What is not the priority of an emt at the scene of a hazardous materials incident?

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Answer 1

Emergency medical technicians (EMTs) have various important roles excluding the establishment the perimeter control.

Protecting people and property while minimising any adverse effects on the environment are the responsibilities of trained awareness level responders who are "first on the scene" during the occurrence of hazardous material. Emergency medical service (EMS) protocols are the accepted operating procedures that paramedics and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) must adhere to when assessing, treating, transporting, and delivering patients to definitive care.

There are certain role of responders that needed to be taken care of during such incidents.

Responders should avoid driving or walking through any spilled or released substances, including smoke, fumes, and puddlesPrevent unneeded equipment infectionAvoid being seen when you approach a sceneAvoid interacting with people leaving hazardous locationsRescue attempts should not be made unless you are trained and have the necessary PPEReport to the command post any suspicious people, shipments, or containers

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A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is pregnant. The nurse should expect which of the following laboratory values to increase

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The laboratory values which will increase in pregnant women is Human chorionic gonadotropin hormone (hCG).

What is Human chorionic gonadotropin hormone?

This hormone is produced by the placenta during the course of pregnancy in human females.

They are usually detected by  laboratory tests as a sign of pregnancy thereby making it the most appropriate choice.

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Mrs. Jones has called for an appointment. She is a new patient. How will you verify her insurance benefits?

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Some of the different ways to verify the insurance benefits of a patient are:

Look through the insurance verification checklistLook through Mrs.Jones's insurance cardConfirm the details

What are Insurance Benefits?

This refers to the different things that an insured person enjoys when a clause is activated in his insurance and this can be in the form of discounts, etc.

Hence, we can see that based on the fact that Mrs. Jones is a patient that claims to have medical insurance, you would need to verify her claim and this can be done using the aforementioned tips.

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A person who regularly consumes fish such as shark, king mackerel, and swordfish is at risk for ingesting potentially toxic amounts of

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Mercury is ingested in the excess amount by the person who consumes shark, king mackerel, and swordfish.

Eating seafood is good for health like fish etc. As they are a high source of proteins and omega-3 fatty acids. Mercury is a toxic metal that when ingested causes poisoning and neurological diseases which lead to sudden death.  Pregnant, nursing women and children should avoid eating fish in their diet. Larger fishes like Shark, and King mackerel feed on the small fishes due to which they have high mercury content. Mercury poisoning causes symptoms like- memory loss, numbness in the limbs, and deterioration the brain development.  

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. A nurse believes that she lacks the basic knowledge and skills necessary to carry out her initial patient assignment. The nurse invokes Safe Harbor and brings her Quick Request for Safe Harbor form to her supervisor. What other action is required by the nurse when refusing an assignment

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The other action required by the nurse when refusing an assignment is a Safe harbor from collaborating with the supervisor.

A safe harbor is a clause in a law or regulation that says certain actions shall be regarded as not breaking a particular rule.

When a nurse requests in good faith a nursing peer review of an assignment or action they are expected to carry out, Safe Harbor is a mechanism that shields them from employer retribution, suspension, termination, disciplinary, discrimination, and licensure sanctions.

Due to urgent patient care requirements, a nurse may invoke safe harbor by verbally telling the nurse's supervisor of the request. In that case, the nurse's supervisor must establish in writing the specifications for a Safe Harbor Quick Request.

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Osteopathic Manual Therapy Reduces Gastrointestinal Dysfunction and Length of Stay for Premature Infants in Neonatal Int

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Effect of osteopathic manipulative treatment on gastrointestinal function and length of stay of preterm infants: an exploratory study.

Osteopathic manipulative therapy

OMT, or osteopathic manipulative therapy, is a manual therapy approach. Osteopathic manipulative therapy or osteopathic manipulation are other names for OMT. Osteopathic medical doctors (DOs) employ OMT to treat a variety of medical disorders including mechanical pain (pain from a structural imbalance in the muscle, tendon, or bone). OMT is another tool used by DOs to help your body work better and diagnose and prevent disease. The muscles, soft tissues, and joints are gently manipulated by DOs using a variety of OMT techniques. By ensuring that your bones and muscles are properly aligned and balanced, the procedure helps your body to repair itself.

