Answer: c
Explanation: Metabolism refers to the whole sum of reactions that occur throughout the body within each cell and that provide the body with energy. This energy gets used for vital processes and the synthesis of new organic material
the nurse is developing a care plan for a client with severe generalized anxiety disorder. which intervention would the nurse include to maintain safety? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
The nurse is developing a care plan for a client with severe generalized anxiety disorder. Increased anxiety.
There are several kinds of anxiety disorders, inclusive of generalized anxiety disease, panic disease, particular phobias, agoraphobia, social tension ailment, and separation anxiety disease.
Anxiety disorder is a form of intellectual health condition. if you have an anxiety ailment, you can reply to day-to-day certain matters and situations with fear and dread. you can also enjoy bodily signs and sympdayeveryday of anxiety, including a pounding coronary heart and sweating. it every day has some tension.
Intense tension takes place when the body's herbal responses to everyday stress exceed wholesome degrees and interrupt your potential everyday characteristics and perform typical 3 duties. while most of people enjoy some anxiety, as with a brand new enjoy or challenge, severe anxiety may be overwhelming.
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a nurse finds that a client with posttraumatic stress disorder (ptsd) is behaving abnormally and suspects that the client has had a flashback of the traumatic event. which behavioral manifestations of the client would lead the nurse to make this interpretation? select all that apply.
The client appears terrified. The client is crying loudly. The client attempted to run away. Because of post-traumatic stress disorder
A horrific event can cause post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), a mental health disease that can be brought on by experiencing it or seeing it. Flashbacks, nightmares, excruciating anxiety, and uncontrollable thoughts about the incident are just a few possible symptoms.
The majority of people who experience traumatic circumstances might initially struggle to adjust and cope, but with time and adequate self-care, they typically get better. You may have post-traumatic stress disorder PTSD if the symptoms worsen, last for weeks, months, or even years, and affect your daily functioning.
It can be crucial to seek effective treatment after developing post-traumatic stress disorder PTSD symptoms in order to lessen symptoms and enhance function.
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a nurse from the postanesthesia care unit (pacu) transports a client in the elevator with a nurse from the intensive care unit (icu). there are staff members and visitors in the elevator as well. which response from the icu nurse is appropriate when the pacu nurse begins the report?
The response from the ICU nurse is appropriate when the post-anesthesia care unit nurse begins the report is, "Wait and give me a report in the room at the bedside."
The Post-Anesthesia Care Unit, or PACU, as it is more commonly known, is a facility where patients are temporarily admitted after undergoing any surgical procedures. In any hospital or medical facility, it is one of the most crucial sections or amenities. The post-anesthesia care unit is a crucial and critical care area where the patient and all of his or her vital signs are continuously monitored. It is also where pain management starts and where fluids are administered as needed. The nursing staff is adept at identifying and treating issues that arise in patients following anesthesia. The PACU is supervised by the Department of Anesthesiology in a hospital or other medical facility. In the PACU, perioperative and postanesthetic management of the patient takes place, which includes periodic assessment and monitoring of respiratory and cardiovascular function, neuromuscular function, mental status, temperature, pain, nausea, vomiting, drainage and bleeding, and urine output. The response from the ICU nurse is appropriate when the postanesthesia care unit nurse begins the report with, "Wait and give me a report in the room at the bedside."
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a nurse who provides care at an inpatient eating disorder clinic is performing an admission assessment of a young client who has been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. which assessment question reflects therapeutic communication?'
Option A. "What do you think about how much you weigh right now?". is the assessment question that reflects therapeutic communication.
Therapeutic communication. is a collection of techniques that prioritize the physical, mental, and emotional well-being of sufferers. Nurses offer sufferers with aid and record while at the same time keeping a degree of expert distance and objectivity.
The cause of therapeutic communique, then, is to assist clinicians to build agreement with sufferers even as additionally supporting clinicians and patients to collaborate correctly and effectively toward the patient's bodily and emotional well-being.
Therapeutic communication is a practice wherein the nurse intentionally controls a client or assists the client in progressing knowledge thru verbal or nonverbal interaction.
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Disclaimer:- your question is incomplete, please see below for the complete question.
A nurse who provides care at an inpatient eating disorder clinic is performing an admission assessment of a young client who has been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. which assessment question reflects therapeutic communication?
A) "What do you think about how much you weigh right now?"
B) "Why do you prefer not to eat food?"
C) "What do you believe has caused your anorexia?"
D) "Is there anything that I can get you to eat right now?"
a client hospitalized for 10 days with subacute infective endocarditis is afebrile and has no signs of heart damage. discharge with outpatient antibiotic therapy for 2 to 6 weeks is anticipated. during discharge planning with the client, what is most important for the nurse to review?
The most important for the nurse to review Evaluate the client's home environment for family support and sufficiency and medication.
In many cases, long-term IV antibiotic therapy is required. To successfully manage long-term antibiotic medication, the nurse should evaluate the home environment. Patient without heart injury does not require bed rest. The other measures are not crucial for a patient receiving outpatient antibiotic therapy and medication. An immunosuppressive drug called azathioprine has the potential to cause myocarditis. The diuretic furosemide and the anti-inflammatory acetaminophen are not known to cause myocarditis. Antibiotic ciprofloxacin is not known to cause myocarditis to develop.
