The switch on the electromagnet, initially open, is closed. What is the direction of the induced current in the wire loop (as seen from the left)?

Answer:

(a) 10 m/s

(b) 22.4 m/s

Explanation:

(a) Draw a free body diagram of the car when it is at the top of the loop.  There are two forces: weight force mg pulling down, and normal force N pushing down.

Sum of forces in the centripetal direction (towards the center):

∑F = ma

mg + N = mv²/r

At minimum speed, the normal force is 0.

mg = mv²/r

g = v²/r

v = √(gr)

v = √(10 m/s² × 10.0 m)

v = 10 m/s

(b) Energy is conserved.

Initial kinetic energy + initial potential energy = final kinetic energy

½ mv₀² + mgh = ½ mv²

v₀² + 2gh = v²

(10 m/s)² + 2 (10 m/s²) (20.0 m) = v²

v = 22.4 m/s

Answer:

In the beginning, I was not familiar to assess assessments of the other students. Ifelt a little bit weird that is it possible to check assignments while having an instructor.I was also a bit frustrated, to be honest, that why do we have to assess thoseassessments. It was kind of extra burden for me. But after few weeks assessingmore assignments, my feeling had changed because I was learning lots of thingsthat were changing my perspectives. I was gaining extra knowledge from my peersin the form of assessments. Yes, I am comfortable with assessing assessments,because I got to learn many vocabularies and making structures of the sentencecorrectly by improving grammatically as I am not a native English speaker. Thus, inthis way, I was learning something new in each and every assessment.

Answer:

The position on the y-axis where the magnetic field is zero is at y = 10 cm

Explanation:

The magnetic field B due to a long straight wire carrying a current, i at a distance R from the wire is given by

B = μ₀i/2πR

Now, let y be the point where the magnetic fields of both wires are equal.

So, the magnetic field due to wire 1 carrying current i₁ = 73 A is

B₁ = μ₀i₁/2π(y - 3) and

the magnetic field due to wire 2 carrying current i₂ = 31 A is

B₂ = μ₀i₂/2π(13 - y)

At the point where the magnetic field is zero, B₁ = B₂. So,

μ₀i₁/2π(y - 3) = μ₀i₂/2π(13 - y)

cancelling out μ₀ and 2π, we have

i₁/(x - y) = i₂/(13 - y)

cross-multiplying, we have

(13 - y)i₁ = (y - 3)i₂

Substituting the values of i₁ and i₂, we have

(13 - y)73 = (y - 3)31

949 - 73y = 31y - 93

Collecting like terms, we have

949 + 93 = 73y + 31y

1042 = 104y

dividing through by 104, we have

y = 1042/104

y = 10.02 cm

y ≅ 10 cm

So, the position on the y-axis where the magnetic field is zero is at y = 10 cm

Answer:

a) k = 95.54 N / m,   c =   19.55 , b)      m₃ = 0.9078 kg

Explanation:

In a simple harmonic movement with friction, we can assume that this is provided by the speed

          fr = -c v

when solving the system the angular value remains

          w² = w₀² + (c / 2m)²

They give two conditions

1) m₁ = 1 kg

     f₁ = 1.1 Hz

the angular velocity is related to frequency

         w = 2π f₁

Let's find the angular velocity without friction is

         w₂ = k / m₁

we substitute

        (2π f₁)² = k / m₁ + (c / 2m₁)²

2) m₂ = 2 kg

    f₂ = 0.8 Hz

        (2π f₂)² = k / m₂ + (c / 2m₂)²

we have a system of two equations with two unknowns, so we can solve it

we solve (c / 2m)² is we equalize the expression

           (2π f₁)² - k / m₁ = (2π f₂²) 2 - k / m₁

           k (1 / m₂ - 1 / m₁) = 4π² (f₂² - f₁²)

           k = 4π² (f₂² -f₁²) / (1 / m₂ - 1 / m₁)

a) Let's calculate

           k = 4 π² (0.8² -1.1²) / (½ -1/1)

           k = 39.4784 (1.21) / (-0.5)

           k = 95.54 N / m

now we can find the constant of friction

              (2π f₁) 2 = k / m₁ + (c / 2m₁)²

           c2 = ((2π f₁)² - k / m₁) 4m₁²

           c2 = (4ππ² f₁² - k / m₁) 4 m₁²

let's calculate

           c² = (4π² 1,1² - 95,54 / 1) 4 1²

           c² = (47.768885 - 95.54) 8

           c² = -382.1689

           c =   19.55    

b) f₃ = 0.2 Hz

   m₃ =?