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Kids of abusive parents often display ________ attachment, and may run away from their parents in the Strange Situation experiment.

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Answer: disorganized attachment

Explanation:

- disorganized attachment is rooted in unpredictable and inconsistent behavior from caregivers during a child's formative years

- this is an insecure style of attachment that develops when kids are raised in an environment that elicits fear, often involving abuse or a lack of reliability

signs of disorganized attachment in children can include:

- attention seeking

- avoidant

- inability to communicate needs

- lack of self-soothing skills

- hyper-focusing

- push-pull dynamic with caregivers

- confusion and ambivalence

hope this helps :)

An invasive imaging technique that provides color-coded images of brain activity by tracking the brain’s use of a radioactively tagged compound, such as glucose, oxygen, or a drug, is called?

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An invasive imaging technique that provides color-coded images of brain activity by tracking the brain’s use of a radioactively tagged compound is positron emission tomography.

What is positron emission tomography (PET)?

Positron emission tomography (PET) is a methodology used in clinical settings to identify a given reactive isotope.

Positron emission tomography may result very useful to observe in vivo a given physiological mechanism.

In conclusion, an invasive imaging technique that provides color-coded images of brain is positron emission tomography.

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a registered nurse is teaching a group of students about functional consequencxes of physiological againg on the cardiovascular system quizlet

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A higher response of baroreceptors in arterioles is seen with increasing age.

Older adults are more susceptible to orthostatic hypotension because their baroreceptors, which detect changes in blood pressure, respond slowly to these changes. As a result, this student nurse's remark highlights the need for additional instruction.

What is a baroreceptor?

An example of a mechanoreceptor is a baroreceptor, which enables the autonomic nervous system to communicate information generated from blood pressure. In order to maintain blood pressure within a predetermined, normal range, information is then transferred rapidly in order to modify the total peripheral resistance and cardiac output.

How do baroreceptors respond in older adults?

As we age, the baroreceptors become less sensitive. This may help to explain why a lot of elderly persons get orthostatic hypotension, a condition in which standing up from a laying or sitting position causes a drop in blood pressure. Because of this, there is less blood supply to the brain, which results in dizziness.

I understand the question you are looking for is this:

A registered nurse is teaching a group of students about the functional consequences of physiological aging on the cardiovascular system. Which statement made by a student nurse indicates the need for further teaching?

An increased risk of arrhythmias is due to changes in conductive tissues.The heart of an older client may have some degree of diastolic dysfunction.A higher response of baroreceptors in arterioles is seen with increasing age.A decreased ability of arteries to vasodilate is associated with free radical damage of cell membranes.

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The most effective approach to health habit modification that focuses on the target behavior, the conditions that elicit and maintain it, and the factors that reinforce it is called

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The most effective approach to health habit modification that focuses on the target behaviour, the conditions that elicit and maintain it, and the factors that reinforce it is called cognitive-behaviour therapy.

Cognitive behavioural therapy, also known as CBT, is a type of psychological treatment that has been shown to be effective for a wide range of problems, including severe mental illness, eating disorders, marital problems,  and anxiety disorders, as well as alcohol and drug use problems and problems related to substance abuse. CBT has been the subject of a substantial number of research investigations, all of which point to its ability to significantly enhance both health and quality of life. Numerous studies have shown that cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is just as successful as, if not more effective than, other types of psychiatric drugs or psychological therapy in treating mental health conditions.

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76-year-old woman has a complex medical history that includes emphysema, osteoporosis, malnutrition, and hypothyroidism. Recently, the woman fell outside her home as a result of weakness and suffered a fracture to her femoral head. The woman's subsequent hip-replacement surgery has been scheduled and the care team recognizes that the use of isoflurane will be most significantly influenced by

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Answer:

I think it's malnutrition not really sure about the answer

The use of isoflurane during the hip-replacement surgery of the 76-year-old woman will be most significantly influenced by her medical history, particularly her emphysema and osteoporosis.

