When applying an occlusive dressing to a sucking chest wound, which of the following would you do?Use sterile gauze dressings and tapeUse a clean folded cloth for a dressingTape the dressing on three of the four sidesCover the dressing with a disposable glove

Answers

Answer 1

When applying an occlusive dressing to a sucking chest wound tape the dressing on three of the four sides.

What is sucking chest wound?

A suction chest wound (SCW) occurs when an injury creates a hole  in the chest. SCWs are often caused by stab wounds, gunshots, or other penetrating injuries to the chest.

Signs of  SCW include:

an opening in the chest about the size of a coin hissing or sucking sound on inhalation and exhalation profuse bleeding from the wound bright red or reddish, frothy blood around the wound coughing. blood up

Possible complications of  SCW that can be life-threatening include:

tension pneumothorax loss of oxygen in the blood (hypoxia) shock of the blood or loss of oxygen  (hypotension) fluid accumulation in the chest cavity  such injuries  vital organs . such as the heart, lungs or digestive tract.

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a resident of a nursing home has moderate-severe cognitive decline. the resident frequently wanders into the room of other residents and takes items from the closets and drawers. the facility staff has asked the cota for suggestions on how to reduce the occurrence of this behavior. which strategy would be most beneficial for the cota to recommend?

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To reduce the occurrence of this behavior, the COTA to recommend strategy is identify the spaces within the facility that are appropriate for the resident of nursing home to rummage.

A nursing home is a facility for the residential care of senior or disabled folks. Nursing homes may additionally be mentioned as adept nursing facility, long care facilities, recent people's homes, aided living facilities care homes, rest homes, convalescent homes or convalescent care.

The Central Ohio Transit Authority (COTA) may be a transportation system agency serving the Columbus metropolitan space, headquartered in Columbus, Ohio. It operates fixed-route buses, bus mass rapid transit, microtransit, and paratransit services. COTA's headquarters are settled within the William J. Lhota Building in downtown Columbus.

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you have just finished scrubbing for a tonsillectomy. while you are cleaning up, the patient is extubated and begins emitting a high-pitched crowing sound indicating that the patient is experiencing laryngospasm. 1. what steps do you take?

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The steps that should be taken as a nurse are: gently suction the larynx. remove any triggering stimulants. ensure clear larynx

A abrupt spasm of the vocal chords is referred to as laryngospasm. Laryngospasms are frequently a sign of an underlying problem.

They can occasionally take place as a result of stress or anxiety. Asthma, gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), and vocal cord dysfunction can also cause them. Sometimes they take place for unknown reasons.

Laryngospasms are uncommon and often last under a minute. You ought to be able to speak or breathe during that period. They typically don't indicate a significant issue , and they normally don't have fatal consequences larynx. You might only ever have one laryngospasm in your entire life.

Discovering the source of recurring laryngospasms is important.

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a client is receiving chemotherapy for the treatment of stage iii breast cancer. the nurse knows that the risk for developing chemotherapy-related neutropenia is influenced by which factors? select all that apply.

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Diseases that the client has that are related to their treatment, cancer, comorbid conditions, and medications they are taking

What is cancer in oncology?

Cancer research is known as oncology. A physician who specializes in treating cancer cases is known as an oncologist. One who specializes in cancer is known as an oncologist. Medical oncology, radiology, & surgical oncology are the three main subfields of oncology based on treatments.

How is cancer diagnosed?

One or more of the following investigations, such as imaging tests, biomarker testing, and biopsies, may be recommended for patients with such a suggestive history, as well as those with certain physical and laboratory findings. Simple x-rays, ultrasonography, computed tomography (CT), positron emission tomography (PET), & MRI investigations are examples of imaging testing.

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a client has been prescribed furosemide 80 mg twice daily. the asymptomatic client begins to have rare premature ventricular contractions followed by runs of bigeminy with stable signs. what action will the nurse perform next?

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Shortness of breath and exhaustion have been becoming worse for a patient. To ascertain the patient's kind of heart failure The doctor has prescribed a diagnostic test.

Furosemide (Lasix) 80 mg twice daily has been recommended for a patient. The patient. has been experiencing unusual premature ventricular contractions, which are followed by runs of bigeminy lasting two minutes, the heart monitor technician reports to the nurse.

The nurse finds that the client is asymptomatic and heart has stable vital signs during the evaluation. A patient is brought to the medical-surgical unit with right-sided heart failure. Information from the client that might point to the existence of edema.

