What physical feature of a wave is related to the depth of the wave base? What is the difference between the wave base and still water level?

Answer:

1)   q₁ = 12.987 cm , b)       L = 17.987 cm , c)      m = 179.87

Explanation:

We can solve the geometric optics exercises with the equation of the constructor

         1 / f = 1 / p + 1 / q

where f is the focal length, p and q are the distance to the object and the image respectively.

Let's apply this equation to our case

1) f = 5mm = 0.5 cm

    p₁ = 5.2 mm = 0.52 cm

    h = 0.1 mm = 0.01 cm

    1 / q₁ = 1 / f- 1 / p

    1 / q₁ = 1 / 0.5 - 1 / 0.52 = 2 - 1.923

    1 / q₁ = 0.077

    q₁ = 12.987 cm

2) in this part they tell us that the eyepiece creates an image at infinity, therefore the object that comes from being at the focal length of the eyepiece

            p₂ = 5 cm

The absolute thing that goes through the two lenses is

           L = q₁ + p₂

           L = 12.987 +5

           L = 17.987 cm

3) This lens configuration forms the so-called microscope, whose expression for the magnifications

           m = -L / f_target 25 cm / f_ocular

           m = - 17.987 / 0.5 25 / 5.0

            m = 179.87

Answer:

The  value [tex]y = 0.0349 \ m[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The  distance of the screen is  [tex]D = 2.30 \ m[/tex]

   The  width of the slit is  [tex]d = 0.0368 \ nm = 0.0368 *10^{-3} \ m[/tex]

   The  wavelength is  [tex]\lambda = 558 \ nm = 558 *10^{-9} \ m[/tex]

The  width of the central diffraction peak is  mathematically represented as

        [tex]k = 2 * y[/tex]

Where  y is the distance from the center to the high peak which  is mathematically represented as

       [tex]y = \frac{\lambda * D }{d }[/tex]

substituting values

      [tex]y = \frac{ 558 *10^{-8} * 2.30 }{0.0368 *10^{-3} }[/tex]

      [tex]y = 0.0349 \ m[/tex]

Each electron winds up with kinetic energy of

(270 keV)

plus

(whatever KE it had when it started accelerating).

Answer:

1) Mass and acceleration

2) 4.0

3)When the net force applied to an object changes, the acceleration changes by the same factor.

4)acceleration

5)The acceleration is half of its original value

Explanation:

A wise man once said if you cheat together you succeed together! lol i am jk  

Answer:

a) 0.67 rad/sec in the clockwise direction.

b) 98.8% of the kinetic energy is lost.

Explanation:

Let us take clockwise angular speed as +ve

For first cylinder

rotational inertia [tex]I[/tex] = 2.0 kg-m^2

angular speed ω = +5.0 rad/s

For second cylinder

rotational inertia [tex]I[/tex] = 1.0 kg-m^2

angular speed = -8.0 rad/s

The rotational momentum of a rotating body is given as = [tex]I[/tex]ω

where [tex]I[/tex] is the rotational inertia

ω is the angular speed

The rotational momenta of the cylinders are:

for first cylinder = [tex]I[/tex]ω = 2.0 x 5.0 = 10 kg-m^2 rad/s

for second cylinder = [tex]I[/tex]ω = 1.0 x (-8.0) = -8 kg-m^2 rad/s

The total initial angular momentum of this system cylinders before they were coupled together = 10 + (-8) = 2 kg-m^2 rad/s

When they are coupled coupled together, their total rotational inertia [tex]I_{t}[/tex] = 1.0 + 2.0 = 3 kg-m^2

Their final angular rotational momentum after coupling = [tex]I_{t}[/tex][tex]w_{f}[/tex]

where [tex]I_{t}[/tex] is their total rotational inertia

[tex]w_{f}[/tex] = their final angular speed together

Final angular momentum = 3 x [tex]w_{f}[/tex] = 3[tex]w_{f}[/tex]

According to the conservation of angular momentum, the initial rotational momentum must be equal to the final rotational momentum

this means that

2 =  3[tex]w_{f}[/tex]