Emphysema is a chronic lung condition characterized by the destruction of lung tissue, leading to reduced lung function. This condition increases the risk of complications during anesthesia, as the patient may have impaired gas exchange. Isoflurane is an inhalation anesthetic commonly used during surgery, and its effects on respiratory function need to be carefully considered in patients with emphysema.

Osteoporosis, which is a condition characterized by decreased bone density, poses challenges during surgery as it increases the risk of fractures and complications. The fragility of the patient's bones due to osteoporosis may influence the surgical approach and the use of anesthetics like isoflurane. The care team must take into account the patient's emphysema and osteoporosis when determining the appropriate dosage and monitoring protocols for isoflurane during hip-replacement surgery.

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The appropriate question is:

A 76-year-old woman has a complex medical history that includes emphysema, osteoporosis, malnutrition, and hypothyroidism. Recently, the woman fell outside her home as a result of weakness and suffered a fracture to her femoral head. The woman's subsequent hip-replacement surgery has been scheduled and the care team recognizes that the use of isoflurane will be most significantly influenced by what?

The type of health insurance coverage that takes up where basic health insurance coverage leaves off is

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The type of health insurance coverage that takes up where basic health insurance coverage leaves off is Major medical expense insurance.

What is health insurance coverage?It is a legal entitlement to pay for your health care costs which is generally under a contract with a health insurance company or government program like Medicare, Medicaid.The primary purpose of medical insurance is to pay actual medical costs.Basic health insurance offer less coverage for lower premiums. Subscribers pay a low premium for coverage and receive set amounts of cash to reimburse them for events including doctor visits, lab tests and surgery. Major medical insurance offers more coverage for a higher premium. Major medical insurance covers more than doctor visits and surgical procedures. It also covers the expenses associated with serious illness or hospitalization.

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Currently, an older adult in __________ can expect to live the longest in full health, without disease or injury.

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Currently, an older adult in Japan can expect to live the longest in full health, without disease or injury.

Japan is an island country in East Asia. Tokyo is the capital of Japan. Japan is one of the most densely populated countries in the world and is urbanized.

Japan has the highest life expectancy as compared to other countries. In Japan people live the longest in full health, as there are very less number of deaths due to ischemic heart diseases and cancer.

People are healthy in Japan as they consume very healthy foods like more of fish and seafood, green tea, soya bean , etc. Japanese people consume very less red meat and sugars. The Japanese diet helps people remain heathy.

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Also known as walleye, ____________________ is strabismus characterized by the outward deviation of one eye relative to the other.

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Answer is Exotropia - which is a form of strabismus characterized by an outward deviation of one eye away from the nose.

Which assessment would support a diagnosis of type A COPD rather than type B COPD?

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Airway blockage or limitation is a hallmark of the group of chronic, irreversible respiratory disorders known as a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It is not treatable or contagious. Reduced pulmonary airflow brought on by elevated inflammation characterises asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

Two primary phenotypes have been established based on clinical, pathological, and radiological characteristics:

Emphysema type A and type B patients are referred to as "pink puffers" and "blue-bloaters," respectively (chronic bronchitis)

Dyspnea is the most common symptom in Type A patients, while cough and hypersecretion are mild. The main causes of the decreased diffusing capacity for carbon monoxide (DLCO) and frequently enlarged lung volumes in Type A patients include non-homogeneous ventilation and ventilation-perfusion mismatch. Type A patients also seldom have hypercapnia or recurrent heart failure.

Mucous hypersecretion is the predominant symptom of type B patients, although dyspnea is mild. While lung capacities are not expanded and carbon monoxide diffusing ability is often conserved, type B patients frequently exhibit hypercapnia, hypoxia, secondary pulmonary hypertension, and cardiovascular comorbidities.

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The nurse is caring for a newborn who was delivered via a planned cesarean birth. The nurse determines the infant requires closer monitoring than a vaginal delivery infant based on which factor

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Excessive fluid in its lungs makes respiratory adaptation more challenging.