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after teaching a pregnant client about potential complications of amniocentesis that must be reported immediately, the nurse determines that the client understands the instruction when she says that she will report which problem?

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vaginal bleed, Hemorrhage caused by placental penetration, amniotic fluid infection, and uterine discomfort resulting in early delivery are all potential side effects of amniocentesis.

What does it imply if your period is late but your genital area is bleeding?

There are a number of reasons why you can be bleeding even when it is not your period. Your bleeding may be caused by an infection, an underlying medical condition, medicine, or a hormonal imbalance, among other things.

What triggers virulent bleeding?

A uterine infection (pelvic inflammatory disease) recent uterine surgery or damage. noncancerous growths in the womb, such as adenomyosis, uterine fibroids, or cervical polyps. Cervical inflammation or infection (cervicitis)

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a nurse is teaching a client about prescribed lansoprazole. the nurse instructs the client to take the drug at which time?

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Answer: 1 hour before eating

Hope it helps!

you respond to the home of a 59-year-old man who is unconscious with slow, shallow breathing and a weak pulse. the family states that the patient has terminal brain cancer and does not wish to be resuscitated. they further state that there is a dnr order for this patient, but they are unable to locate it. you should:

Answers

Answer: Begin life-saving measures.

Explanation: Though the family says he does not want to be saved, there is no proof of any DNR. If there is no DNR and no life-saving measures are taken, the result can be the termination of your licenses.

milly has just received a kidney transplant and is taking cyclosporin a to help prevent graft rejection. this medication is one in a class of drugs known as drugs. a) anticoagulant b) antibiotic c) analgesic d) retroviral e) immunosuppressive

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[E] Immunosuppressive medication is one in a class of drugs known to help prevent graft rejection.

What are immunosuppressive drugs?

The immune system's capacity is suppressed or diminished by a class of medications known as immunosuppressants. Some of these medications are used to reduce the likelihood that the body may reject a transplanted organ, like a liver, heart, or kidney. Antirejection medications are those substances.

Cyclosporine works by reducing immunological response in order to stop white blood cells from attempting to destroy the transplanted organ. An extremely potent medication is cyclosporine.

Therefore, Cyclosporin A is being taken by Milly, who recently received a kidney transplant, to help prevent graft rejection.

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the nurse is preparing discharge for a client that had been diagnosed with stage 4 terminal lung cancer. the client has chosen to purse palliative care. describe the nurse's responsibility regardinh discharge planning.

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The nurse plays a crucial role in planning the discharge to ensure a smooth transition from the hospital to the community and that the patient's selected site of death can be realized.

Even when taking complicated medications with a syringe driver, patients are still able to go home. An unnecessary readmission to the hospital can be avoided with careful discharge planning. Healthcare services should be perceived as a single system by both patients and caregivers. In the community, it may be challenging to find injectable drugs. On Friday afternoons, everyone finds it challenging to make an urgent referral to the neighbourhood. Typically, community nurses are not permitted to give a patient who is not in an electric bed "hands-on" care.

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you meet with the nurse administrator responsible for improvement when issues in the process of care are identified by those on the wards. she listens carefully to your concern, but in the end says she can only try to help improve nursing issues, and not those that extend to pharmacy or transport. the primary reason your meeting is unlikely to lead to an adequate solution is:

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The primary reason your meeting is unlikely to lead to an adequate solution is the nurse administrator did not have the appropriate span of responsibility to engage the system components needed to solve the problem.

Nurse administrator supervise nurses and alternative health care team members. They recruit, rent and train nurses. alternative responsibilities embody building work schedules and conducting performance reviews.

They have responsibility of recognizing patients' symptoms, taking measures inside their scope of apply to administer medications, providing different measures for symptom alleviation, and collaborating with different professionals to optimize patients' comfort and families' understanding and adaptation.

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which of the following are true of heredity and health and wellness? multiple select question. some inherited conditions are manageable. family history is irrelevant in people with healthy lifestyles. people inherit predispositions to diseases. heredity is a determinant over which we have little control.

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The statement which is true of heredity and health and wellness is that heredity is a determinant over which we have little control.

Heredity refers to specific mechanisms by that characteristics or traits are passed from one generation to ensuing via genes. Genes write in code the data for creating specific proteins, that ar accountable for the particular traits of a private

Health and wellness with a healthy way like ingestion healthy, exercising, avoiding junk won't solely extend your life, rejuvenate your skin and hair however additionally improve your overall well-being. It'll assist you to feel higher physically and mentally. However, healthy habits are exhausting to develop and need dynamical of a mind-set.

