Ergogenic aid can improve exercise performance and capacity.
A method or substance used to improve performance can be widely referred to as an ergogenic aid. Ergogenic aids can be dietary, pharmacologic, physiological, or psychological, and they can take a variety of forms, from legal and safe methods like carbohydrate loading to illegal and risky ones like the usage of anabolic-androgenic steroids. Many of these methods' effectiveness is debatable, but their harmful side effects are obvious.
Physical therapists should be able to see indications of ergogenic aid usage in patients under their care and be knowledgeable about any negative consequences these drugs may have. The physical therapist may also be a source of knowledge for those looking for details on the advantages and disadvantages of ergogenic devices.
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The nurse reinforces teaching to the parents of a 12-month-old who has begun weaning from breastfeeding. Which statement by the parents indicates that teaching has been effective
I can start substituting breastfeeding sessions with whole cow's milk is the correct statement by the parents which will indicate that the teaching by the nurse has been effective.
What is Weaning?This is the process in which a baby is moved from breastfeeding to other types of food sources such as solids. This usually takes time as a lot of patience is required due to the baby having to adapt gently to the new conditions so as to achieve the aim.
This usually occurs after six to 12 month depending on the decision by the parents in which the baby has gotten the appropriate nutrients from breast milk. In this case, cow milk can be used as a substitute in the diet of the child.
This is therefore the reason why it was chosen as the most appropriate choice in this scenario.
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A nurse is reviewing the medication record for a client who has intrinsic kidney injury the nurse should consider which of the following medications has nephrotoxic adverse effects
Amphotericin (Amphoteric) is a medication that has nephrotoxic drug effect.
What is a Nephrotoxic drug?Nephrotoxic drugs are characterized as having the potential to harm the kidneys. The kidneys may suffer immediate harm from certain medications.
Nephrotoxicity is defined as a rapid decline in kidney function brought on by the toxic effects of drugs and substances. There are numerous types, and some medications may have multiple negative effects on renal function. Nephrotoxic compounds are known as nephrotoxins.
Drugs that are nephrotoxic frequently cause inflammation in the proximal tubules, glomerulus, and surrounding cellular matrix before fiberizing the kidney tissue. Glomerulonephritis, acute and chronic interstitial nephritis, and other forms of inflammation that affect normal kidney functioning and cause toxicity are examples of this.
Amphotericin B side effects that affect kidney function include metabolic acidosis caused by amphotericin B, urine magnesium wasting and hypomagnesemia, and urinary potassium wasting and hypokalemia.
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Alicia is a sedentary, 20-year-old woman. She weighs 145 pounds. Based on her body weight, what is her Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for protein
The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for protein for Alicia with a weight of 145 pounds is around 52.7 grams of protein.
The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) is the amount of food that a person should eat regularly to fulfill all the nutritional needs of the body. It is frequently used to help people plan diets that are sufficiently nutrient-dense.
RDA for protein is 0.8 grams of protein per kilogram (Kg) of body weight. Alicia's weight in kg will be:
145÷2.2= 65.9 kgs
RDA for protein for Alicia = 65.9 X 0.8 = 52.7 grams of protein
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A client who has successfully adjusted to a colostomy declines the invitation to speak to a support group on the subject of alteration in body image. The client reports an extreme fear of public speaking. The nurse recognizes that this client is suffering from social phobia. Which are some other manifestations of social phobias
obsession, social phobias or agoraphobia are the other types of social phobia. Social phobia is the inability to deal with situations of social interactions with strangers or in places that put the person in evidence, generating extreme discomfort and nervousness, making them feel vulnerable and avoid these situations at any cost.
Why does it happen?People with social phobia act this way, because they believe they are being analyzed all the time and judged by their words, behavior and attitudes.
What are the symptoms of social phobia?The symptoms of social phobia are formed by a set of emotional and physical sensations that the person can feel, in addition to the externalization of behavior due to this disorder.
Sometimes the symptoms of social phobia can be confused with the personality characteristics of a shy person, but its consequences are much more serious.
While a shy person experiences a little nervousness in new or exposed situations, those with social phobia experience a much more intense reaction, of real fear and with a lot of anxiety. As a result, your entire life structure and routine are affected, harming your work, studies, relationships and friendships.
With this information, we can conclude that social phobia are chronic mental illness in which social interactions cause irrational anxiety.