Why do babies born with cesarean delivery have fluid in the lungs?

A newborn baby may cry ineffectively and breathe quickly and laboriously right after birth.

It results from an excess of amniotic fluid in the lungs. The baby's lungs are filled with this fluid before to birth. The first few breaths after delivery normally drain the lungs of fluid and fill them with oxygen. The baby's skin turns pink as the oxygen enters the bloodstream.

A baby exhibits symptoms of respiratory distress when excess fluid is still present in the lungs.

Extra amniotic fluid in the lungs is what causes wet lungs. The time it takes for the fluid to leave the lungs can occasionally be a bit longer than anticipated. Excess fluid:

makes it more difficult for the lungs' tiny air sacs to remain open.makes the infant breathe quickly.

Pressure on the newborn's chest during vaginal birth squeezes fluid out of the baby's lungs. The hormones that are released during childbirth cause the baby's lungs to swiftly absorb the fluid as well.

There may be some fluid in the infant's lungs if:

Vaginal delivery is not an option.The fluid takes some time to be absorbed.

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The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports being splashed in the eye while emptying urine from the catheter bag of a client with AIDS. The UAP is afraid of becoming infected with HIV and requests immediate testing. What is the nurse's priority action

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Direct UAP to eyewash station, flush eyes

Any task nurses assign must be capable of being completed and be licenced. The assignment must even be one that UAP can handle and that your facility identifies as delegatable. A piece that can be delegated is one that doesn't call for nursing discretion. Typically, it involves repetitive tasks, such measuring vital signs and urine output.

What is HIV AIDS ?

The virus referred to as HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) targets the immune system of the body. AIDS can develop from HIV if it's not treated (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome).

A virus is the cause of HIV. Sexual contact, sharing needles for illegal drugs or injections, coming into contact with infected blood, or transmission from mother to child during pregnancy, childbirth, or breastfeeding are all ways HIV might spreadWhite blood cells called CD4 T cells, which are crucial to your body's ability to fight infection, are destroyed by HIV.

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A client who is receiving nitrofurantoin calls the clinic complaining of troublesome effects related to the medication. Which side or adverse effect(s) indicates the need to stop treatment with this medication

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Cough and chest pain is the side or adverse effects indicating the need to stop treatment with this medication in  nitrofurantoin

Nitrofurantoin is used to deal with urinary tract infections. This medication is an antibiotic. It really works by killing bacteria or stopping their growth. But, this medicine will no longer paintings for colds, flu, or different virus infections.

How long does nitrofurantoin take to paint for a UTI? Your antibiotic ought to start running within three to five days, although it may soak up to every week for signs and symptoms to clear. Make sure to complete the whole course of drugs. That is the simplest manner to make certain the infection absolutely is going away.

Nitrofurantoin is as powerful as different lengthy-time period antibiotics for stopping recurrent urinary tract infections. The antibiotic nitrofurantoin works as well as other lengthy-term antibiotics for preventing recurrent urinary tract infections in girls.

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When an applicant for a nursing license receives a final conviction for first degree murder, the NPA mandates that the applicant

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When an applicant for a nursing license receives a final conviction for first degree murder, the NPA mandates that the applicant will not be eligible to apply for an initial nursing license until five years after being released from community supervision or parole.

A nurse practice act (NPA) was passed into law by all states and territories, and it creates a board of nursing (BON) with the power to create administrative rules or regulations to specify or explain the law. Rules and regulations must adhere to the NPA and are not permitted to stray from it. The NPA was created to control the profession and safeguard the populace from practitioners who pose a threat to the welfare, safety, and health of those living under its state board's purview. Conduct that gives rise to suspicions that a nurse's ability to practice is hampered by chemical dependency or drug or alcohol addiction is classified as NPA.

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Snacks provide about _____ of the average teenager’s total daily food energy intake.

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Snacks provide about one -fourth of the average teenagers total daily food energy intake.Eating healthy food is an important part of our healthy life.

The food that provides most helpful to teens are whole-wheat, enriched , or fortified breads.Vitamins and minerals are are important intakes for teenagers in their young age.Calories needs vary depends on age and gender and according to to activity level of teenagers.

