \cdot g \cdot \cos \theta[/tex]

[tex]y_{1}+\frac{1}{2\cdot g}\cdot v_{1}^{2} =y_{2} + \frac{1}{2\cdot g}\cdot v_{2}^{2} + \mu_{k}\cdot \cos \theta[/tex]

Now, the final speed is cleared:

[tex]y_{1}-y_{2}+ \frac{1}{2\cdot g}\cdot v_{1}^{2} -\mu_{k}\cdot \cos \theta= \frac{1}{2\cdot g}\cdot v_{2}^{2}[/tex]

[tex]2\cdot g \cdot (y_{1}-y_{2}-\mu_{k}\cdot \cos \theta) + v_{1}^{2} = v_{2}^{2}[/tex]

[tex]v_{2} = \sqrt{2\cdot g \cdot (y_{1}-y_{2}-\mu_{k}\cdot \cos \theta)+v_{1}^{2}}[/tex]

Given that [tex]g = 9.807\,\frac{m}{s^{2}}[/tex], [tex]y_{1} = 0.8\,m[/tex], [tex]y_{2} = 0\,m[/tex], [tex]\mu_{k} \approx 0.548[/tex], [tex]\theta = 30^{\circ}[/tex] and [tex]v_{1} = 0\,\frac{m}{s}[/tex], the speed of the crate at the bottom of the ramp is:

[tex]v_{2}=\sqrt{2\cdot \left(9.807\,\frac{m}{s^{2}} \right)\cdot [0.8\,m-0\,m-(0.548)\cdot \cos 30^{\circ}]+\left(0\,\frac{m}{s} \right)^{2}}[/tex]

[tex]v_{2}\approx 2.526\,\frac{m}{s}[/tex]

The speed of the crate when it reaches the bottom of the ramp is 2.526 meters per second.

How wide is the central diffraction peak on a screen 2.20 mm behind a 0.0328-mmmm-wide slit illuminated by 588-nmnm light?

Answers

Answer:

[tex]y = 0.0394 \ m[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

        The  distance of the screen is  [tex]D = 2.20 \ m[/tex]

       The distance of separation of the slit is  [tex]d = 0.0328 \ mm = 0.0328*10^{-3} \ m[/tex]

        The  wavelength of light is  [tex]\lambda = 588 \ nm = 588 *10^{-9} \ m[/tex]

Generally the condition for constructive interference is

            [tex]dsin\theta = n * \lambda[/tex]

=>        [tex]\theta = sin^{-1} [ \frac{ n * \lambda }{d } ][/tex]

here n = 1 because we are considering the central diffraction peak

=>        [tex]\theta = sin^{-1} [ \frac{ 1 * 588*10^{-9} }{0.0328*10^{-3} } ][/tex]

=>       [tex]\theta = 1.0274 ^o[/tex]

Generally the width of central diffraction peak on a screen is mathematically evaluated as

           [tex]y = D tan (\theta )[/tex]

substituting values

        [tex]y = 2.20 * tan (1.0274)[/tex]

        [tex]y = 0.0394 \ m[/tex]

Please help wil give brainiest & 40p.

Answers

Answer:

This is the answer

Explanation:

You can find the ans in the photo I attached.