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A patient with persistent, frequent asthma exacerbations asks a nurse about a long-acting beta2-agonist medication. What will the nurse tell this patient
A nurse is questioned about a long-acting beta2-agonist drug by a patient who experiences persistent, recurrent asthma exacerbations. As prophylactic, the glucocorticoid is used to stop exacerbations.
Asthma is a chronic respiratory disease that affects a lot of people. In wealthy nations, it is viewed as a major cause of morbidity and a major contributor to the high cost of healthcare. The two main pathogenic characteristics of asthmatics' airways are inflammation and hyperresponsiveness. Treatment for asthma should be intensified gradually in order to regulate the condition, both for symptom relief and to avoid exacerbations. This methodical approach, which begins with low dose inhaled corticosteroids and progresses, if necessary, to inhaled corticosteroids combined with long-acting -agonists, will control the majority of instances of asthma.learn more about asthma here: https://brainly.com/question/17481521
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Samantha is pregnant with her third baby. about how long can she expect active labor to last?
a) 5 hours.
b) 7 hours.
c) 12 hours.
d) 14 hours.
Samantha is pregnant with her third baby. She can expect active labor to last 7 hours.
Labor in mothers who have already given birth shares many similarities and differences with labor in first pregnancies. It is impossible to comprehend the distinctions between a first-time and third-time pregnancy without accurate information.The length of a third pregnancy's labor period depends on a number of circumstances. Estimates range from 2 hours to 15 hours or more, and mothers give varied estimates.However, it is simple for expectant moms to better comprehend their gestation cycle thanks to a number of pertinent statistics about third pregnancy labor.learn more about labor here: https://brainly.com/question/1259611
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_____________________ deaths are prevented each year by the newly improved pneumococcal conjugate vaccine used with infants.
More than 1,000 deaths are prevented each year by the newly improved pneumococcal conjugate vaccine used with infants.
Pneumococcal disease alludes to any disease brought about by pneumococcal bacteria. These microorganisms can cause many kinds of diseases, including pneumonia, which is a contamination of the lungs. Pneumococcal microbes are one of the most widely recognized reasons for pneumonia.
Pneumococcal conjugate immunization is a pneumococcal immunization and forms antibodies used to safeguard infants, small kids, and grown-ups against sickness brought about by the bacterium Streptococcus pneumonia.
There are three pneumococcal form immunizations PCV13, PCV15, and PCV20. The various immunizations are suggested for various individuals in light of their age and clinical status. In general, the immunization is 60% to 70% successful in forestalling obtrusive illness brought about by serotypes in the antibody.
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which position is suitable for administering intramuscular medications in the ventrogluteal muscle site
Supine or lateral position is suitable for administering intramuscular medications in the ventrogluteal muscle site
Intramuscular injections :
Intramuscular (IM) injections administered medications into the muscle fascia, which has a rigorous blood supply, allowing medications to be absorbed faster through muscle fibres than through the subcutaneous route.
The ventrogluteal, vastus lateralis, and deltoid site are intramuscular injection sites. The ventrogluteal IM site is recommended whenever possible and is suitable for greasy and irritant medicines, according to sufficient data.
In comparison to other locations, the ventrogluteal site has the most muscle thickness and is devoid of blood vessels and nerves. To enter deep muscle tissue, a longer needle with a larger gauge is needed. The needle is inserted at, or as close to, a 90-degree angle perpendicular to the patient's body as is reasonably possible.
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A client has just received combined spinal epidural. Which nursing assessment should be performed first
Treatment for decompression sickness may require recompression in a hyperbaric chamber. Select one: True False
True, Treatment for decompression sickness may require recompression in a hyperbaric chamber.
What is decompression sickness?Decompression sickness (DCS) occurs when dissolved gases (usually nitrogen or helium, used in mixed gas diving) exit solution and form bubbles inside the body on depressurization.It is also called bends or caisson disease.DCS occurs from underwater diving decompression (ascent), working in a caisson, flying in an unpressurized aircraft, and extra-vehicular activity from spacecraft.Signs and symptoms include fatigue, skin itch, dizziness or vertigo, pain in joints, etcDCS is a clinical diagnosis. As the goal for treating all patients with symptomatic DCS is hyperbaric oxygen (HBO), with emphasis placed on recompressionTo learn more about Decompression sickness,
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A client is admitted for a right below-knee amputation (BKA) as a result of poorly managed diabetes mellitus. Which complication is the client at most risk for after surgery
The client is at risk of developing surgical site infection post the right below-knee amputation (BKA) as a result of poorly managed diabetes mellitus.