[tex]w_{f}[/tex] = final total angular speed of the coupled cylinders = 2/3 = 0.67 rad/s

From the first statement, the direction is clockwise

b) Rotational kinetic energy = [tex]\frac{1}{2} Iw^{2}[/tex]

where [tex]I[/tex] is the rotational inertia

[tex]w[/tex] is the angular speed

The kinetic energy of the cylinders are:

for first cylinder = [tex]\frac{1}{2} Iw^{2}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{1}{2}*2*5^{2}[/tex] = 25 J

for second cylinder = [tex]\frac{1}{2}*1*8^{2}[/tex] = 32 J

Total initial energy of the system = 25 + 32 = 57 J

The final kinetic energy of the cylinders after coupling = [tex]\frac{1}{2}I_{t}w^{2} _{f}[/tex]

where

where [tex]I_{t}[/tex] is the total rotational inertia of the cylinders

[tex]w_{f}[/tex] is final total angular speed of the coupled cylinders

Final kinetic energy =  [tex]\frac{1}{2}*3*0.67^{2}[/tex] = 0.67 J

kinetic energy lost = 57 - 0.67 = 56.33 J

percentage = 56.33/57 x 100% = 98.8%

A) The angular speed of the combination of the two cylinders is; ω₃ = 0.67 rad/s

B) The percentage of the original kinetic energy lost to friction is;

percentage energy lost = 98.82%

We are given;

Rotational Inertia for first cylinder; I₁ = 2 kg.m²

Angular speed of first cylinder; ω₁ = 5 rad/s

Angular speed of second cylinder; ω₂ = 8 rad/s

Rotational Inertia for second cylinder; I₂ = 1 kg.m²

From conservation of angular momentum, we know that;

Initial angular Momentum([tex]L_{i}[/tex]) = Final angular Momentum([tex]L_{f}[/tex])

Thus;

I₁ω₁ + I₂ω₂ = I₃ω₃

Where;

ω₃ is the angular speed when the two cylinders are combined

I₃ = I₁ + I₂

I₃ = 2 + 1

I₃ = 3 kg.m²

Since the second cylinder rotates in an anticlockwise direction, then its' angular speed will be negative. Thus;

(2 * 5) + (1 * -8) = 3ω₃

10 - 8 = 3ω₃

3ω₃ = 2

ω₃ = 2/3

ω₃ = 0.67 rad/s

B) Let us find initial kinetic energy;

E_i = ¹/₂I₁ω₁² + ¹/₂I₂ω₂²

E_i = ¹/₂((2 * 5²) + (1 * 8²)

E_i = 57 J

Final kinetic energy is;

E_f = ¹/₂I₃ω₃²

E_f = ¹/₂ * 3 * 0.67²

E_f = 0.67335 J

Energy lost = 57 - 0.67335 = 56.32665 J

percentage energy lost = (56.32665/57) * 100%

percentage energy lost = 98.82%

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Answer:

B. mineral oil – density of 0.910 g/mL.

Explanation:

Hello,

In this case, since the density is known as the degree of compactness a body has (mass in the occupied volume), the higher the density, the higher the weight of the body, therefore, if submerged into a liquid it could float if less dense than the liquid or sink if more dense than the liquid.

In such a way, since the rubber is more dense than mineral (0.960 g/mL > 0.910 g/mL) oil but less dense than distilled water (0.960 g/mL < 1.0 g/mL) we can say that B. mineral oil – density of 0.910 g/mL is directly above it when submerged.

Best regards.

Answer:

"Endoscope" is the correct answer.

Explanation:

Answer:

A galvanometer consists of a loop of wire in a magnetic field.

TRUE

Answer:

CB = 4.45 x 10⁻⁹ F = 4.45 nF

Explanation:

The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is given by the following formula:

C = ε₀A/d

where,

C = Capacitance

ε₀ = Permeability of free space

A = Area of plates

d = Distance between plates

FOR CAPACITOR A:

C = CA = 17.8 nF = 17.8 x 10⁻⁹ F

A = A₁

d = d₁

Therefore,

CA = ε₀A₁/d₁ = 17.8 x 10⁻⁹ F   ----------------- equation 1

FOR CAPACITOR B:

C = CB = ?