The physics of wind instruments is based on the concept of standing waves. When the player blows into the mouthpiece, the column of air inside the instrument vibrates, and standing waves are produced. Although the acoustics of wind instruments is complicated, a simple description in terms of open and closed tubes can help in understanding the physical phenomena related to these instruments. For example, a flute can be described as an open-open pipe because a flutist covers the mouthpiece of the flute only partially. Meanwhile, a clarinet can be described as an open-closed pipe because the mouthpiece of the clarinet is almost completely closed by the reed.
1. Consider a pipe of length 80.0 cm open at both ends. What is the lowest frequency f of the sound wave produced when you blow into the pipe?
2. A hole is now drilled through the side of the pipe and air is blown again into the pipe through the same opening. The fundamental frequency of the sound wave generated in the pipe is now:______.
a. the same as before.
b. lower than before.
c. higher than before.
3. If you take the original pipe in Part A and drill a hole at a position half the length of the pipe, what is the fundamental frequency of the sound that can be produced in the pipe?
4. What frequencies, in terms of the fundamental frequency of the original pipe in Part A, can you create when blowing air into the pipe that has a hole halfway down its length?
4-1. Recall from the discussion in Part B that the standing wave produced in the pipe must have an antinode near the hole. Thus only the harmonics that have an antinode halfway down the pipe will still be present.
A. Only the odd multiples of the fundamental frequency.
B. Only the even multiples of the fundamental frequency.
C. All integer multiples of the fundamental frequency.
E. What length of open-closed pipe would you need to achieve the same fundamental frequency as the open pipe discussed in Part A?
A. Half the length of the open-open pipe.
B. Twice the length of the open-open pipe.
C. One-fourth the length of the open-open pipe.
D. Four times the length of the open-open pipe.
E. The same as the length of the open-open pipe.
F. What is the frequency of the first possible harmonic after the fundamental frequency in the open-closed pipe described in Part E?
F-1. Recall that possible frequencies of standing waves that can be generated in an open-closed pipe include only odd harmonics. Then the first possible harmonic after the fundamental frequency is the third
harmonic.

Answers

Answer:

1) f = 214 Hz , 2)  answer is c , 3) f = 428 Hz , 4)   f₂ = 428 Hz ,   f₃ = 643Hz

Explanation:

1) A tube with both ends open, the standing wave has a maximum amplitude and a node in its center, therefore

                L = λ / 2

               λ  = 2L

               λ  = 2 0.8

               λ  = 1.6 m

wavelength and frequency are related to the speed of sound (v = 343 m / s)

                v =λ  f

                f = v / λ  

                f = 343 / 1.6

                f = 214 Hz

2) In this case the air comes out through the open hole, so we can assume that the length of the tube is reduced

           λ' = 2 L ’

          as L ’<L₀

          λ' <λ₀

          f = v / λ'

          f' > fo

the correct answer is c

3) in this case the length is L = 0.40 m

          λ = 2 0.4 = 0.8 m

          f = 343 / 0.8

          f = 428 Hz

4) the different harmonics are described by the expression

         λ = 2L / n           n = 1, 2, 3

         λ₂ = L

         f₂ = 343 / 0.8

         f₂ = 428 Hz

         λ₃ = 2 0.8 / 3

         λ₃ = 0.533 m

         f₃ = 343 / 0.533

         f₃ = 643 Hz

4,1) as we have two maximums at the ends, all integer multiples are present

       the answer is C

E) the length of an open pipe created that has a wavelength of lam = 1.6 m is requested

in this pipe there is a maximum in the open part and a node in the closed part, so the expression

        L = λ / 4

        L = 1.6 / 4

        L = 0.4 m

the answer is C

F) in this type of pipe the general expression is

           λ = 4L / n         n = 1, 3, 5 (2n + 1)

therefore only odd values ​​can produce standing waves

           λ₃ = 4L / 3

           λ₃ = 4 0.4 / 3

           λ₃ = 0.533

           f₃ = 343 / 0.533

           f₃ = 643 Hz

If this is the only water being used in your house, how fast is the water moving through your house's water supply line, which has a diameter of 0.021 m (about 3/4 of an inch)?

Answers

Answer:

0.273m/s

Explanation:

first find out the meaning of 0.90×10−4m3/s

literally, that is 0.9x6 = 5.4m3/s = 3•5.4m/s or 16.2 m/s

1.5 gal/min = 0.00009464 m³/s, perhaps that is what you mean?

cross-sectional area of pipe is πr² = 0.0105²π = 0.0003464 m²

so you have a a flow of 0.00009464 m³/s flowing through an area of 0.0003464 m²

they divide to 0.00009464 m³/s / 0.0003464 m² = 0.273 m/s

The target variable is the speed of light v in the glass, which you can determine from the index of refraction n of the glass. Which equations will you use to find n and v?

Answers

Answer:

n= speed of light in vacuum/ speed of light in the other medium.

Explanation:

If light is moving from medium 1 into medium 2 where medium 1 is vacuum (approximated to mean air) and we are required to find the velocity of light; then we can confidently write;

n= speed of light in vacuum/ speed of light in the other medium.