              (2πf₃)² = k / m₃ + (c / 2m₃) 2

we substitute the values

              (4π² 0.2²) = 95.54 / m₃ + 382.1689 2/4 m₃²

              1.579 = 95.54 / m₃ + 95.542225 / m₃²

let's call

              x = 1 / m₃

              x² = 1 / m₃²

- 1.579 + 95.54 x + 95.542225 x² = 0

              60.5080 x² + 60.5080 x -1 = 0

                x² + x - 1.65 10⁻² = 0

                  x = [1 ±√ (1- 4 (-1.65 10⁻²)] / 2

                  x = [1 ± 1.03] / 2

                  x₁ = 1.015 kg

                  x₂ = -0.015 kg

Since the mass must be positive we eliminate the second results

                  x₁ = 1 / m₃

                 m₃ = 1 / x₁

                  m₃ = 1 / 1.1015

Answer:

Time, [tex]t=1.07\times 10^{-23}\ s[/tex]

Explanation:

Given that,

When a high-energy proton or pion traveling near the speed of light collides with a nucleus, it may travel [tex]3.2\times 10^{-15}\ m[/tex] before interacting.

Let t is the time interval required for the strong interaction to occur. It will move with the speed of light. So,

[tex]t=\dfrac{d}{c}\\\\t=\dfrac{3.2\times 10^{-15}}{3\times 10^8}\\\\t=1.07\times 10^{-23}\ s[/tex]

So, the time interval is [tex]1.07\times 10^{-23}\ s[/tex]

Answer:

6.13 seconds

Explanation:

At the peak of the fireworks trajectory, the velocity of the firework would be zero. Using equation of motion, we have:

v² = u² + 2gh

0 = 40² - (2)(9.81)(h)

0 = 1600 - 19.62h

19.62h = 1600

h = 1600/19.62

h = 81.55 m

Now during the process of explosion, the two parts gained equal vertical momentum but in opposite directions.

We are told the first piece lands in a time of 2.71 s,

Using 3rd equation of motion, we have;

h = ut + ½gt²

81.55 = u(2.71) + ½(9.81 × 2.71²)

81.55 = 2.71u + 36.0228

2.71u = 81.55 - 36.0228

2.71u = 45.5272

u = 45.5272/2.71

u = 16.8 m/s

The time it takes a projectile to return back to its original launch point assuming the projectile was launched

vertically with speed u = 16.8 m/s is;

t = 2u/g

t = (2 × 16.8)/9.81

t = 3.43 s

Thus total time it takes the second mass to reach the ground = 3.43 + 2.71 = 6.13 seconds

Answer:

Explanation:

The equation for a traveling wave as expressed as y(x, t) = A cos(kx − [tex]\omega[/tex]t) where An is the amplitude f oscillation, [tex]\omega[/tex] is the angular velocity and x is the horizontal displacement and y is the vertical displacement.

From the formula; [tex]k =\frac{2\pi x}{\lambda} \ and \ \omega = 2 \pi f[/tex] where;

[tex]\lambda \ is\ the \ wavelength \ and\ f \ is\ the\ frequency[/tex]

Before we can get the transverse speed, we need to get the frequency and the wavelength.

frequency = 1/period

Given period = 2/15 s

Frequency = [tex]\frac{1}{(2/15)}[/tex]

frequency = 1 * 15/2

frequency f = 15/2 Hertz

Given wavelength [tex]\lambda[/tex] = 2m

Transverse speed [tex]v = f \lambda[/tex]

[tex]v = 15/2 * 2\\\\v = 30/2\\\\v = 15m/s[/tex]

Hence, the transverse speed at that point is  15m/s

Answer:

raise the board to a higher angle

Explanation:

Static friction is the force opposite to the applied force.

Static friction is dependent on the angle of inclination, it means as the angle of incline increases, the force of friction will increases as normal force will decrease.

So, if the board will be raised to a higher angle, it will increase the angle of incline and will overcome the static friction and block will be able slide.

Hence, the correct option is "raise the board to a higher angle".

Answer:

changing the magnetic field more rapidly

Explanation:

According to Faraday's law, whenever there is a change in the magnetic lines of force, it leads the production of induced emf. The magnitude of induced emf is proportional to to the rate of change of flux.

Hence if the magnetic field inside a loop of wire is changed rapidly, the magnitude of induced emf increases in accordance with Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction stated above when the magnetic field is changed more rapidly, hence the answer.

Answer:

When drugs are taken in are body are brain release dopamine: which make us feel so pleasure and good, and for this some people are addicted to drugs which makes them feel good. on other hand damaging their health.