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the nurse is preparing to teach a child with asthma and caregivers about the prescribed corticosteroids. which factor should the nurse point out will require monitoring?

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The nurse preparing to teach about the prescribed corticosteroid needs to point out the mechanisms and contraindications.

Asthma is a pulmonary disorder in which your airways constrict and bulged, causing the overproduction of mucus. This can make breathing difficult and cause coughing, wheezing, and shortness of breath. Only symptoms are controlled and they cannot be cured. Exercise-induced asthma, which may be exacerbated by cold, dry air. Occupational asthma is caused by irritants on the job such as chemical fumes, gases, or dust.

Inhaled corticosteroids have strong glucocorticoid action and function directly at the cellular level to decrease inflammation by reversing capillary permeability and stabilizing lysosomes. The use of inhaled corticosteroids is associated with a decrease in growth velocity in children with asthma. Reactivity to the drug and extreme hypersensitivity to milk proteins/lactose are among the contraindications.

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a nurse working in the emergency department (ed) of a small rural hospital is seeing a 54-year-old man who is determined to be experiencing acute myocardial infarction. the health care provider decides to transfer him to a larger facility with a cardiac catheterization laboratory. prior to the transfer, what drug might the nurse administer?

Answers

Answer: Asprin.

Explanation: can reduce the size of the MI and can lower death rates by 20%.

the nurse is preparing to assess and intubate a school-aged child who presents via ambulance to the emergency department. the child has been manually ventilated prior to arrival. the nurse obtains a nasogastric tube in preparation to care for the child for what reason?

Answers

The air that may have accumulated in the stomach will be relieved via the nasogastric tube.

What is a nasogastric tube used for?

A nasogastric (NG) tube, which is small and soft, is placed via the nostril, into the throat, and finally into the stomach. When a child is unable to eat by mouth, formula is usually given to them. On sometimes, children are given medicine thru a tube.

How come a patient would require a nasogastric tube?

In addition to being used to treat intestinal obstruction, nasogastric tubes can also be utilized to assist nourishment. They are most frequently used in surgical patients, but they are also helpful in any patient group that requires nutritional assistance or stomach decompression.

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Common skin disorder characterized by flare-ups in which red papules covered with silvery scales occur on the elbows, knees, scalp, back, or buttocks.

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Answer: Psoriasis is the skin disorder that cause flare-ups and red papules covered with silvery scales on the elbows knees scalp back and buttocks.

Explanation:

What causes Psoriasis The cause isn't fully understood But it is thought to be an immune system problem where infection fighting cells attack healthy skin cells by mistake.

Cold weather and dry conditions can trigger psoriasis.

What can you do to maintain psoriasis?

1. Take daily baths

2. Keep your skin moist

3. Cover the affected areas overnight

4. Expose your skin to small amounts of sunlight

5. Avoid scratching

6. Stay cool

7. Live a healthy life style

You can also visit these medical specialists

1. Dermatologist- For skin nails and Hair

2. Primary care provider- Gives diagnoses and treats diseases

3. Rheumatologist- Specializes in arthritis

a nursing instructor is teaching about mood disorders and informs the class that bipolar disorder is divided into types/groups related to demonstrated characteristics. what are these groups/types? select all that apply.

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A nursing instructor is teaching about mood disorders and informs the class that bipolar disorder is divided into types/groups related to demonstrated characteristics. Threats about her future.

people with the bipolar disorder each episode of intense depression and episodes of mania – overwhelming joy, excitement or happiness, large energy, a reduced need for sleep, and reduced inhibitions. The revel in bipolar is uniquely personal. No humans have precisely the same level.

Bipolar disorder is broadly believed to be the end result of chemical imbalances within the mind. The chemical substances chargeable for controlling the brain's features are called neurotransmitters and include noradrenaline, serotonin, and dopamine.

To diagnose bipolar sickness, a medical doctor performs a physical exam, asks approximately your signs, and recommends blood testing to decide if any other situation, which includes hypothyroidism, is inflicting your signs and symptoms. If the health practitioner does not discover an underlying reason for your signs, she or he plays a psychological evaluation.

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a 66-year-old woman has a complex medical history that includes poorly-controlled type 1 diabetes, renal failure as a result of diabetic nephropathy and chronic heart failure (chf). her care provider has recently added spironolactone (aldactone) to the woman's medication regimen. the nurse should consequently assess for signs and symptoms of

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A 66-yr-antique lady has complex medical records that include poorly-controlled type 1 diabetes, renal failure as a result of diabetic nephropathy, and chronic heart failure (CHF). her care provider has currently brought spironolactone (Aldactone) to the woman's medicine regimen. the nurse ought to consequently determine for signs and symptoms and symptoms of hyperkalemia.