Hence;

n= c/v

Where;

n= refractive index of the material

c= speed of light in vacuum

v = speed of light in another medium.

Note that the refractive index is the amount by which a transparent medium decreases the speed of light.

In the direction perpendicular to the drift velocity, there is a magnetic force on the electrons that must be cancelled out by an electric force. What is the magnitude of the electric field that produces this force

Answers

Answer:

E = VdB

Explanation:

This is because canceling the electric and magnetic force means

q.vd. B= we

E= Vd. B

Two long straight wires carry currents perpendicular to the xy plane. One carries a current of 50 A and passes through the point x = 5.0 cm on the x axis. The second wire has a current of 80 A and passes through the point y = 4.0 cm on the y axis. What is the magnitude of the resulting magnetic field at the origin?

Answers

Answer:

450 x10^-6 T

Explanation:

We know that the magnetic of each wire is derived from

ByB= uoi/2pir

Thus B1= 4 x 3.14 x 10^-7 x50/( 2 x 3.142x 0.05)

= 0.2 x 10^ -3T

B2=

4 x 3.14 x 10^-7 x80/( 2 x 3.142x 0.04)

= 0.4 x 10^ -3T

So

(Bnet)² = (Bx)² + ( By)²

= (0.2² + 0.4²)mT

= 450 x10^-6T

The magnitude of magnetic field at the origin is required.

The magnitude of resulting magnetic field at origin is [tex]447.2\ \mu\text{T}[/tex]

x = Location at x axis = 5 cm

y = Location at y axis = 4 cm

[tex]I_x[/tex] = Current at the x axis point = 50 A

[tex]I_y[/tex] = Current at the y axis point = 80 A

[tex]\mu_0[/tex] = Vacuum permeability = [tex]4\pi\times 10^{-7}\ \text{H/m}[/tex]

Magnitude of the magnetic field is given by

[tex]B=\dfrac{\mu_0I}{2\pi r}[/tex]

Finding the net magnetic field using the Pythagoras theorem

[tex]B^2=B_x^2+B_y^2\\\Rightarrow B^2=\left(\dfrac{\mu_0I_x}{2\pi x}\right)^2+\left(\dfrac{\mu_0I_y}{2\pi y}\right)^2\\\Rightarrow B=\dfrac{\mu_0}{2\pi}\sqrt{\left(\dfrac{I_x}{x}\right)^2+\left(\dfrac{I_y}{y}\right)^2}\\\Rightarrow B=\dfrac{4\pi\times 10^{-7}}{2\pi}\sqrt{\left(\dfrac{50}{0.05}\right)^2+\left(\dfrac{80}{0.04}\right)^2}\\\Rightarrow B=0.0004472=447.2\ \mu\text{T}[/tex]

The magnitude of resulting magnetic field at origin is [tex]447.2\ \mu\text{T}[/tex]

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why is nut-cracker 2nd class lever?​

Answers

2nd class leaver refers to such leaver in which load lies between effort and fulcrum.In a nut cracker too load is in between effort and fulcrum.Thus, nut cracker is a 2nd class leaver.......

How long will it take a spacecraft travelling at 99% the speed of light (gamma = 7) to reach

the star Sirius which is 8.6 light-years away according to people on Earth ? How long will it

take according to the crew of the ship?

Answers

Answer:

The time taken is  [tex]t = 2.739 *10^{8} \ s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The speed of the spacecraft is [tex]v = 0.99c[/tex]

    where c is the speed of light with value [tex]c = 3.0*10^{8} \ m/s[/tex]

    =>   [tex]v = 0.99 * 3.0 *10^{8 } = 2.97*10^{8}\ m/s[/tex]

    The distance of Sirius is [tex]d = 8.6 \ light-years = 8.6 * 9.461*10^{15}= 8.135*10^{16} \ m[/tex]

   

Generally the time taken is mathematically represented as

       [tex]t = \frac{d}{v}[/tex]

substituting values

      [tex]t = \frac{8.136 *10^{16}}{2.97 *10^{8}}[/tex]

      [tex]t = 2.739 *10^{8} \ s[/tex]


A collector that has better efficiency in cold weather is the:
flat-plate collector due to reduced heat loss
evacuated tube collector due to its larger size
flat-plate collector due to the dark-colored coating
O evacuated tube collector due to reduced heat loss
Question 23 (1 point) Saved
One of the following is not found in Thermosyphon systems
o

Answers

Answer:

D. evacuated tube collector due to reduced heat loss

Explanation:

Evacuated tube collectors has vacuum which reduces the loss of heat and increase the efficiency of the collector. It has a major application in solar collector, and converts solar energy to heat energy. It can also be used for heating of a definite volume of water majorly for domestic purpose.