Diabetes is a type of disease that leads to a rise in blood glucose levels. Amputation in the lower extremity of the body is extremely common in an individual with unregulated diabetes. This is because diabetes may result in diabetic neuropathy or peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Narrowing of the arteries in the PAD causes the development of ulcers and infections in the lower limbs, which ultimately causes amputation. Diabetes mellitus reduces the wound healing power and therefore delays the surgical site to recovery. This makes the client prone to surgical site infections.
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Which assessment would support a diagnosis of type A COPD rather than type B COPD?
Airway blockage or limitation is a hallmark of the group of chronic, irreversible respiratory disorders known as a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It is not treatable or contagious. Reduced pulmonary airflow brought on by elevated inflammation characterises asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Two primary phenotypes have been established based on clinical, pathological, and radiological characteristics:
Emphysema type A and type B patients are referred to as "pink puffers" and "blue-bloaters," respectively (chronic bronchitis)
Dyspnea is the most common symptom in Type A patients, while cough and hypersecretion are mild. The main causes of the decreased diffusing capacity for carbon monoxide (DLCO) and frequently enlarged lung volumes in Type A patients include non-homogeneous ventilation and ventilation-perfusion mismatch. Type A patients also seldom have hypercapnia or recurrent heart failure.
Mucous hypersecretion is the predominant symptom of type B patients, although dyspnea is mild. While lung capacities are not expanded and carbon monoxide diffusing ability is often conserved, type B patients frequently exhibit hypercapnia, hypoxia, secondary pulmonary hypertension, and cardiovascular comorbidities.
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Which body composition assessment method requires normal body fluid levels, use of a proper prediction equation, requires a fast for 4 hours prior, and that no alcohol should be consumed within 48 hours of the test
The body composition assessment method mentioned in the question is Bioelectric impedance analysis.
The rate at which an electrical current move through the body is used as the basis for the bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA), which is a method for measuring body composition. When compared to lean mass, body fat (also known as adipose tissue) creates a higher level of resistance (impedance), which in turn reduces the rate at which the current travels. Bioelectrical impedance analysis is the method that BIA scales use to calculate one's body fat percentage.
Different body tissues allow electrical current to move at different speeds. Fat is more resistive than either muscle or water, hence the greater the resistance, the more likely it is that the body fat % estimate will be higher. The majority of scales provide weight and percentage estimation of the total body fat, muscle, bone and water.
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Transabdominal ultrasound of pregnant uterus, first pregnancy (real time with image documentation), fetal and maternal evaluation, second trimester
The current procedural terminology (CPT) code for transabdominal ultrasound of pregnant uterus, first pregnancy (real time with image documentation), fetal and maternal evaluation, second trimester is 76805.
What is Medical coding?This is the transformation of treatment, services etc into numeric and alphanumeric codes.
This reduces prevent ambiguity as in this case where several methods for cervical screening during pregnancy are mentioned but represented with a single code which is 76805.
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A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is pregnant. The nurse should expect which of the following laboratory values to increase
The laboratory values which will increase in pregnant women is Human chorionic gonadotropin hormone (hCG).
What is Human chorionic gonadotropin hormone?This hormone is produced by the placenta during the course of pregnancy in human females.
They are usually detected by laboratory tests as a sign of pregnancy thereby making it the most appropriate choice.
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A nurse is performing a venipuncture on an older adult client whose veins are difficult to locate. Which of the following actions should the nurse take
When doing venipuncture on an elderly client whose veins are hard to find, the nurse should touch the skin around the insertion site.
Location for Venipuncture:
The two veins most frequently utilized for venipuncture are -the cephalic and median cubital veins. Possible locations include the dorsum of the arm's basilic vein or the dorsal veins of the hands. The basilic vein, which is found on the pinkie side of the arm and is adjacent to the brachial arteries and median nerve, must only be utilized if there are no other more noticeable arm veins, due to its close closeness to both. Only in extreme cases can veins in the ankle and foot be used. Avoid touching the veins on the inside of the wrist. A few additional websites ought to be avoided as well.Learn more about venipuncture here:
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chapter 8 health wellbeing Research indicates that systematic desensitization that uses __________ exposure is not quite as effective as procedures that use __________ exposure.