A = A₁/2

d = 2 d₁

Therefore,

CB = ε₀(A₁/2)/2d₁

CB = (1/4)(ε₀A₁/d₁)

using equation 1:

CB = (1/4)(17.8 X 10⁻⁹ F)

CB = 4.45 x 10⁻⁹ F = 4.45 nF

Answer:

2 m/s

Explanation:

The electromagnetic flow-metre work on the principle of electromagnetic induction. The induced voltage is given as

[tex]E = Blv[/tex]

where [tex]E[/tex] is the induced voltage = 2.88 mV = 2.88 x 10^-3 V

[tex]l[/tex] is the distance between the electrodes in this field which is equivalent to the diameter of the tube = 1.2 cm = 1.2 x 10^-2 m

[tex]v[/tex] is the velocity of the fluid through the field = ?

[tex]B[/tex] is the magnetic field = 0.120 T

substituting, we have

2.88 x 10^-3 = 0.120 x 1.2 x 10^-2 x [tex]v[/tex]

2.88 x 10^-3 = 1.44 x 10^-3 x [tex]v[/tex]

[tex]v[/tex] = 2.88/1.44 = 2 m/s

Answer:

2.9::: 5.87*10*3 N/C

8: 7.73 × 10 ^2  N/C

Explanation: https://study.com/academy/answer/a-solid-metal-sphere-of-radius-3-00-m-carries-a-total-charge-of-5-50-muc-what-is-the-magnitude-of-the-electric-field-at-each-of-the-following-distances-from-the-sphere-s-center-a-3-10-m-b-8-00-m.html

Answer:

Ok, the question is incomplete buy ill try to answer this in a general way.

Suppose that you have no-polarized light.

When that light hits one polaroid, the light becomes polarized along some line, and has an intensity I0.

Now, when polarized light hits a polaroid which axis is at an angle θ with respect to the polarization of the light, the intensity of the resulting beam is given by the Malus's law:

I(θ) = I0*cos^2(θ)

For example, if the axis of the polaroid is exactly the same as the one of the polarized light, then we have θ = 0°

and:

I(0°) = I0*cos^2(0°) = I0

So the intensity does not change.

Now, knowing the initial intensity, you can find the angle needed to get a given intensity.

For example, if the question was:

"At what angle should the axes of two Polaroids be placed so as to reduce the intensity of the incident unpolarized light to A"

We should solve:

I(θ) = A = I0*cos^2(θ)

(A/i0) = cos^2(θ)

√(A/I0) = cos(θ)

Acos(√(A/I0)) = θ

Answer:

The three factors that can contribute to creating a delay in advanced care for the passengers in the overturned bus include:

1. Lack of communication: Since the accident happened on the remote hillside, there is a possibility that, there would be no communication network which could have afforded them the opportunity to call medical or technical team.

2. Steep Nature of the Hill: This is another factor which will affect the care which they could have received. Steeply area tends to be difficult for climbing in or out from.

3. Thunderstorm: This factor is another reason which could contribute to delay in receiving advance care. Thunderstorm create barriers for location f the area where the bus overturned or in other situation complicate the rescue efforts of the team sent out to rescue.

Explanation:

Answer:

B. is subject to a smaller net force but same acceleration.

Explanation:

F = m*a

So because our force applied is constant from the women pulling on the rope which means the acceleration is the same on both the 4kg create and the 6kg create. The only thing that changes here is the mass of the creates, so there is more tension force between the women and the 6kg create then there is between the 4kg create and the 6kg. It takes less force to move the 4kg create therefore the tension force is less between the two creates.

The net force on both crates is the same and the acceleration of both crates is the same.