During cold weather, the conservation and efficient use of heat is required. Therefore, evacuated tube collector is preferred so as to reduce heat loss and ensure the maximum use of heat energy.

Consider two parallel wires where the magnitude of the left currentis 2 I0(io) and that of the right current is I0(io). Point A is midway between the wires,and B is an equal distance on the other side of the wires.
The ratio ofthe magnitude of the magnetic field at point A to that at point Bis________

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

At the point midway between wires

magnetic field due to wire having current 2I₀

= 10⁻⁷ x 2 x2I₀ / r     where 2r is the distance between wires .

magnetic field due to wire having current I₀

= 10⁻⁷ x 4 I₀ / r

magnetic field due to wire having current I₀

= 10⁻⁷ x 2I₀ / r    

= 10⁻⁷ x 2 I₀ / r     where 2r is the distance between wires .

these fields are in opposite direction as direction of current is same in both .

net magnetic field = (4 - 2 )x 10⁻⁷ x I₀ / r

= 2 x 10⁻⁷ x  I₀ / r

At point A net magnetic field = 2 x 10⁻⁷ x  I₀ / r

At point B , we shall calculate magnetic field

magnetic field due to nearer wire having current  2 I₀ = 10⁻⁷ x 4 I₀ / r

magnetic field due to wire far away = 10⁻⁷ x 2 I₀ / 3r

These magnetic fields act in the same direction so they will add up

net magnetic field = [ (4 I₀ / r)  + (2 I₀ / 3r) ] x 10⁻⁷

= (14 I₀ / 3r ) x 10⁻⁷

Magnetic field at point B = (14 I₀ / 3r ) x 10⁻⁷

Ratio of field at A and B

= 3 / 7 . Ans

The ratio of the magnitude of the magnetic field at point A to point B is :

3 / 7

Given data :

Magnitude of the left current is  2I₀

Magnitude of the right current is  I₀

First step : Determine the magnetic field at point A  

The magnetic field due to the left current ( 2I₀ )

10⁻⁷ * 2 * 2I₀ / r       ( 2r = distance between wires )

The magnetic field due to the right current ( I₀ )

10⁻⁷ * 2 I₀ / r

From the expressions above the magnetic fields are in  opposite direction

∴ Net magnetic field = (4 - 2 )* 10⁻⁷ * I₀ / r =   2 * 10⁻⁷ *  I₀ / r

Hence The magnetic field at point A = 2 * 10⁻⁷ *  I₀ / r

Next step : determine the magnetic field at point B

Magnetic field due to the closest wire to point B ( i.e.2I₀ ) = 10⁻⁷ * 4 I₀ / r

Magnetic field due to the wire away from point A = 10⁻⁷ * 2 I₀ / 3r

Since the fields acts in the same directions

The net magnetic field =  (4 I₀ / r)  + (2 I₀ / 3r) ] * 10⁻⁷ = ( 14 I₀ / 3r ) * 10⁻⁷

Hence The magnetic field at point A = ( 14 I₀ / 3r ) * 10⁻⁷

Therefore the ratio of the magnitude of the magnetic field at point A to point B  =  3/ 7

Hence we can conclude that the ratio of the magnitude of the magnetic field at point A to point B  = 3 / 7

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Given that two vectors A = 5i-7j-3k, B = -4i+4j-8k find A×B​

Answers

[tex]\textbf{A}×\textbf{B}= 68\hat{\textbf{i}} + 52\hat{\textbf{j}} - 8\hat{\textbf{k}}[/tex]

Explanation:

Given:

[tex]\textbf{A} = 5\hat{\textbf{i}} - 7\hat{\textbf{j}} - 3\hat{\textbf{k}}[/tex]