Research indicates that systematic desensitization that uses imaginal exposure is not quite as effective as procedures that use in vivo exposure.
This treatment is utilized to assist the person experiencing a particular fear or any certain kind of phobia. Through moderate exposure, victims can forget techniques, for example, staying away from fear or avoiding it. They are educated to overcome their apprehensions by getting used to them at various intensities. Systematic Desensitization has additionally been used to assist persons with managing test nervousness. The kids were helped with discovering their wellsprings of dread and were prepared to apply trouble decrease procedures.
Systematic Desensitization can be in vivo or in vitro. In vivo implies the client is given the feared objects or circumstances. This includes carrying upgrades to the specialist's facility or going to specific regions where feared circumstances happen. Then again, the in vitro procedure allows the client to imagine phobic circumstances.
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After developing severe pain from muscle stiffness and cramps, the victim of a black widow spider bite will experience:
After developing severe pain from muscle stiffness and cramps, the victim of a black widow spider bite will experience: flulike symptoms.
Black widow spiders usually found in Mexico, the southern United States, and Canada. They reside in low-lying webs near swimming pools, in wood piles, garages, grills, and barbecues. Between April and October, the majority of bites happen in suburban and rural locations. When their webs are tampered with, these spiders often bite. Bites to infants and young children can be more dangerous than bites to adults.
After being bitten by a black widow spider, one may have painful swelling around the bite. Additionally, individuals can get stomachaches, cramps, and muscle spasms. These symptoms may worsen, up to 12 hours after you have been bitten. It may take a few days or weeks before all the discomfort goes away.
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An acidic urinary ph significantly increases the risk for what type of urinary stone formation?
The acidic urinary pH increases the formation of uric acid or cysteine crystals. Therefore, kidney stones are very much influenced by urinary pH. More acidic urine and a higher frequency of uric acid stones have been associated with patients with inadequate ammonium excretion of metabolic syndrome.
Kidney stone disease results from deficiencies in urinary acidification, which result in the excretion of improperly alkaline or acidic urines, respectively. Patients with uncommon mendelian kidney stone variants have mutations in several enzymes, transporters, receptors, or channels. Numerous of these alterations either result in an increase in the excretion of chemicals that can crystallise or stone, a change in the composition of the urine that promotes crystal formation, or both.
Kidney stones can occur as a result of a variety of variables
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76-year-old woman has a complex medical history that includes emphysema, osteoporosis, malnutrition, and hypothyroidism. Recently, the woman fell outside her home as a result of weakness and suffered a fracture to her femoral head. The woman's subsequent hip-replacement surgery has been scheduled and the care team recognizes that the use of isoflurane will be most significantly influenced by
Answer:
I think it's malnutrition not really sure about the answer
The use of isoflurane during the hip-replacement surgery of the 76-year-old woman will be most significantly influenced by her medical history, particularly her emphysema and osteoporosis.
Emphysema is a chronic lung condition characterized by the destruction of lung tissue, leading to reduced lung function. This condition increases the risk of complications during anesthesia, as the patient may have impaired gas exchange. Isoflurane is an inhalation anesthetic commonly used during surgery, and its effects on respiratory function need to be carefully considered in patients with emphysema.
Osteoporosis, which is a condition characterized by decreased bone density, poses challenges during surgery as it increases the risk of fractures and complications. The fragility of the patient's bones due to osteoporosis may influence the surgical approach and the use of anesthetics like isoflurane. The care team must take into account the patient's emphysema and osteoporosis when determining the appropriate dosage and monitoring protocols for isoflurane during hip-replacement surgery.
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The appropriate question is:
A 76-year-old woman has a complex medical history that includes emphysema, osteoporosis, malnutrition, and hypothyroidism. Recently, the woman fell outside her home as a result of weakness and suffered a fracture to her femoral head. The woman's subsequent hip-replacement surgery has been scheduled and the care team recognizes that the use of isoflurane will be most significantly influenced by what?
An adult client consumed 20 g of protein and had a total nitrogen loss of 10 g. The client's nitrogen balance would most appropriately be described as:
An adult customer had a total nitrogen loss of 10 g after consuming 20 g of protein. It would be more accurate to say that the client's nitrogen balance is negative.
