What is the observed wavelength of the 656.3 nm (first Balmer) line of hydrogen emitted by a galaxy at a distance of 2.40 x 108 ly

Answer:

Explanation:

The phase angle of an RLC circuit  ϕ is expressed as shoen below;

ϕ = [tex]tan^{-1} \dfrac{X_l-X_c}{R}[/tex]

Xc is the capacitive reactance = 1/2πfC

Xl is the inductive reactance = 2πfL

R is the resistance = 25.0Ω

Given C = 35.5 μF, L = 0.0940 H, and frequency f = 70.0Hz

Xl = 2π * 70*0.0940

Xl = 41.32Ω

For the capacitive reactance;

Xc = 1/2π * 70*35.5*10⁻⁶

Xc = 1/0.0156058

Xc = 64.08Ω

Phase angle ϕ = [tex]tan^{-1} \frac{41.32-64.08}{25} \\\\[/tex]

ϕ = [tex]tan^{-1} \frac{-22.76}{25} \\\\\\\\[/tex]

[tex]\phi = tan^{-1} -0.9104\\\\\phi = -42.31^0[/tex]

Since tan is negative in the 2nd quadrant;

[tex]\phi = 180-42.31^0\\\\\phi = 137.69^0[/tex]

Hence the phase angle ϕ of the circuit in degrees is 137.69°

The phase angle ϕ of the series RLC circuit that is driven at a frequency of 70.0 Hz is ϕ = 137.69°

Given that:

capacitance C = 35.5 μF,

Inductance L = 0.0940 H,

The resistance R = 25.0Ω

and frequency f = 70.0Hz

The capacitive reactance is given by:

Xc = 1/2πfC

Xc = 1/2π × 70 × 35.5× 10⁻⁶

Xc = 1/0.0156058

Xc = 64.08Ω

The inductive reactance is given by:

Xl = 2πfL

Xl = 2π × 70 × 0.0940

Xl = 41.32Ω

The phase angle of an RLC circuit ϕ  is given by:

[tex]\phi=tan^{-1}\frac{X_l-X_c}{R}\\\\\phi=tan^{-1}\frac{41.32-64.08}{25}[/tex]

Ф = -42.31°

Since tan is negative in the 2nd quadrant, thus:

ϕ = 180° - 42.31°

ϕ = 137.69°

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Answer:

The radiation pressure of the light is 3.33 x 10⁻⁶ Pa.

Explanation:

Given;

intensity of light, I = 1 kW/m²

The radiation pressure of light is given as;

[tex]Radiation \ Pressure = \frac{Flux \ density}{Speed \ of \ light}[/tex]

I kW = 1000 J/s

The energy flux density = 1000 J/m².s

The speed of light = 3 x 10⁸ m/s

Thus, the radiation pressure of the light is calculated as;

[tex]Radiation \ pressure = \frac{1000}{3*10^{8}} \\\\Radiation \ pressure =3.33*10^{-6} \ Pa[/tex]

Therefore, the radiation pressure of the light is 3.33 x 10⁻⁶ Pa.

Answer:

N₁ = 1800 turns

So, the side of the transformer that plugs into the outlet has 1800 turns.

Explanation:

The transformer turns ratio is given by the following equation:

V₁/V₂ = N₁/N₂

where,

V₁ = Voltage of outlet = 120 V

V₂ = Device Voltage = 3 V

N₁ = No. of turns on outlet side = ?

N₂ = No. of turns on side of device = 45

Therefore,

120 V/3 V = N₁/45

N₁ = (40)(45)

N₁ = 1800 turns

So, the side of the transformer that plugs into the outlet has 1800 turns.

Answer:

photon density = 1.0 × [tex]10^{16}[/tex] photon/m³

Explanation:

given data

frequency f = 100 mhz = 100 × [tex]10^{6}[/tex] Hz

we consider here intensity I = 0.2 W/m²

solution

we take here plank constant is h i.e = 6.626 × [tex]10^{-34}[/tex] s

and take energy density is E

so here

E × C = I  

E = [tex]\frac{I}{C}[/tex]   ................1

here C = 3 × [tex]10^{8}[/tex] m/s

so photon density is

photon density = [tex]\frac{I}{C} \times \frac{1}{f \times h}[/tex]     ...............2

photon density = [tex]\frac{0.2}{3 \times 10^8} \times \frac{1}{100 \times 10^6 \times 6.626 \times 10^{-34} }[/tex]

photon density = 1.0 × [tex]10^{16}[/tex] photon/m³

Answer:

10.75 A

The current is in opposite direction since it causes a repulsion force between the wires

Explanation:

Force per unit length on the wires = 4.30×10^−5 N/m

distance between wires = 2.6 cm = 0.026 m

current through one wire = 0.52 A

current on the other wire = ?