Answer:

The ability of a water strider to move along the surface of water without breaking the surface is due to:

SURFACE TENSION

Explanation:

this is because Water molecules are more attracted to each other than they are to other materials, so they generate a force to stay together called surface tension. Which allows the strider to move without breaking the surface

Explanation:

EE = ½ kx²

EE = ½ (800 N/m) (6 m)²

EE = 14,400 J

Answer:

14,400 J

Explanation:

Its the answer

Answer

82.3 wavelengths

Answer:

The tension on string when the speed was raised is 134.53 N

Explanation:

Given;

Tension on the string, T = 120 N

initial speed of the transverse wave, v₁ = 170 m/s

final speed of the transverse wave, v₂ = 180 m/s

The speed of the wave is given as;

[tex]v = \sqrt{\frac{T}{\mu} }[/tex]

where;

μ is mass per unit length

[tex]v^2 = \frac{T}{\mu} \\\\\mu = \frac{T}{v^2} \\\\\frac{T_1}{v_1^2} = \frac{T_2}{v_2^2}[/tex]

The final tension T₂ will be calculated as;

[tex]T_2 = \frac{T_1 v_2^2}{v_1^2} \\\\T_2 = \frac{120*180^2}{170^2} \\\\T_2 = 134.53 \ N[/tex]

Therefore, the tension on string when the speed was raised is 134.53 N

Explanation:

Hey, there!

Here, In question given that,

potential difference (V)= 8V

resistance (R)= 10 ohm

Now,

According to the Ohm's law,

V= R×I { where I = current}

or, I = V/R

or, I = 8/10

Therefore, current is 4/5 A or 0.8 A.

(A= ampere = unit of current).

Hope it helps...

Answer:

The width of the slit is 0.4 mm (0.00040 m).

Explanation:

From the Young's interference expression, we have;

(λ ÷ d) = (Δy ÷ D)

where λ is the wavelength of the light, D is the distance of the slit to the screen, d is the width of slit and Δy is the fringe separation.

Thus,

d = (Dλ) ÷ Δy

D = 3.30 m, Δy = 4.7 mm (0.0047 m) and λ = 563 nm (563 ×[tex]10^{-9}[/tex] m)

d = (3.30 × 563 ×[tex]10^{-9}[/tex] ) ÷ (0.0047)

  = 1.8579 × [tex]10^{-6}[/tex] ÷ 0.0047

  = 0.0003951 m

d = 0.00040 m

The width of the slit is 0.4 mm (0.00040 m).

Answer:

t = 134834.31 years

Explanation:

First we find the speed of the ship:

v = 0.890 c

where,

v = speed of the ship = ?

c = speed of light = 3 x 10⁸ m/s

Therefore, using the values, we get:

v = (0.89)(3 x 10⁸ m/s)

v = 2.67 x 10⁸ m/s

Now, we find the distance in meters:

Distance = s = (1.2 x 10⁵ light years)(9.461 x 10¹⁵/1 light year)

s = 11.35 x 10²⁰ m

Now, for the time we use the following equation:

s = vt

t = s/v

t = (11.35 x 10²⁰ m)/(2.67 x 10⁸ m/s)

t = (4.25 x 10¹² s)(1 h/3600 s)(1 day/24 h)(1 year/365 days)

t = 134834.31 years

Answer:

Explanation:

[tex]Distance = 535m\\Time = 17.3s\\\\Velocity = \frac{Distane}{Time} \\\\V = \frac{535m}{17.3s} \\\\Velocity = 30.92m/s[/tex]

[tex]Distance = 535m\\\\535m \:to \: km=0.535km\\\\Time = 17.3s\\\\17.3s = 0.004805556hours\\\\Velocity = \frac{Distance}{Time}\\\\ V= \frac{0.535}{0.004805556} \\\\ V=111.329469472\\\\=111.33km/h[/tex]

Answer:

Explanation:

When plastic balloon is rubbed with wool , charges are created on both balloon and silk in equal amount . Rubber balloon will acquire negative charge and silk will acquire positive charge .

Now when balloon is brought near a wall , there is induction of charge on the wall due to charge on the balloon . On the near surface of wall positive charge is produced and on the surface deep inside the wall negative charge is produced . The charge deep inside goes inside the earth but the positive charge near the surface of wall can not escape . It remains trapped by negative charge on the balloon .

hence there is mutual attraction between balloon and surface of wall is just like attraction between opposite charges . But once the ballon due to mutual attraction comes in contact with the wall , the charge on balloon and on wall neutralises each other and hence after some time the balloon falls off from the wall on the ground . It does not remain attracted to wall for ever . It happens due to neutralisation of charges on balloon and wall .

Answer:

Increase the distance by a factor of 6.

Explanation:

The intensity at a distance r is given by :

[tex]I=\dfrac{P}{4\pi r^2}[/tex]

Here,

P is power emitted

r is distance from source

It means that the intensity is inversely proportional to the distance from the source.