[tex]\textbf{B} = -4\hat{\textbf{i}} + 4\hat{\textbf{j}} - 8\hat{\textbf{k}}[/tex]

The cross product [tex]\textbf{A}×\textbf{B}[/tex] is given by

[tex]\textbf{A}×\textbf{B} = \left|\begin{array}{ccc}\hat{\textbf{i}} & \hat{\textbf{j}} & \hat{\textbf{k}} \\\:\:5 & -7 & -3 \\ -4 & \:\:4 & -8 \\ \end{array}\right|[/tex]

[tex]= \left|\begin{array}{cc}-7 & -3\\\:4 & -8\\ \end{array}\right|\:\hat{\textbf{i}}\:+\:\left|\begin{array}{cc}-3 & \:\:5\\-8 & -4\\ \end{array}\right|\:\hat{\textbf{j}}\:+\: \left|\begin{array}{cc}\:\:5 & -7\\-4 & \:\:4\\ \end{array}\right|\:\hat{\textbf{k}}[/tex]

[tex]= 68\hat{\textbf{i}} + 52\hat{\textbf{j}} - 8\hat{\textbf{k}}[/tex]

A stone that is dropped freely from rest traveled half the total height in the last second. with what velocity will it strike the ground

Answers

Answer:

hellooooo :) ur ans is 33.5 m/s

At time t, the displacement is h/2:

Δy = v₀ t + ½ at²

h/2 = 0 + ½ gt²

h = gt²

At time t+1, the displacement is h.

Δy = v₀ t + ½ at²

h = 0 + ½ g (t + 1)²

h = ½ g (t + 1)²

Set equal and solve for t:

gt² = ½ g (t + 1)²

2t² = (t + 1)²

2t² = t² + 2t + 1

t² − 2t = 1

t² − 2t + 1 = 2

(t − 1)² = 2

t − 1 = ±√2

t = 1 ± √2

Since t > 0, t = 1 + √2.  So t+1 = 2 + √2.

At that time, the speed is:

v = at + v₀

v = g (2 + √2) + 0

v = g (2 + √2)

If g = 9.8 m/s², v = 33.5 m/s.

the plane of a 5.0 cm by 8.0 cm rectangular loop wire is parallel to a 0.19 t magnetic field. if the loop carries a current of 6.2 amps, what is the magnitude of the torque on the loop

Answers

here is the state ment :0.2 loop

To get an idea of the order of magnitude of inductance, calculate the self-inductance in henries for a solenoid with 1500 loops of wire wound on a rod 13 cm long with radius 2 cm

Answers

Answer:

The self-inductance in henries for the solenoid is 0.0274 H.

Explanation:

Given;

number of turns, N = 1500 turns

length of the solenoid, L = 13 cm = 0.13 m

radius of the wire, r = 2 cm = 0.02 m

The self-inductance in henries for a solenoid is given by;

[tex]L = \frac{\mu_oN^2A}{l}[/tex]

where;

[tex]\mu_o[/tex] is permeability of free space = [tex]4\pi*10^{-7} \ H/m[/tex]

A is the area of the solenoid = πr² = π(0.02)² = 0.00126 m²

[tex]L = \frac{4\pi *10^{-7}(1500)^2*(0.00126)}{0.13} \\\\L = 0.0274 \ H[/tex]

Therefore, the self-inductance in henries for the solenoid is 0.0274 H.

I REALLY NEED HELP WITH PHYSICS ASAP!!!
Vf^2 = v0^2 + 2a (xf - x0)


Solve for a

Answers

Answer:

a. solve for a

[tex]vf ^{2} = vo ^{2} + 2a(xf - xo) \\ 2a(xf - xo) = vf^{2} - vo ^{2} \\ a = \frac{vf^{2} - vo^{2} }{2(xf - xo)} \\ a = \frac{vf ^{2} - vo ^{2} }{2xf - 2xo} [/tex]

I hope I helped you ^_^

If the distance from your eye's lens to the retina is shorter than for a normal eye, you will struggle to see objects that are

Answers

Answer:

far away

Explanation:

There are different types of eye defect ranging from short sightedness, longsighted, astigmatism, presbyopia etc.