Boys require an average 3000 calories a day an girls requires 2500 calories a day not more not less . The body demands more calories during early adolescence .Teenagers should limit their intakes to 25 to 35 % of total calories every day in snacks.

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The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has nasal packing in place following nasal surgery. Which discharge instructions would be most appropriate for the client

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The discharge instructions that would be most appropriate for the client is to avoid sports activities for 6 weeks.

What is nasal packing?

Nasal packing is a medical procedure that involves the insertion of an intranasal device that applies constant local pressure to the nasal septum.

This procedure is carried out through nasal surgery due to the following reasons:

it is used to drain excess fluid secretions

it is used to drain blood after surgery.

This procedure is usually removed after few weeks of placement.

Therefore, part of the discharge instructions that would be most appropriate for the client is to avoid sports activities for 6 weeks.

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Transabdominal ultrasound of pregnant uterus, first pregnancy (real time with image documentation), fetal and maternal evaluation, second trimester

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The current procedural terminology (CPT) code for transabdominal ultrasound of pregnant uterus, first pregnancy (real time with image documentation), fetal and maternal evaluation, second trimester is 76805.

What is Medical coding?

This is the transformation of treatment, services etc into numeric and alphanumeric codes.

This reduces prevent ambiguity as in this case where several methods for cervical screening during pregnancy are mentioned but represented with a single code which is 76805.

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A nurse provides teaching on hand hygiene to a client. Which of the following client statements indicates to the nurse a need for further teaching

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The following client statements indicates to the nurse a need for further hygiene teaching "I should wash my hands until they appear clean".

Washing hands until they appear clean is not the correct way to maintain hygiene. Generally speaking, washing your hands with soap and water is recommended. Regular soap is just as good at fighting germs as over-the-counter antibacterial soaps.Clean, running water, either warm or cold, should be used to wet your hands.Apply soap and thoroughly lather.For at least 20 seconds, vigorously rub your hands. Keep in mind to scrub everything, including the wrists, between your fingers, and under your fingernails.Clearly rinse.Dry your hands using a fresh towel or let them air dry.

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In a routine examination, some blood is taken and analyzed. The results show a high IgM titer for the mumps virus but a low IgG anti-mumps titer. This would indicate the person Group of answer choices has just recovered from mumps. is allergic to mumps. is immune to mumps. was recently infected with mumps.

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In a routine examination, some blood is taken and analyzed. The results show a high IgM titer for the mumps virus but a low IgG anti-mumps titer. This would indicate the person was recently infected with mumps.

This is the most common antibody. It is in the blood and other body fluids and protects against bacterial and viral infections. It may take time for IgG to form after infection or immunization. The presence of detectable IgG class antibodies indicates previous exposure to mumps virus through infection or immunization. Individuals who test positive are considered immune to the mumps virus.  People with a history of mumps vaccination may not have detectable mumps IgM antibodies regardless of the timing of sample collection. IgG test results are usually positive and elevated at the initial blood draw.

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Over-the-counter medicine, like cold medicine, can still be dangerous if mixed with the wrong medications or if too much is taken. Because of this, over-the-counter medicine should:

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Over-the-counter medicines should be avoided but taken with a doctor's recommendation.

Over-the-counter medicines

Over-the-counter medicines (OTC medicines) are medicines that a person can buy and store without getting a prescription from the doctor. Such drugs are used to prevent various common illnesses like cold, flu, nausea, pain, constipation, etc.

Drug-drug Interactions

OTC medicines can interact with another drug which is termed drug-drug interaction. Such interactions can be grouped as duplication, opposition, or alteration. Duplication occurs when the active ingredients are similar and opposition occurs when the active ingredients have opposite effects. Alterations occur when one drug changes the way the body reacts to the other. Such changes can have devastating effects on the patient. Thus OTC medicines must be taken after consulting with a doctor.