Recall that the force per unit length of two wires conducting and lying parallel and close to each other is given as

[tex]F/l[/tex] = [tex]\frac{u_{0}I_{1} I_{2} }{2\pi r }[/tex]

where [tex]F/l[/tex] is the force per unit length on the wires

[tex]u_{0}[/tex] = permeability of vacuum = 4π × 10^−7 T-m/A

[tex]I_{1}[/tex] = current on the first wire = 0.520 A

[tex]I_{2}[/tex] = current on the other wire = ?

r = the distance between the two wire = 0.026 m

substituting the value into the equation, we have

4.30×10^−5 = [tex]\frac{4\pi *10^{-7}*0.520*I_{2} }{2\pi *0.026}[/tex] =  [tex]\frac{ 2*10^{-7}*0.520*I_{2} }{0.026}[/tex]

4.30×10^−5 = 4 x 10^-6 [tex]I_{2}[/tex]

[tex]I_{2}[/tex] = (4.30×10^-5)/(4 x 10^-6) = 10.75 A

The current is in opposite direction since it causes a repulsion force between the wires.

Answer:

Hey there!

PE=mgh, so as height decreases, so does the potential energy.

KE=mv^2, so as velocity increases, kinetic energy increases.

Thus, the correct answer would be Decreases, Increases.

Let me know if this helps :)

Answer:

It will be half that if the first wave

Explanation:

Because the wave speed remains the same, the result of doubling the frequency is that the wavelength is half as large as it

Answer:

1.6×10²⁰

Explanation:

An ampere is a Coulomb per second.

1 A = 1 C / s

The amount of charge after 5 seconds is:

5.0 A × 5 s = 25 C

The number of electrons is:

25 C × (1 electron / 1.6×10⁻¹⁹ C) = 1.6×10²⁰ electrons

Explanation:

the missing figure in the Question has been put in the attachment.

Then from the figure we can observe that

the center of the sphere is positive, therefore, negative charge will be  induced at A.

As B is grounded there will not be any charge on B

Hence the answer is A is negative and B is charge less.

The corresponding frequency of this sinewave, in kHz, expressed to 3 significant figures is: 155 kHz.

Given the following data:

Note: μs represents microseconds.

Conversion:

1 μs = [tex]1[/tex] × [tex]10^-6[/tex] seconds

645 μs = [tex]645[/tex] × [tex]10^-6[/tex] seconds

To find corresponding frequency of this sinewave, in kHz;

Mathematically, the frequency of a waveform is calculated by using the formula;

[tex]Frequency = \frac{1}{Period}[/tex]

Substituting the value into the formula, we have;

[tex]Frequency = \frac{1}{645 * 10^-6}[/tex]

Frequency = 1550.39 Hz

Next, we would convert the value of frequency in hertz (Hz) to Kilohertz (kHz);

Conversion:

1 hertz = 0.001 kilohertz

1550.39 hertz = X kilohertz

Cross-multiplying, we have;

X = [tex]0.001[/tex] × [tex]1550.39[/tex]

X = 155039 kHz

To 3 significant figures;

Frequency = 155 kHz

Therefore, the corresponding frequency of this sinewave, in kHz is 155.

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Answer:

constructive interferencia  0, 1 , 2 m

destructive inteferencia   1/4, 3/4. 5/4, 7/4 m

Explanation:

This exercise is equivalent to the double slit experiment, the two sources are in phase and separated by a distance, therefore the waves observed in the line between them have an optical path difference and a phase difference, given by the expression

            Δr / λ = Φ / 2π

            Δr = Φ/2π   λ

let's apply this expression to our case

λ = 1 m

            Δr = Φ 1 / 2π

We have constructive interference for angle of  Φ = 0, 2π, ...

let's find the values ​​where they occur

  Φ         Δr

   0          0

  2π         1

  4π        2

Destructive interference occurs by    Φ = π /2, 3π / 2, ...