The given parameters;

The force on the 4kg crate is calculated as follows;

[tex]F_{4kg } = T + F[/tex]

The force on the 6kg crate is calculated as follows;

[tex]F_{6 kg} = -T + F[/tex]

The net force on both crates is calculated as follows;

[tex]\Sigma F= -T + F - (T + F)\\\\\Sigma F= -2T[/tex]

Thus, we can conclude that the net force on both crates is the same and the acceleration of both crates is the same.

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Answer:

c. 70 Ω

Explanation:

The R and R resistors are in parallel.  The 2R and 2R resistors are in parallel.  The 4R and 4R resistors are in parallel.  Each parallel combination is in series with each other.  Therefore, the equivalent resistance is:

Req = 1/(1/R + 1/R) + 1/(1/2R + 1/2R) + 1/(1/4R + 1/4R)

Req = R/2 + 2R/2 + 4R/2

Req = 3.5R

Req = 70Ω

Answer:

I know the answer

Explanation:

We want to choose the film thickness such that destructive interference occurs between the light reflected from the air-film interface (call it wave 1) and from the film-lens interface (call it wave 2). For destructive interference to occur, the phase difference between the two waves must be an odd multiple of half-wavelengths.

You can think of the phases of the two waves as second hands on a clock; as the light travels, the hands tick-tock around the clock. Consider the clocks on the two waves in question. As both waves travel to the air-film interface, their clocks both tick-tock the same time-no phase difference. When wave 1 is reflected from the air-film boundary, its clock is set forward 30 seconds; i.e., if the hand was pointing toward 12, it's now pointing toward 6. It's set forward because the index of refraction of air is smaller than that of the film.

Now wave 1 pauses while wave two goes into and out of the film. The clock on wave 2 continues to tick as it travels in the film-tick, tock, tick, tock.... Clock 2 is set forward 30 seconds when it hits the film-lens interface because the index of refraction of the film is smaller than that of the lens. Then as it travels back through the film, its clock still continues ticking. When wave 2 gets back to the air-film interface, the two waves continue side by side, both their clocks ticking; there is no change in phase as they continue on their merry way.

So, to recap, since both clocks were shifted forward at the two different interfaces, there was no net phase shift due to reflection. There was also no phase shift as the waves travelled into and out from the air-film interface. The only phase shift occured as clock 2 ticked inside the film.

Call the thickness of the film t. Then the total distance travelled by wave 2 inside the film is 2t, if we assume the light entered pretty much normal to the interface. This total distance should equal to half the wavelength of the light in the film (for the minimum condition; it could also be 3/2, 5/2, etc., but that wouldn't be the minimum thickness) since the hand of the clock makes one revolution for each distance of one wavelength the wave travels (right?).

Answer:

v = 345.6m/s

Explanation:

v = 384 x 0.9 = 345.6

v = 345.6m/s

THERE ARE COMMONLY THREE SYSTEMS OF UNIT. THEY ARE:-

• CGS System- (Centimeter-Gram-Second system) A metric system of measurement that uses the centimeter, gram and second for length, mass and time.

• FPS System- (Foot–Pound–Second system).

The system of units in which length is measured in foot , mass in pound and time in second is called FPS system. It is also known as British system of units.

• MKS System- (Meter-Kilogram-Second system) A metric system of measurement that uses the meter, kilogram, gram and second for length, mass and time. The units of force and energy are the "newton" and "joule."

Answer:

[tex]y=\frac{1}{2}x-2[/tex]

Explanation:

Slope-intercept form means we want the y to be by itself in the equation. Every thing we do will be about getting the y alone on the left side of the equation

To start we should move x to the left hand side. We can do this by subtracting x from both sides. That way, there is an x on the right, but not the left.

x-x-2y=4-x

this gives us

-2y=4-x

Great! So now what? Well, the y isn't by itself yet because it still is being multiplied by negative two (-2). In order to move it from the left side to the right side, we have to do the opposite of multiply; divide. So, we will divide both sides by -2

[tex]\frac{-2y}{-2} =\frac{4}{-2} -\frac{x}{-2}[/tex]

-2 divided by -2 is 1, 4 divided by -2 is -2, and -x divided by -2 is [tex]\frac{1}{2}x[/tex]

This gives us the answer:  [tex]y=\frac{1}{2}x-2[/tex]

Tips:

A negative divided by a negative is a positive ex: -4 divided by -2 is positive 2

If you are subtracting by a negative number, you are actually adding by a positive ex: 2-(-2) is actually 2+2

Don't be afraid to have fractions in your equations

Whatever you do to the one side of the equation, you must do it to the other side as well. Multiply the left side by 2? You HAVE TO multiply the right side by two as well. Add 3 to the right side? You HAVE TO add 3 to the left.