Hyperkalemia is the scientific time period that describes a potassium level in your blood it is higher than every day. Potassium is a chemical this is critical to the characteristic of nerve and muscle cells, such as the ones for your heart. Your blood potassium degree is normally three.

If hyperkalemia comes on abruptly and you've got very excessive ranges of potassium, you can sense coronary heart palpitations, shortness of breath, chest pain, nausea, or vomiting. surprising or intense hyperkalemia is a lifestyle-threatening situation. It calls for instant hospital treatment.

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prior to handing marie her prescription, the physician reviews her medication history. he knows this is essential because of possible interactions with corticosteroids. which drug may cause an interaction resulting in reduced effectiveness of the corticosteroid?

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Diuretics may cause an interaction resulting in reduced effectiveness if the corticosteroid.

Diuretics, sometimes referred to as water tablets, help the body rid itself of water and salt (sodium). Most of these medications help your kidneys eliminate more salt through urine. Salt helps to lower the amount of fluid traveling through your veins and arteries by aiding in the elimination of water from your circulation. The blood pressure is reduced.

Diuretics, sometimes referred to as water pills, help your kidneys excrete more water and salt through urine. Diuretics reduce blood pressure by eliminating extra fluid from the body. If you have extra fluid collecting as a result of heart failure or other medical issues, diuretics can also be helpful.

Frequent urination should not come as a surprise because it is one of the symptoms.

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marcy is 4 years old with cystic fibrosis. the nurse is trying to pick a method to teach marcy a good way to exercise her lungs. which would be the developmentally correct strategy to help marcy?

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The developmentally correct strategy to help Marcy with cystic fibrosis by teaching airway exercises like blowing bubbles.

Cystic fibrosis is an inherited disease. Cystic fibrosis is a disease that affects the cells that secrete mucus, sweat, and digestive enzymes that lead to the thickening of these fluids and gives stickiness, as a result, it blocks the ducts, tubes, and airway passages and ends in difficulty in breathing ( shortness of breath).

Airway exercises like blowing bubbles, a horn, and a pinwheel are very helpful exercises. This kind of airway exercise will help to increase her lung capacity and is suitable for this age group of early childhood. And other normal activities like crawling, climbing up stairs, and infant swimming classes are also considered helpful exercises. Other exercises are normal activities for this age group of children.

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99291, 99292, 99292, 99292the four types of medical decision making, in order of complexity from most to least complex, are as follows

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The following are listed in order of complexity, least to most difficult Simple complexity, little complexity, a moderate amount of complexity, and extreme complexity.

What constitutes making medical decisions?

Medical making decisions (MDM) is the most crucial of the three elements needed to grade an E/M service and it represents the supplier's cognitive labor when seeing a patient. When establishing medical necessity, the major factor for payment, certain payers focus primarily on MDM.

What does simple medical decision-making entail?

The simplest form of medical decision-making is straightforward medical decision-making. It is impossible to be ineligible. For the very, very routine meetings, including such a level 2 offices follow-up (99212) or even a level 1 small office patient, this amount of complexity is necessary (99201).

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when more than two physicians, with technicians and specialized equipment, work together to complete a complicated procedure and each physician has a specific portion of the surgery to complete, they are termed what?

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Organ system level of organization is the highest organization this physician is specialized in .

What is level of organization and with the given organs which level till this physician is specialized in?

Level of organization is the certain levels like cellular level, tissue level, organ level, and organ system level.

Here the level of organization given is mouth, esophagus, stomach, and intestine , and this physician is specialized in organ level organization.

Since the question mention sin the very starting that the physician is specializing in surgery is the symptom of being highly specialized.

Hence the physician is organ system level of organization specialized.

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the nurse is caring for a client with chronic myelogenous leukemia (cml) and notes that the client has splenomegaly and an increased basophil count as well as night sweats, bone pain, and a low grade fever. the nurse interprets the symptoms as indicating that the client is in which phase of the clinical course of cml?

Answers

The nurse interprets the symptoms as indicating that the client is in Accelerated phase of the clinical course of chronic myelogenous leukemia.

What is chronic myelogenous leukemia (cml)?