To decrease the intensity of the sound you are hearing from your speaker system by a factor of 36, we can increase the distance by a factor of 6. Hence, this is the required solution.

Explanation:

unit is necessary to communicate values of the physical quantity for example can main to someone a particular length without using some sort of unit is impossible because a length cannot be described without a reference used to make sense of the value given

Blood comes into the right atrium from the body, moves into the right ventricle and is pushed into the pulmonary arteries in the lungs. After picking up oxygen, the blood travels back to the heart through the pulmonary veins into the left atrium, to the left ventricle and out to the body's tissues through the aorta.

Hope it helps you

Mark my answer as brainlist

have a nice day

Answer:

a) the light is close to normal therefore the reference incidence of medium 1 is less than medium n2 where the ray is transmitted.

b) The ray is far from normal in this case the refractive index of medium 1 is greater than index of medium 2

Explanation:

The expression for the angle of refraction is

          n₁ sin θ₁ = n₂ sin θ₂

refractive index n₁ is for incident light and n₂ is for transmitted light.

We have two cases

a) the light is close to normal therefore the reference incidence of medium 1 is less than medium n2 where the ray is transmitted.

b) The ray is far from normal in this case the refractive index of medium 1 is greater than index of medium 2

Answer:

The blade undergoes 40 revolutions, so neither of the given options is correct!

Explanation:

The revolutions can be found using the following equation:

[tex]\theta_{f} = \theta_{i} + \omega_{i}*t + \frac{1}{2}\alpha*t^{2}[/tex]

Where:

α is the angular acceleration

t is the time = 2.5 s

[tex]\omega_{i}[/tex] is the initial angular velocity = 1500 rev/min                

First, we need to find the angular acceleration:

[tex] \alpha = \frac{\omega_{f} - \omega_{i}}{t} = \frac{400 rev/min*2\pi rad*1 min/60 s - 1500 rev/min *2\pi rad*1 min/60 s}{2.5 s} = -46.08 rad/s^{2} [/tex]

Now, the revolutions that the blade undergo are:

[tex]\theta_{f} - \theta_{i} = \omega_{i}*t + \frac{1}{2}\alpha*t^{2}[/tex]

[tex]\Delta \theta = 1500 rev/min *2\pi rad*1 min/60 s*2.5 s - \frac{1}{2}*(46.08 rad/s^{2})*(2.5)^{2} = 248.7 rad = 39.9 rev[/tex]        

Therefore, the blade undergoes 40 revolutions, so neither of the given options is correct!

I hope it helps you!                              

Answer:

To first order  f' = f (1 - u/c) where observer and source are separating

f' = (1 + .4) = 70 MHz   so (d) would be correct

The next term would be 1/2 (u/c)^2 = 1/2 * ,4^2 = .08 and the correction would be .08 * 50 = 4 Mhz

Most approximations would use (d).

Answer:

206.8965517 n

Explanation:

First, we need to see that 60:29 is 2.078965517:1. Then we need to multiply the energy put 29 cm from the fulcrum by 2.078965517, giving us the end result of our answer.

Answer:

The fumes stop getting sucked up by the fume hood once the beaker is pulled out of the hood.

Answer:

The value is  [tex]\mu = 0.76[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The  acceleration is [tex]a = 7.4 \ m /s^2[/tex]

Generally the force by which the truck bed (truck) is moving with is mathematically represented as

          [tex]F = ma[/tex]

Now for the truck cabinet to slip from the truck bed then the frictional force between the truck cabinet  is equal the force by which the the truck bed is moving with that is  

        [tex]F_f = F[/tex]

Here  [tex]F_f[/tex] is the frictional force which is mathematically represented as

         [tex]F_f = \mu * m * g[/tex]

substituting into above equation

         [tex]\mu * m * g = ma[/tex]

=>        [tex]\mu = \frac{a}{g}[/tex]

substituting values

           [tex]\mu = \frac{ 7.4 }{ 9.8}[/tex]

           [tex]\mu = 0.76[/tex]

Answer:

I think 9.5

Explanation:

............

Answer:

This is because the same electron removed from the positively charged plate is what is taken to the negatively charged plate, maintaining the same amount of electron according to the conservation of charge in an electric circuit.

Explanation:

In any circuit, electrons are neither created nor destroyed according to the laws of conservation of charge, but are transferred from one point to another on the circuit. When the plates of a capacitor are connected to battery, the battery pushes the electron to move due to its potential difference. Electrons are then moved from the positive plate, at a steady rate, to the negative plate. The removal of electrons from the positive plate is what leaves it positively charged from deficiency of electrons, and the addition of electrons at the negatively charged plate is what leaves the plate negatively charge from excess of electrons. From this, we can see that the same electrons removed from the positively charged plate are  taken to the negatively charged plate.