When nitrogen intake and outflow are equal, or when nitrogen balance is zero, nitrogen equilibrium is achieved. When nitrogen intake surpasses nitrogen production, the condition is known as a positive nitrogen balance or anabolic state. A negative nitrogen balance or catabolic condition develops when nitrogen excretion exceeds nitrogen intake. By deducting the total nitrogen output from the total nitrogen intake, nitrogen balance may be computed.
The formula N X 6.25 was used since the typical nitrogen (N) concentration of proteins was determined to be around 16 percent of the total protein weight.
Therefore, Nitrogen (N) intake from 20 grams of protein =20/6.25=3.2 grams
Nitrogen balance =(3.2-10)= -6.8 grams
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Osteopathic Manual Therapy Reduces Gastrointestinal Dysfunction and Length of Stay for Premature Infants in Neonatal Int
Effect of osteopathic manipulative treatment on gastrointestinal function and length of stay of preterm infants: an exploratory study.
Osteopathic manipulative therapyOMT, or osteopathic manipulative therapy, is a manual therapy approach. Osteopathic manipulative therapy or osteopathic manipulation are other names for OMT. Osteopathic medical doctors (DOs) employ OMT to treat a variety of medical disorders including mechanical pain (pain from a structural imbalance in the muscle, tendon, or bone). OMT is another tool used by DOs to help your body work better and diagnose and prevent disease. The muscles, soft tissues, and joints are gently manipulated by DOs using a variety of OMT techniques. By ensuring that your bones and muscles are properly aligned and balanced, the procedure helps your body to repair itself.
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A nurse is working with a nursing assistive personnel (NAP) on a busy oncology unit. The nurse has instructed the NAP on the tasks that need to be performed, including getting patient A out of bed, collecting a urine specimen from patient B, and checking vital signs on patient C, who is scheduled to go home. Which of the following represent(s) successful delegation
1,3,4 Effective delegation is characterized by effective communication, demonstrating respect, and taking initiative.
What is a (NAP)?NAP: Nursing Assistive Personnel
The Function of Nursing Support Staff in Rehabilitation Facilities. In a range of therapeutic settings, including rehabilitation, it is acknowledged that nurse assistants (NAP) contribute significantly to the treatment and welfare of patients. responsibilities and passions for nursing philanthropy, marketing, public relations, alumni relations, and institutional growth.
A nurse explains to the NAP the approach to use in getting the patient up and why the patient has activity limitations. The nurse sees the NAP preparing to help a patient out of bed, goes to assist, and thanks the NAP for her efforts to get the patient up early. The nurse is in patient B's room to check an intravenous (IV) line and collects the urine specimen while in the room.
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Complete Question:
A nurse is working with a nursing assistive personnel (NAP) on a busy oncology unit. The nurse has instructed the NAP on the tasks that need to be performed, including getting patient A out of bed, collecting a urine specimen from patient B, and checking vital signs on patient C, who is scheduled to go home. Which of the following represent(s) successful delegation? (Select all that apply.)
1. A nurse explains to the NAP the approach to use in getting the patient up and why the patient has activity limitations.
2. A nurse is asked by a patient to help her to the bathroom; the nurse leaves the room and directs the NAP to assist the patient instead.
3. The nurse sees the NAP preparing to help a patient out of bed, goes to assist, and thanks the NAP for her efforts to get the patient up early.
4. The nurse is in patient B's room to check an intravenous (IV) line and collects the urine specimen while in the room.
5. The nurse offers support to the NAP when needed but allows her to complete patient care tasks without constant oversight.
A client is taking clorazepate. The client asks the nurse if there is a risk of addiction with this medication. Which information should the nurse provide
An overdose of clorazepate can be fatal if you take it with alcohol, opioid medicine, or other drugs that cause drowsiness or slow your breathing.
What is Clorazepate ?Clorazepate is a benzodiazepine that is used to treat anxiety disorders, partial seizures, or alcohol withdrawal symptoms.
Clorazepate Dipotassium Tablets, USP are federally controlled substance (C-IV) because it contains Clorazepate that can be abused or lead to dependence.Keep Clorazepate dipotassium in a safe place to prevent misuse and abuse. Selling or giving away Clorazepate dipotassium may harm others, and is against the law.Learn more about Clorazepate here:
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What is a correct approach for aed pad placement?
Answer:
Place one pad on the right side of the chest, just below the collarbone. Place the other pad on the lower left side of the chest. Connect the pads to the AED. Some pads come pre-connected to the AED.