 Φ          Δr

 π/2       ¼ m

 3π /2    ¾ m

5π /2     5/4 m

7π /2      7/4 m

Answer:

   t = t₀ / 2

Explanation:

In this exercise we must use Newton's second law

          F = m a

          a = F / m

now we can use kinematics

  as in object part of rest (v₀ = 0)

        v =a t₀

        t₀ = v / a

these results are with the first experiment

now repeat the experiment, but F = 2F₀

           a = 2F₀ / m = 2 a₀

          v = 2 a₀ t

          t = v / 2a₀

          t = t₀ / 2

The time interval that is required to reach the same final speed (V) is equal to [tex]t=\frac{\Delta t}{2}[/tex].

Given the following data:

To find the time interval that is now required to reach the same final speed (V), we would apply Newton's Second Law of Motion:

Mathematically, Newton's Second Law of Motion is given by this formula;

[tex]F = \frac{M(V-U)}{t}[/tex]

Where:

Substituting the given parameters into the formula, we have;

[tex]F = \frac{M(V-0)}{\Delta t}\\\\F = \frac{MV}{\Delta t}[/tex]

When the experiment is repeated, the magnitude of the force is doubled:

[tex]F = 2F[/tex]

Now, we can find the time interval that is required to reach the same final speed (V):

[tex]F = \frac{M(V-0)}{t}\\\\t=\frac{MV}{F}[/tex]

Substituting the value of F, we have:

[tex]t=\frac{MV}{2F} \\\\t=\frac{MV}{\frac{2MV}{\Delta t}} \\\\t=MV \times \frac{\Delta t}{2MV} \\\\t=\frac{\Delta t}{2}[/tex]

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Given that,

Central maximum = 1 cm

Distance from the window shade to the wall =4 m

We know that,

The visible range of the sun light is 400 nm to 700 nm.

(a). We need to calculate the average wavelength

Using formula of average wavelength

[tex]\lambda_{avg}=\dfrac{\lambda_{1}+\lambda_{2}}{2}[/tex]

Put the value into the formula

[tex]\lambda_{avg}=\dfrac{400+700}{2}[/tex]

[tex]\lambda_{avg}=550\ nm[/tex]

(b). We need to calculate the diameter of the pinhole

Using formula for diameter

[tex]w=\dfrac{2.44\lambda L}{D}[/tex]

[tex]D=\dfrac{2.44\lambda L}{w}[/tex]

Put the value into the formula

[tex]D=\dfrac{2.44\times550\times10^{-9}\times4}{1\times10^{-2}}[/tex]

[tex]D=0.537\ mm[/tex]

Hence, (a). The average wavelength 550 nm.

(b). The diameter of the pinhole is 0.537 mm.

Answer:

Explanation:

Answer:

quantum entanglement is thought to be one of the trickiest concepts in science, but the core issues are simple. And once understood, entanglement opens up a richer understanding of concepts such as the “many worlds” of quantum theory.

Explanation:

Answer:

y = 1/2at^2

we could also write it as-

y = (at^2)/2

2y = at^2

2y/a = t^2

√2y/a = t

hope it helps

Answer:

variable

Explanation:

Image is missing, so i have attached it

Answer:

19.04 × 10⁻⁴ T in the +x direction

Explanation:

We are told that the point P which is equidistant from the wires. (R = 5.00 cm). Thus distance from each wire to O is R.

Hence, the magnetic field at P from each wire would be; B = μ₀I/(2πR)

We are given;

I = 2.4 A

R = 5 cm = 0.05 m

μ₀ is a constant = 4π × 10⁻⁷ H/m

B = (4π × 10⁻⁷ × 2.4)/(2π × 0.05)

B = 9.6 × 10⁻⁴ T

To get the direction of the field from each wire, we will use Flemings right hand rule.

From the diagram attached:

We can say the field at P from the top wire will point up/right

Also, the field at P from the bottom wire will point down/right

Thus, by symmetry, the y components will cancel out leaving the two equal x components to act to the right.

If the mid-point between the wires is M, the the angle this mid point line to P makes with either A or B should be same since P is equidistant from both wires.

Let the angle be θ

Thus;

sin(θ) = (1.3/2)/5

θ = sin⁻¹(0.13) = 7.47⁰

The x component of each field would be:

9.6 × 10⁻⁴cos(7.47) = 9.52 × 10⁻⁴ T

Thus, total field = 2 × 9.52 × 10⁻⁴ = 19.04 × 10⁻⁴ T in the +x direction

The magnitude of the magnetic field at the point P will be "9.6 × 10⁻⁴ T".