Chronic myelogenous leukemia (cml) is defined as the disease condition that is characterized by excessive and uncontrolled proliferation and division of the bone marrow cells that is caused by a chromosome mutation that occurs spontaneously. It is also known as the blood-cell cancer.

The symptoms of Chronic myelogenous leukemia include the following:

Bone painEasy bleedingFeeling full after eating a small amount of foodFeeling run-down or tiredFeverWeight loss without tryingLoss of appetite.

The stages of chronic myelogenous leukemia include the following:

chronic, accelerated, and blast stages.

The accelerated phase of chronic myelogenous leukemia is characterized by the following:

splenomegaly,increased basophil count,night sweats, bone pain, and a low grade fever.

Therefore, these symptoms that are observed by the nurse shows that the client is in Accelerated phase of chronic myelogenous leukemia.

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he nurse employed in a long-term care facility is planning assignments for the clients on a nursing unit. the nurse needs to assign four clients and has a licensed practical nurse and three assistive personnel (aps) on a nursing team. which client would the nurse most appropriately assign to the licensed practical nurse?

Answers

The patient who would be most suited for the licensed practical nurse's care needs abdominal wound irrigations & dressing changes every three hours.

LPNs cannot conduct a code, check wounds, or give IV medicine to patients with lower levels of acuity.

While licensed professional nurses (LPN) frequently support physicians or registered nurses, registered nurses (RN) generally give direct care to patients. Following completing the NCLEX-RN and graduating with a 4-year bachelor's nursing degree, a registered nurse can apply for licensure.

RNs Can Deliver Higher Levels of Patient Care & Have More Responsibilities. RNs must complete a great deal more coursework to become licensed and have a wider range of practice. In most situations, registered nurses can work alone. LPNs, however, are required to work under the direction of a doctor or an RN.

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Which calorie source is absorbed rapidly throughout the digestive tract via simple diffusion?.

Answers

The source of calories that are absorbed quickly throughout the digestive tract by simple diffusion is alcohol.
Alcohol contains a lot of calories.  Seven calories per gram of alcohol is almost as much as one gram of fat.  Various ingredients that are mixed into certain alcoholic beverages, also increase the number of calories that can harm your weight.

Maintain weight
To reduce your risk of unwanted weight gain, the British Nutrition Foundation recommends that you:
1. Do not drink alcohol in excess of the recommended amount, which is a maximum of four units of alcoholic beverages a day for men and 2-3 units for women.  One 250 ml glass of wine contains three units of alcohol.
2. Drink water after consuming alcohol so that you avoid dehydration.
3. Do not consume alcohol on an empty stomach.  Eat healthy foods such as tuna sandwiches with or before drinking.
4. It's better not to drink with friends because usually, drinking in groups will encourage someone to consume more than recommended.
5. If you drink white wine, why not mix it with sparkling water. This will give you more time to finish it, without needing to increase the amount of alcohol.
6. Better yet, you replace alcohol with other delicious drinks such as unsweetened fruit juice or with a limited amount of sweetener.

Number of calories in drinks
To be clear, here's an estimate of the number of calories in the favorite alcoholic drink.
- A glass of wine with 12 percent alcohol (175 ml): 126 kcal
- A glass of beer with five percent alcohol: 215 kcal
- A glass of cream liqueur with an alcohol content of 17 percent (50 ml): 118 kcal
- A bottle of Alcopop with five percent alcohol content: 237 kcal
- Two servings of fermented wine with an alcohol content of 17.5 percent (50 ml): 65 kcal.

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in an unmatched case control study of risk factors for congenital defects of the neural tube, maternal folate deficiency was found in 15 of 100 mothers of cases and 10 of 200 mothers of controls. the odds ratio for the relationship between folate deficiency and neural tube defects is:

Answers

In an unmatched case-control examination of hazard factors for congenital defects of the neural tube the chances ratio for the connection between folate deficiency and neural tube defects is 1: 12

The neural tube forms the early brain and backbone. these sorts of beginning defects expand very early during pregnancy. the 2 maximum not unusual NTDs are spina bifida (a spinal twine disorder) and anencephaly (a brain illness).

This neural tube serves as the embryonic brain and spinal twine, the vital apprehensive system. mistakes in this method can result in congenital anomalies, inclusive of neural tube defects.

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the nurse witnesses an automobile crash on a highway and stops to provide assistance to the victim. the nurse notes that the client has sustained a head injury and a compound fracture to the left leg. the nurse provides the appropriate care before transport of the victim to the hospital by ambulance. the client develops a severe bone infection at the site of the fracture that requires amputation of the leg and files suit against the nurse who provided care at the scene of the crash. which is accurate regarding the nurse's immunity from this suit?