Note: - The question seems incomplete and the missing options could be,

"Be easily accessible.Not be used before a prescription medicineBe stored in a safe place where it is not easily accessedBe avoided and only taken with a doctor's recommendation

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The nurse reinforces teaching to the parents of a 12-month-old who has begun weaning from breastfeeding. Which statement by the parents indicates that teaching has been effective

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I can start substituting breastfeeding sessions with whole cow's milk is the correct statement by the parents which will indicate that the teaching by the nurse has been effective.

What is Weaning?

This is the process in which a baby is moved from breastfeeding to other types of food sources such as solids. This usually takes time as a lot of patience is required due to the baby having to adapt gently to the new conditions so as to achieve the aim.

This usually occurs after six to 12 month depending on the decision by the parents in which the baby has gotten the appropriate nutrients from breast milk. In this case, cow milk can be used as a substitute in the diet of the child.

This is therefore the reason why it was chosen as the most appropriate choice in this scenario.

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How should agent Erin respond when consumer Mrs. Rose notices that the presented MA Plan has a Star Rating of 2 stars?

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Erin must respond when consumer Mrs. Rose realizes that the presented Health Care Plan has a 2 star rating, that even with a low rating it will have many advantages including cost benefit.

What is star scale in MA Plan?

Plans are rated on a scale of one to five, with one star representing poor performance and five stars representing excellent performance. Star ratings are released annually and reflect the experiences of people enrolled in Medicare Advantage and Part D prescription drug plans. The Star Ratings system supports CMS' efforts to empower people to make the best health decisions for them.

With this information, we can conclude that that even with a low rating it will have many advantages including cost benefit.

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In recent years, the role of ______, the study of the distribution of disease, impairment, and general health status across a population, has expanded to include tracking bioterrorism.

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In recent years, the role of epidemiology, the study of the distribution of disease, impairment, and general health status across a population, has expanded to include tracking bioterrorism.

What is epidemiology?

Epidemiology can simply be defined as the branch of medicine which deals with the incidence, distribution, and possible control of diseases and other factors relating to health.

So therefore, in recent years, the role of epidemiology, the study of the distribution of disease, impairment, and general health status across a population, has expanded to include tracking bioterrorism.

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After developing severe pain from muscle stiffness and cramps, the victim of a black widow spider bite will experience:

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After developing severe pain from muscle stiffness and cramps, the victim of a black widow spider bite will experience: flulike symptoms.

Black widow spiders usually  found in Mexico, the southern United States, and Canada. They reside in low-lying webs near swimming pools, in wood piles, garages, grills, and barbecues. Between April and October, the majority of bites happen in suburban and rural locations. When their webs are tampered with, these spiders often bite. Bites to infants and young children can be more dangerous than bites to adults.

After being bitten by a black widow spider, one may have painful swelling around the bite.   Additionally, individuals can get stomachaches, cramps, and muscle spasms. These symptoms may worsen, up to 12 hours after you have been bitten. It may take a few days or weeks before all the discomfort goes away.

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The goal of effective communication is to reach a shared meaning or understanding with another person

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I think understanding with another person.

The aim of powerful communication is to attain a shared meaning, or know-how with another man or woman.

What is the goal of powerful conversation?

The reason of powerful communique is to get your specific target market to the desired goal. The aim may be informing them or letting them understand a message, but also to steer or persuade them to take action.

What's a shared that means in conversation?

Shared that means is carried out whilst the receiver attaches a comparable meaning to the message that the sender meant to deliver. In other phrases, shared which means occurs when what changed into supposed with the aid of one became further interpreted by way of the other, and what become interpreted by way of one become what changed into intended with the aid of the opposite.

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A nurse is providing discharge teaching to an older adult client following total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching

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Maintaining hip flexion at 90 degrees or less when sitting is the appropriate instructions in which the nurse should include in the teaching to the individual who just went through total hip arthroplasty.

What is Arthroplasty?

This is a medical procedure which involves remodeling of the joint so as to restore its functions. The damaged joint is usually replaced with an artificial one in this scenario thereby ensuring certain types of movements are restored.