The region of the environment close to something like a magnetic entity or a current-carrying body wherein this same magnetic forces caused by the body as well as a current might well be sensed.

According to the question,

Current, I = 2.4 A

Radius, R = 5 cm or,

                = 0.05 m

Constant, μ₀ = 4π × 10⁻⁷ H/m

We know the relation,

The magnetic field, B = [tex]\frac{\mu_0 I}{2 \pi R}[/tex]

By substituting the values in the above relation, we get

                                    = [tex]\frac{4 \pi\times 10^{-7}\times 2.4}{2 \pi\times 0.05}[/tex]

                                    = 9.6 × 10⁻⁴ T

Thus the above answer is appropriate.

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Answer:

The tension in the cord provides by centripetal force

T = Fc

= mv^2/r

= 2kg ( 6)^2/2

=36 N

Answer:

there are over 100 billion stars in our galaxy.

Answer:

The electron will get at about 0.388 cm (about 4 mm) from the negative plate before stopping.

Explanation:

Recall that the Electric field is constant inside the parallel plates, and therefore the acceleration the electron feels is constant everywhere inside the parallel plates, so we can examine its motion using kinematics of a constantly accelerated particle. This constant acceleration is (based on Newton's 2nd Law:

[tex]F=m\,a\\q\,E=m\,a\\a=\frac{q\,E}{m}[/tex]

and since the electric field E in between parallel plates separated a distance d and under a potential difference [tex]\Delta V[/tex], is given by:

[tex]E=\frac{\Delta\,V}{d}[/tex]

then :

[tex]a=\frac{q\,\Delta V}{m\,d}[/tex]

We want to find when the particle reaches velocity zero via kinematics:

[tex]v=v_0-a\,t\\0=v_0-a\,t\\t=v_0/a[/tex]

We replace this time (t) in the kinematic equation for the particle displacement:

[tex]\Delta y=v_0\,(t)-\frac{1}{2} a\,t^2\\\Delta y=v_0\,(\frac{v_0}{a} )-\frac{a}{2} (\frac{v_0}{a} )^2\\\Delta y=\frac{1}{2} \frac{v_0^2}{a}[/tex]

Replacing the values with the information given, converting the distance d into meters (0.01 m), using [tex]\Delta V=100\,V[/tex], and the electron's kinetic energy:

[tex]\frac{1}{2} \,m\,v_0^2= (11.2)\,\, 1.6\,\,10^{-19}\,\,J[/tex]

we get:

[tex]\Delta\,y= \frac{1}{2} v_0^2\,\frac{m (0.01)}{q\,(100)} =11.2 (1.6\,\,10^{-19})\,\frac{0.01}{(1.6\,\,10^{-19})\,(100)}=\frac{11.2}{10000} \,meters=0.00112\,\,meters[/tex]Therefore, since the electron was initially at 0.5 cm (0.005 m) from the negative plate, the closest it gets to this plate is:

0.005 - 0.00112 m = 0.00388 m [or 0.388 cm]

Answer:

The new time period is  [tex]T_2 = 3.8 \ s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

  The period of oscillation is  [tex]T = 5 \ s[/tex]

   The  new  length is  [tex]l_2 = 0.76 \ m[/tex]

Let assume the original length was [tex]l_1 = 1 m[/tex]

Generally the time period is mathematically represented as

         [tex]T = 2 \pi \sqrt{ \frac{ I }{ mgh } }[/tex]

Now  I is the moment of inertia of the stick which is mathematically represented as

           [tex]I = \frac{m * l^2 }{12 }[/tex]

So

        [tex]T = 2 \pi \sqrt{ \frac{ m * l^2 }{12 * mgh } }[/tex]

Looking at the above equation we see that

        [tex]T \ \ \ \alpha \ \ \ l[/tex]

=>    [tex]\frac{ T_2 }{T_1} = \frac{l_2}{l_1}[/tex]

=>    [tex]\frac{ T_2}{5} = \frac{0.76}{1}[/tex]

=>     [tex]T_2 = 3.8 \ s[/tex]

Answer:

A. 0.0374C

B. 0.012F

C. 18 ohms

Explanation:

See attached file

Answer:

As in explanation.