If someone is only able to see close ranged object clearly but not far distant object, then such person is suffering from short sightedness or myopia. This occurs when the light rays entering the eye does not converge on the retina. Instead of converging on the retina, the light ray is formed on a point in front of the retina. This causes the distance from the eye's lens to the retina shorter compared to that of a normal eye. This eye defect is usually corrected using concave lens in order to diverge the rays thereby allowing it to focus on the retina.

Hence, if the distance from your eye's lens to the retina is shorter than for a normal eye, you will struggle to see objects that are far away (at a far distant).

A single-turn current loop carrying a 4.00 A current, is in the shape of a right-angle triangle with sides of 50.0 cm, 120 cm, and 130 cm. The loop is in a uniform magnetic field of magnitude 75.0 mT whose direction is parallel to the current in the 130 cm side of the loop. What is the magnitude of the magnetic force on the

Answers

Given that,

Current = 4 A

Sides of triangle = 50.0 cm, 120 cm and 130 cm

Magnetic field = 75.0 mT

Distance = 130 cm

We need to calculate the angle α

Using cosine law

[tex]120^2=130^2+50^2-2\times130\times50\cos\alpha[/tex]

[tex]\cos\alpha=\dfrac{120^2-130^2-50^2}{2\times130\times50}[/tex]

[tex]\alpha=\cos^{-1}(0.3846)[/tex]

[tex]\alpha=67.38^{\circ}[/tex]

We need to calculate the angle β

Using cosine law

[tex]50^2=130^2+120^2-2\times130\times120\cos\beta[/tex]

[tex]\cos\beta=\dfrac{50^2-130^2-120^2}{2\times130\times120}[/tex]

[tex]\beta=\cos^{-1}(0.923)[/tex]

[tex]\beta=22.63^{\circ}[/tex]

We need to calculate the force on 130 cm side

Using formula of force

[tex]F_{130}=ILB\sin\theta[/tex]

[tex]F_{130}=4\times130\times10^{-2}\times75\times10^{-3}\sin0[/tex]

[tex]F_{130}=0[/tex]

We need to calculate the force on 120 cm side

Using formula of force

[tex]F_{120}=ILB\sin\beta[/tex]

[tex]F_{120}=4\times120\times10^{-2}\times75\times10^{-3}\sin22.63[/tex]

[tex]F_{120}=0.1385\ N[/tex]

The direction of force is out of page.

We need to calculate the force on 50 cm side

Using formula of force

[tex]F_{50}=ILB\sin\alpha[/tex]

[tex]F_{50}=4\times50\times10^{-2}\times75\times10^{-3}\sin67.38[/tex]

[tex]F_{50}=0.1385\ N[/tex]

The direction of force is into page.

Hence, The magnitude of the magnetic force on each of the three sides of the loop are 0 N, 0.1385 N and 0.1385 N.

a. The magnitude of the magnetic force on the 130 cm side is 0 Newton.

b. The magnitude of the magnetic force on the 120 cm side is 0.1385 Newton.

c. The magnitude of the magnetic force on the 50 cm side is 0.1385 Newton.

Given the following data:

Current = 4.00 Amperes.Magnetic field strength = 75.0 mT = [tex]7.5 \times 20^{-3}\;T[/tex]Length = 130 cm to m = 1.3 mHypotenuse = 130 cmOpposite side = 120 cmAdjacent side = 50 cm

Let us assume the current is flowing in a counterclockwise direction in the right-angle triangle.

First of all, we would determine the angles by using cosine rule:

[tex]C^2=A^2 +B^2 - 2ABCos\alpha \\\\120^2=130^2 +50^2 - 2(130)(50)Cos\alpha\\\\14400 = 16900 + 2500 -13000Cos\alpha\\\\13000Cos\alpha=19400-14400 \\\\Cos\alpha=\frac{5000}{13000} \\\\\alpha = Cos^{-1}(0.3846)\\\\\alpha =67.38^\circ[/tex]

[tex]C^2=A^2 +B^2 - 2ABCos\beta \\\\50^2=120^2 +130^2 - 2(120)(130)Cos\beta \\\\2500 = 14400 + 16900 -31200Cos\beta\\\\31200Cos\alpha=31300-2500 \\\\Cos\beta=\frac{28800}{31200} \\\\\beta = Cos^{-1}(0.9231)\\\\\beta =22.62^\circ[/tex]

a. To the determine the magnitude of the magnetic force on the 130 cm side:

Mathematically, the force acting on a current in a magnetic field is given by the formula:

[tex]F = BILsin\theta[/tex]

Where:

B is the magnetic field strength.I is the current flowing through a conductor.L is the length of conductor.[tex]\theta[/tex] is the angle between a conductor and the magnetic field.