A nurse is reviewing the medication administration records from the previous shift. Which of the following should indicate the need for an incident/variance report
Option (D). An extended release capsule is mixed with applesauce is the correct answer.
An extended release capsule is mixed with applesauce indicates the need for an incident/variance report.
What is Medical administration record?The medical record is a crucial instrument that is used to organize care, facilitate communication between healthcare professionals and other staff members, and give documentation of the patient's sickness, treatment, and reaction to that therapy. A medical record is private.
What is an incident/variance report?A technique typically utilized in a unit-based clinical outcome report is the variance reporting tool. It is one that is used when it is necessary to record the disparities between what is known to be affected by disease and what was purported to have been accomplished.
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See full question below
A nurse is reviewing the medication administration records from the previous shift. Which of the following should indicate the need for an incident/variance report
a). An aminoglycoside IV antibiotic is administered over 1 hour
b). An ear drop administration is secured with a cotton ball to the outer
ear for 5 min.
c). An IM medication is injected to the vastus lateralis site of an adult.
d). An extended release capsule is mixed with applesauce.
Upon assessing the newborn's respirations, which finding would cause the nurse to notify the primary care provider
A respiratory rate of 15 breaths per minute with nasal flaring and acrocyanosis.
What are some respiratory assessments that are normal in a newborn? The respiratory rate should be between 30 and 60 breaths per minute.Coughing and sneezing are normal in newborns.Apnea that lasts longer than 15 seconds but overall short period is normal findings in newborn.What are some alarming respiratory assessments about a newborn?Nasal flaring is a sign of respiratory distress.Acrocyanosis which is bluish coloration of skin due to decreased amount of oxygen delivered to the peripheral part indicates respiratory distress.Chest retractions- skins around the breastbone and ribs pulls while breathing.Grunting sound with each breath.Finding above conditions would cause the nurse to notify the primary care provider.
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How should agent Erin respond when consumer Mrs. Rose notices that the presented MA Plan has a Star Rating of 2 stars?
Erin must respond when consumer Mrs. Rose realizes that the presented Health Care Plan has a 2 star rating, that even with a low rating it will have many advantages including cost benefit.
What is star scale in MA Plan?Plans are rated on a scale of one to five, with one star representing poor performance and five stars representing excellent performance. Star ratings are released annually and reflect the experiences of people enrolled in Medicare Advantage and Part D prescription drug plans. The Star Ratings system supports CMS' efforts to empower people to make the best health decisions for them.
With this information, we can conclude that that even with a low rating it will have many advantages including cost benefit.
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Type, frequency, time, and rest are examples of what aspect of fitness? Elements of a fitness program Acute training variables Periodization Training cycles
Type, frequency, time, and rest are examples of acute training variables.
The acute training variables can be used by the strength and conditioning coach to control the workload during each training unit or session. Indicators of acute training include:
The amount of training units in a week is known as frequency.Exercise's effort is measured by its intensity.Time is the length of exercise (or specified repetitions)The selection and sequencing of exercises, called type.The strength and conditioning coach may carry out such a program one to three times a week, depending on the players' level of growth and the availability of training opportunities.
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The word part that completes the medical term for inflammation of the mucous membrane that lines the inner surfaces of the eyelids, ___________/itis, is:
The medical term for inflammation of the mucous membrane that lines the inner surfaces of the eyelids is conjunctivitis.
An inflammation or infection of the clear membrane (conjunctiva), which borders your eyelid and covers the white portion of your eyeball, causes pink eye (conjunctivitis). The conjunctiva's tiny blood vessels become more apparent when they are irritated. Your eyes' whites seem reddish or pink because of this.
Note: The question seems incomplete, the complete question can be "The word part that completes the medical term for inflammation of the mucous membrane that lines the inner surface of the eyelids, _______/itis is:
a. corne
b. conjunctiv
c. irid
d. scler"
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The word part that completes the medical term for inflammation of the mucous membrane that lines the inner surfaces of the eyelids, ___________/itis, is Conjunctiv.
The mucous membrane that lines the inner surface of the eyelids is called the conjunctiva. The anterior surface of the eyeball is also ensheathed by the conjunctiva. Infection of the conjunctiva is extremely common and is called conjunctivitis or pink eye. The common symptoms are redness and irritation of the eye. This infection is extremely contagious. Transmission occurs by eye discharges of an infected individual. The treatment involves antihistamine drops in case of allergy or antibacterial drops in case of bacterial infections.
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