The individual should always maintain a hip flexion at 90 degrees or less when sitting  so as to prevent the joint from being stressed which helps maintain its functions. This should also be done to avoid the incidence of the dislocation of the joint.

This is therefore the reason why maintaining a hip flexion at 90 degrees or less is the most appropriate choice.

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heloo need help with this integration Which text evidence best supports the inference that the Maharani was breaking with tradition?A. ". . . he cleverly kept all of us in the dark as to his intention that I should accompany him to England."B. ". . . I may as well confess that I dreaded the experience."C. ". . . for the wife of a ruler to visit England with her husband caused quite a sensation."D. "The Maharani of Baroda, I believe, had once gone to Switzerland. . ." Mahmoud is a highly-paid executive of a major technology firm. how is mahmoud's position most likely to impact how he raises his son ahmad? A monopolist maximizes profits at the output at which Group of answer choices total revenue is at its greatest, assuming that the firm has both fixed and variable costs. price equals marginal cost. price exceeds marginal cost by the greatest amount. Which reason does the passage give for us neutrality at the start of world war i? to avoid disagreement among americans with ties to europe to avoid a conflict that would have no effect on american lives to avoid an expensive endeavor that would cost a high price to avoid a war that would result in high american casualties A teacher divides her class into four groups. She assignseach group the task of measuring the temperature of agiven object three times. The teacher already knows thatthe temperature of the object is 31C.Based on each group's results, which group makes the most precisemeasurements of the object's temperature?A. Group A: 31.0C, 32.0C, 30.0CB. Group B: 29.5C, 33.0C, 31.8CC. Group C: 32.1C, 31.9C, 31.8CD. Group D: 29.0C, 35.0C, 32.0C A square piece of paper measures 20centimeters on each side. Four equally-sized circles are going to be cut out fromthe paper. What is the largest possiblearea of ONE of the circles? Solve.Three times the sum of some number plus 3 is equal to 7 times the number minus 23. Influence of bromine and iodine chemistry on annual, seasonal, diurnal, and background ozone: CMAQ simulations over the Northern Hemisphere An essay on What we're learning about Online Learning by Benedict Care A proponent of the cognitive perspective on depression who subscribes to the ideas of psychologist martin seligman is most likely to support the idea that depression is largely a response to________. The tool that lists ages, names, education, capabilities, training, specialized skills, and other relevant information about an organization's employees is called a? The Fluid Mosaic Model accounts for the presence of protein in the cell membrane by proposing thatA. the phospholipid bilayer is between two layers of protein.OB. the Fluid Mosaic Model cannot account for why proteins are found.OC. proteins are embedded in the phospholipid bilayer.OD. the protein is inside the cell. Can someone solve this question and explain it to me how to solve it? Which one of Micheal Lee's blood vessels most likely caused Micheal to have a heart attack ____is characterized by convulsions and sometimes coma. treatment for this condition includes the delivery of the fetus. One of the legs of a right triangle measures 10 cm and the other leg measures 7 cm.Find the measure of the hypotenuse. If necessary, round to the nearest tenth. Why youth do not want to participate in civil life GCP safety monitoring procedures can be effectively applied only to trials involving drugs and medical devices. Below is the market for funnel cakes at a small community fair.a) what is the equilibrium price and quantity of the funnel cakes? b) What is the total consumer spending on funnel cakes at the equilibrium point?c) Calculate the producer surplus and consumer surplus at equilibrium. Show your work. d) What would be the result if the suppliers charged $6? Explain.e) Cheese pretzels are substitute good for funnel cakes at the same fair. Draw a correctly labeled graph of the market for cheese pretzels. Shade the area of consumer surplus.f) A large number of new guests enter the fair. Illustrate the effect of this change on the same graph from part E. g) does the consumer surplus increase, decrease, or stay the same as a result of the change from part F? Explain. h) A new cheese pretzel stand opens at the same fair. On a new graph, illustrate the market for cheese pretzels at this fair before and after the new stand opened.i) if the large number of new guests entering the fair happened at the same time that the new cheese pretzel stand open how would the equilibrium price and quantity for cheese pretzels change? Explain.