For problems like this (and when you have access to the internet), where you need to rewrite an equation, double check your work on desmos, which is an online graphing calculator. Input both the original equation and the equation you rewrote, and if they don't create the same line, you did something wrong.

Answer:

8.1 m

Explanation:

Convert km/h to m/s.

45 km/h × (1000 m/km) × (1 h / 3600 s) = 12.5 m/s

Distance = speed × time

d = (12.5 m/s) (0.65 s)

d = 8.125 m

Answer:

The electric field  can either oscillates in the z-direction, or the y-direction, but must oscillate in a direction perpendicular to the direction of propagation, and the direction of oscillation of the magnetic field.

Explanation:

Electromagnetic waves are waves that have an oscillating magnetic and electric field, that oscillates perpendicularly to one another. Electromagnetic waves are propagated in a direction perpendicular to both the electric and the magnetic field. If the wave is propagated in the x-direction, then the electric field can either oscillate in the y-direction, or the z-direction but must oscillate perpendicularly to both the the direction of oscillation of the magnetic field, and the direction of propagation of the wave.

Answer:

Explanation:

The formula for calculating the voltage across an inductor is expressed as

[tex]V_l = IX_l\\\\Since\ X_l = 2\pi fL\\V_l = I(2\pi fL)[/tex]

Given parameters

current amplitude I = 1.50mA = 1.5*10⁻³A

inductance L = 0.450mH = 0.450*10⁻³H

Voltage across the inductor [tex]V_l[/tex] = 13.0V

Required

frequency f

Substituting the given parametres into the formula, we have;

[tex]V_l = I(2\pi fL)\\\\13 = 1.50*10^{-3}(2*3.14*f*0.450*10^{-3})\\\\13 = 4.239*10^{-6}f\\\\f = \frac{13}{4.239*10^{-6}} \\\\f = 3,066,761 Hertz\\\\f = 3.067MHz[/tex]

Hence, the frequency required is 3.067MHz

Answer:

Therefore, we need an invert, and a rectifier, along with the transformer to do the job.

Explanation:

A transformer, alone, can not be used to convert a DC voltage to another DC voltage. If we apply a DC voltage to the primary coil of the transformer, it will act as short circuit due to low resistance. It will cause overflow of current through winding, resulting in overheating pf the transformer.

Hence, the transformer only take AC voltage as an input, and converts it to another AC voltage. So, the output voltage of a transformer is also AC voltage.

So, in order to convert a 6 V DC to 1.5 V DC we need an inverter to convert 6 V DC to AC, then a step down transformer to convert it to 1.5 V AC, and finally a rectifier to convert 1.5 V AC to 1.5 V DC.

Therefore, we need an invert, and a rectifier, along with the transformer to do the job.

Answer:

The pressure is [tex]P = 583333 \ N/m^2[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

  The area of the edge is  [tex]A = 0.72 cm^2 = 0.72 *10^{-4}\ m[/tex]

    The  force is [tex]F = 42 \ N[/tex]

The pressure is mathematically represented as

            [tex]P = \frac{F}{A}[/tex]

substituting values

           [tex]P = \frac{42}{0.72*10^{-4}}[/tex]

           [tex]P = 583333 \ N/m^2[/tex]

Answer:

5.29×10^-7

Explanation:

shear stress τ = F/ A

shear deformation δ = (VL)/ (AG)

= (τL)/ G

V=shear force

L=height of disk=6.50×10^-2

A=cross sectional area

G= shear modulus= (1.60x10^9N/m^2)

A=πd^2/4

Then substitute the values we have

4×(375N)(0.00750m)

________________ = δ

(π*0.00650^2)(1.60x10^9N/m^2)

= 5.29×10^-7

Answer:

(a) 0.613 m

(b) 0.385 m

(c) vₓ = 1.10 m/s, vᵧ = 3.50 m/s

v = 3.68 m/s², θ = 72.6° below the horizontal

Explanation:

(a)  Take down to be positive.