Explanation:

A) Centre of Curvature: This is defined as the point in the center of the sphere from which the mirror was sliced. It is represented by the letter "C"

B) Vertex: It is defined as the point on the mirror's surface where the principal axis meets the mirror. It is represented by the letter A.

C) Focal Point: This is defined as the Midway point between the vertex and the center of curvature. It is represented by the letter "F"

D) Radius of Curvature: This is defined as the distance from the vertex to the center of curvature. It is represented by the letter "R"

E) Focal Length: This is defined as the distance from the mirror to the focal point. It's represented by the letter "f"

Answer:

The magnification is  [tex]m = 12[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question  we are told that

   The object distance is [tex]u = 36.2 \ cm[/tex]

     The focal length is  [tex]v = 39.5 \ cm[/tex]

From the lens equation we have that

         [tex]\frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{u} + \frac{1}{v}[/tex]

=>     [tex]\frac{1}{v} = \frac{1}{f} - \frac{1}{u}[/tex]

substituting values

       [tex]\frac{1}{v} = \frac{1}{39.5} - \frac{1}{36.2}[/tex]

       [tex]\frac{1}{v} = -0.0023[/tex]

=>   [tex]v = \frac{1}{0.0023}[/tex]

=>   [tex]v =-433.3 \ cm[/tex]

The magnification is mathematically represented as

         [tex]m =- \frac{v}{u}[/tex]

substituting values

        [tex]m =- \frac{-433.3}{36.2}[/tex]

         [tex]m = 12[/tex]

Answer:

Explanation:

Using the lens formula

1//f = 1/u+1/v

f is the focal length of the lens

u is the object distance

v is the image distance

For convex lens

The focal length of a convex lens is positive and the image distance can either be negative or positive.

Given f = 20cm and u = 10cm

1/v = 1/f - 1/u

1/v = 1/20-1/10

1/v = (1-2)/20

1/V = -1/20

v = -20/1

v = -20 cm

Since the image distance is negative, this shows that the nature of the image formed by the convex lens is a virtual image

For concave lens

The focal length of a concave lens is negative and the image distance is negative.

Given f = -20cm and u = 10cm

1/v = 1/f - 1/u

1/v = -1/20-1/10

1/v = (-1-2)/20

1/V = -3/20

v = -20/3

v = -6.67 cm

Since the image distance is negative, this shows that the nature of the image formed by the concave lens is a virtual image

Answer:

f. 80 and 90

Explanation:

1 x 10⁻¹² W/m² sound intensity falls within 0 sound level

1 x 10⁻¹¹ W/m² sound intensity falls within 10 sound level

1 x 10⁻¹⁰ W/m² sound intensity falls within 20 sound level

1 x 10⁻⁹ W/m² sound intensity falls within 30 sound level

1 x 10⁻⁸ W/m² sound intensity falls within 40 sound level

1 x 10⁻⁷ W/m² sound intensity falls within 50 sound level

1 x 10⁻⁶ W/m² sound intensity falls within 60 sound level

1 x 10⁻⁵ W/m² sound intensity falls within 70 sound level

1 x 10⁻⁴ W/m² sound intensity falls within 80 sound level

1 x 10⁻³ W/m² sound intensity falls within 90 sound level

Given sound intensity (3.66 x 10⁻⁴ W/m²) falls with 1 x 10⁻⁴ W/m² of intensity which is within 80 and 90 sound level.

f. 80 and 90

Answer:

Answer in explanation

Explanation:

Water is mainly used as coolant in heating systems like hot-water radiators. The main function of water in such systems, is to absorb as much heat as possible, in order to decrease the temperature of the system and as a result cool it.

The specific heat capacity is the measure of heat energy that is required to raise the temperature of unit mass of a substance through 1 °C. In other words, specific heat capacity quantifies the amount of heat that can be stored by a unit mass of a substance having a degree rise in temperature.

Thus, the more specific heat a substance has, the more heat it can absorb from the hot system. Hence, the specific heat capacity of a coolant must be high.

This is the reason why water, with its high specific heat capacity, is utilized for heating systems, such as radiators.

Given.

force = 16.88 N is

radius = 0.340m

an angular acceleration = 1.20rad/s^2

the formula for torque is

F*r = I*a

where I is moment of inertia

16.88*.34 = I*1.2

I = 4.78Kg-m^2

so rotational inertia I = 4.78Kg-m^2