Substituting the given parameters into the formula, we have;

[tex]F_{130}=7.5 \times 20^{-3}\times 4 \times 1.3 \times sin(0)\\\\F_{130}=7.5 \times 20^{-3}\times 4 \times 1.3 \times0\\\\F_{130}=0\;Newton[/tex]

b. To the determine the magnitude of the magnetic force on the 120 cm side:

[tex]F_{120}=BILsin\beta[/tex]

[tex]F_{120}=7.5 \times 20^{-3}\times 4 \times 1.2 \times sin(22.62)\\\\F_{120}=7.5 \times 20^{-3}\times 4 \times 1.2 \times0.3846\\\\F_{120}=0.1385\;Newton[/tex]

c. To the determine the magnitude of the magnetic force on the 50 cm side:

[tex]F_{50}=BILsin\alpha[/tex]

[tex]F_{50}=7.5 \times 20^{-3}\times 4 \times 0.5 \times sin(67.38)\\\\F_{50}=7.5 \times 20^{-3}\times 4 \times 1.2 \times0.9231\\\\F_{50}=0.1385\;Newton[/tex]

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If Vector A is (6, 4) and Vector B is (-2, -1), what is A – B?
A. (8,5)
B. (4,5)
C. (4,3)
D. (8,3)

Answers

Answer:

I think the answer is A...I'm not sure

Explanation:

A=(6,4)

B=(-2,-1)

A-B=(6-(-2)),(4-(-1))

=(6+2),(4+1)

=(8,5)

Answer:

[tex]6-(-2)=[/tex]

[tex]6+2[/tex]

[tex]=8[/tex]

[tex]4-\left(-1\right)[/tex]

[tex]=4+1[/tex]

[tex]=5[/tex]

[tex](8,5)[/tex]

[tex]\textbf{OAmalOHopeO}[/tex]

By what factor is the intensity of sound at a rock concert louder than that of a whisper when the two intensity levels are 120 dB and 20 dB respectively

Answers

Answer:

The intensity of sound at rock concert is  10¹⁰ greater than that of a whisper.

Explanation:

The intensity of sound is given by;

[tex]I(dB) = 10Log(\frac{I}{I_o} )[/tex]

where;

I is the intensity of the sound

I₀ is the threshold of sound intensity = 1 x 10⁻¹² W/m²

The intensity of sound at a rock concert

[tex]120 = 10Log(\frac{I}{1*10^{-12}} )\\\\12 = Log(\frac{I}{1*10^{-12}} )\\\\\frac{I}{1*10^{-12}} = 10^{12}\\\\I = 1*10^{-12} *10^{12}\\\\I = 1*10^0\\\\I =1 \ W/m^2[/tex]

The intensity of sound of a whisper

[tex]20 = 10Log(\frac{I}{1*10^{-12}} )\\\\2 = Log(\frac{I}{1*10^{-12}} )\\\\\frac{I}{1*10^{-12}} = 10^{2}\\\\I = 1*10^{-12} *10^{2}\\\\I = 1*10^{-10}\\\\I =10^{-10} \ W/m^2[/tex]

Thus, the intensity of sound at rock concert is  10¹⁰ greater than that of a whisper.

16. If one body is positively charged and another body is negatively charged, free electrons tend to
O A. move from the negatively charged body to the positively charged body
O B. remain in the positively charged body
OC. move from the positively charged body to the negatively charged body
O D. remain in the negatively charged body

Answers

Answer:

Hey there!

The correct answer would be option A. If one body is positively charged and another body is negatively charged, free electrons tend to move from the negatively charged body to the positively charged body

Let me know if this helps :)

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