Given in the y direction:

v₀ = 0 m/s

a = 10 m/s²

t = 0.350 s

Find: Δy

Δy = v₀ t + ½ at²

Δy = (0 m/s) (0.350 s) + ½ (10 m/s²) (0.350 s)²

Δy = 0.613 m

(b) Given in the x direction:

v₀ = 1.10 m/s

a = 0 m/s²

t = 0.350 s

Find: Δx

Δx = v₀ t + ½ at²

Δx = (1.10 m/s) (0.350 s) + ½ (0 m/s²) (0.350 s)²

Δx = 0.385 m

(c) Find: vₓ and vᵧ

vₓ = aₓt + v₀ₓ

vₓ = (0 m/s²) (0.350 s) + 1.10 m/s

vₓ = 1.10 m/s

vᵧ = aᵧt + v₀ᵧ

vᵧ = (10 m/s²) (0.350 s) + 0 m/s

vᵧ = 3.50 m/s

The magnitude is:

v² = vₓ² + vᵧ²

v = 3.68 m/s²

The direction is:

θ = atan(vᵧ / vₓ)

θ = 72.6° below the horizontal

Answer:

Length of pipe organ(L) = 0647 m (Approx)

Explanation:

Given:

Temperature (T) = 14°C

Fundamental frequency (F) = 262 Hz

Speed of sound (v) = 331 + 0.60(T) m/s

Find:

Length of pipe organ(L)

Computation:

Speed of sound (v) = 331 + 0.60(14) m/s

Speed of sound (v) = 339.4

Length of pipe organ(L) = Speed of sound (v) / 2(Fundamental frequency)

Length of pipe organ(L) = 339.4 / 2 (262)

Length of pipe organ(L) = 0647 m (Approx)

Answer:

Explanation:

dipole moment = qs = q x s

= charge x charge separation

charge = q

separation between charge = s

half separation l = s / 2

dipole has two charges + q and - q separated by distance s .

Potential at distance x along x axis due to + q

[tex]v_1=\frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon } \times\frac{q}{x-l}[/tex]

Potential at distance x along x axis due to - q

[tex]v_2=\frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon } \times\frac{-q}{x+l}[/tex]

Total potential

v = v₁ + v₂

[tex]v=\frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon } \times( \frac{q}{x-l}-\frac{q}{x+l})[/tex]

[tex]v=\frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon } \times\frac{2ql}{x^2-l^2}[/tex]

[tex]v=\frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon } \times\frac{qs}{x^2-(\frac{s}{2}) ^2}[/tex]

Potential at distance y along y axis due to + q

[tex]v_1=\frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon } \times\frac{qs}{(y^2+\frac{s^2}{4})^\frac{1}{2} }[/tex]

Potential at distance y along y axis due to - q

[tex]v_1=\frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon } \times\frac{-qs}{(y^2+\frac{s^2}{4})^\frac{1}{2} }[/tex]

Total potential

v = v₁ + v₂

[tex]v= 0[/tex]

Answer:

The film thickness is 4.32 * 10^-6 m

Explanation:

Here in this question, we are interested in calculating the thickness of the film.

Mathematically;

The number of fringes shifted when we insert a film of refractive index n and thickness L in the Michelson Interferometer is given as;

ΔN = (2L/λ) (n-1)

where λ is the wavelength of the light used

Let’s make L the subject of the formula

(λ * ΔN)/2(n-1) = L

From the question ΔN = 8 , λ = 540 nm, n = 1.5

Plugging these values, we have

L = ((540 * 10^-9 * 8)/2(1.5-1) = (4320 * 10^-9)/1 = 4.32 * 10^-6 m