Answers

Good Samaritan law protects the nurse from liability if the client files a lawsuit against the nurse who provided care at the scene of the accident.

What does the Good Samaritan law mean?

• A person may provide immediate assistance or emergency care to a person hurt in an accident, crash, or emergency medical condition under the Good Samaritan Law without expecting remuneration or recompense, without a specific relationship or obligation of care.

• Good Samaritan laws are intended to encourage bystanders to assist in these and other emergency situations without fear of being held liable if their actions unintentionally cause harm.

What are the four key elements of the Good Samaritan Law?

1. Permission of ill/injured person when possible.

2. Care given in appropriate (non-reckless) manner.

3. The person who falls under the law of the Good Samaritan is not the person who caused the accident.

4. Care was provided because it was an emergency and trained help had not yet arrived.

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a client is in the emergency department following a fall on the face. the client reports facial pain. the nurse assesses bleeding from nasal cuts and from the nares, a deformity to the nose, periorbital ecchymoses, and some clear fluid draining from the right nostril. the first action of the nurse is to

Answers

The first action of the nurse is to detect glucose in the clear fluid.

The mentioned emergency indicates occurence of nose fracture. The fluid must be cerebrospinal fluid and hence needed to be confirmed to prevent brain infection like meningitis. Glucose is present in cerebrospinal fluid and it's leakage indicates crack in the cribiform plate.

The glucose detection should be the primary action by nurse. Nurse should also administer iburorofen and apply ice. Periorbital ecchymoses also known as raccoon eye is the discolouration of upper and lower eyelids. The situation occurs due to blood into periorbital tissues.

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a client receives a prescription for inamrinone (inocor) 0.75 mg/kg iv bolus to be delivered over 3 minutes. the client weighs 80 kg. inamrinone is available for injection, 100 mg/20 ml. how many ml of inamrinone should the nurse administer? (enter numeric value only. if rounding is required, round to the nearest whole number.)

Answers

A client receives a prescription for inamrinone (indoor) 0.75 mg/kg iv bolus to be delivered over 3 minutes. the client weighs 80 kg. inamrinone is available for injection, 100 mg/20 ml. how many ml of inamrinone should the nurse administers in ratio and proportion, 4 mg: X ml = 2 mg: 1 ml 2X = 4 X = 2.

Inamrinone is a medicinal drug used in the quick-time period management and remedy of congestive heart failure. it's miles a phosphodiesterase-III inhibitor, which increases cardiac inotropy.

Inamrinone - Medical Pharmacology. Inamrinone is a high-quality inotropic agent with vasodilator activity, exceptional in structure and mode of action from both digitalis glycosides and catecholamines. The mechanism of its inotropic and vasodilator consequences has not been completely elucidated.

In case your milrinone stops infusing it's far more feasible that you may enjoy sudden and severe signs of coronary heart failure. in case you are not able to right away restart the infusion, you or your caregiver should initiate your network's Emergency clinical device with the aid of calling 911 without delay.

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a client with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa, who is in a state of starvation, is in a 2-bed room. a newly admitted client will be assigned to this client's room. which client would be the best choice as a roommate for the client with anorexia nervosa?

Answers

A client receiving diagnostic tests would be the best choice as a roommate for the client with anorexia nervosa

What is anorexia nervosa ?

A person with anorexia nervosa has an abnormally low body weight, a strong fear of gaining weight, and a mistaken perception of weight.

Starvation, a constant pursuit of thinness, a refusal to maintain a healthy weight, distorted body image, a severe fear of gaining weight, the absence of menstruation in girls and women, and very disordered eating habits are all signs of anorexia nervosa.

Despite having a very low physical weight, you might nevertheless consider yourself to be overweight. To deal with stress, worry, and low self-esteem, people with anorexia may engage in odd eating behaviours. You may feel more in control of your life if you limit your intake of food. More women than males are impacted by this issue.

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BRAINLYIST 20 POINTSSS
you look at a nerve cell under a microscope and see something that looks like a tiny tree stretching outwards. What function does this part of the cell perform?

Question 12 options:

produces energy to transmit to other cells


protects the cell from bacteria or viruses


receives stimuli that is sent to the body and axon


moderates the speed of electrical impulses sent from the cell

Answers

Answer:

c

Explanation:

receives stimuli that is sent to the body and axon

Other Questions
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