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which individual should have priority for receiving a seasonal influenza vaccination? an older adult resident of a long-term care facility an adolescent who was admitted to a hospital for an appendectomy a neonate who was born in a busy hospital in late october an older adult hospitalized for flu symptoms
An older person resident of an extended-time period care facility is a priority for receiving seasonal influenza vaccination.
Flu is not unusual at some stage in the autumn and iciness months. top ranges typically occur overdue in December and early March. there are numerous distinct lines of flu, and they have a tendency to alternate each yr. you may avoid the seasonal flu by using getting vaccinated each year.
Use preferred and droplet precautions for recurring medical care of patients with showed or possibly influenza, or influenza-like infection. well-known precautions encompass hand hygiene. while contact with frame fluids is predicted, a robe, gloves, and eye protection ought to be worn.
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Bone is constantly being broken down by what?
a client presents to the emergency department with delirium. laboratory results reveal sodium level of 123 meq/l (123 mmol/l). the physician orders fluid replacement with hypertonic iv solution, 20 mg furosemide, and intravenous pyelogram. which result would the nurse expect?
The result the nurse would expect is intracellular hydration, an increase in sodium levels, and the removal of the excess water.
Symptomatic (ie, neurological) hyponatremia is usually treated with hypertonic saline and loop diuretics, such as furosemide, to increase water excretion. This combination works to regulate plasma sodium levels while eliminating excess water in the body. A complication of prompt treatment of hyponatremia is an osmotic demyelination known as central demyelination, which produces severe neurological sequelae and sometimes death. It is not a wait for treatment. Thus, we would expect the intracellular hydration, the removal of the excess water etc.
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a healthy adult client weighing 75 kg is informed by the health care provider that they are consuming an inadequate amount of water each day. when calculating the client's needs based on body weight, how many ml would the nurse inform the client to ingest daily?
2250ml would the nurse inform the client to ingest daily.
A person who has received training to provide care to those who are ill or injured is referred to as a nurse. To make patients well and maintain their fitness and health, nurses collaborate with doctors and other healthcare professionals. In addition, nurses support mourning family members and provide end-of-life care.
Like medicine, nursing is a profession, although the length of time and type of training required for a person to become a nurse differ. Before obtaining a nursing license, nurses in some states may complete three to five years or more of training.
The work of nurses is diverse. In addition to working in medical facilities and the community, nurses also do home visits for patients.
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which client most likely faces the highest risk of developing secondary pulmonary hypertension? a client with asthma who uses her inhaled bronchodilator more often than prescribed an older adult client who has been hospitalized for the treatment of community-acquired pneumonia a client who suffered a thermal injury to his lungs in a fire a client with copd and a 35 pack-year smoking history.
The client which is at the highest risk of developing secondary pulmonary hypertension is a client with COPD and a 35 pack-year smoking history.
Secondary pulmonary hypertension is an advanced, severe malady that considerably affects the standard of life and over time results in right coronary failure. A timely analysis, correct treatment, regular follow up and patient education will absolutely have an effect on the result of the malady.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a chronic inflammatory respiratory organ malady that causes obstructed flow of air from the lungs. Symptoms embody respiratory issue, cough, secretion (sputum) production and unhealthy. Smoking is that the main explanation for COPD and is believed to be answerable for around nine in each ten cases. The harmful chemicals in smoke will harm the liner of the lungs and airways.
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what anesthesia code(s) are assigned for an obstetric patient who had neuraxial labor analgesia provided by the anesthesiologist when the delivery was expected to be a normal vaginal delivery but the obstetrician performed a cesarean delivery when the fetal heart rate dropped?
Anesthesia code(s) are assigned for an obstetric patient who had neuraxial labor analgesia provided by the anesthesiologist: 01967, 01968.
In the CPT® Index, under Anesthesia/Neuraxial/Labor, which directs you to code range 01967–1969, you can review the codes in the numeric section to determine that codes 01967 and 01968 are the correct codes. Code 01967 describes the initial service without the cesarean delivery. Code 01968 is an add-on code that adds cesarean delivery. Add-on codes must be coded in conjunction with the primary code and cannot be coded alone. The correct codes that are assigned for an obstetric patient who had neuraxial labor analgesia provided by the anesthesiologist: are 01967, 01968.
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an 8-year-old boy comes to his physician with a painless and smooth mass located in the midline of his neck at the level of the hyoid bone, as noted by the arrow in the given photo. this palpable, midline neck mass was asymptomatic, but due to recent expansion, it has caused difficulty and pain when swallowing. when he swallows or protrudes his tongue, the mass moves superiorly. what is the most likely diagnosis?
This palpable, midline neck mass at the level of the hyoid bone which is causing difficulty and pain when swallowing and while he swallows or protrudes his tongue, the mass moves superiorly is Thyroglossal duct cysts.
Thyroglossal duct cysts most frequently gift with a palpable symptomless sheet neck mass typically below [65% of the time] the extent of the hyoid bone. The mass on the neck moves throughout swallowing or on protrusion of the tongue thanks to its attachment to the tongue via the tract of thyroid descent.
The hyoid bone is a little U-shaped (horseshoe-shaped) solitary bone, settled within the sheet of the neck anteriorly at the bottom of the jawbone and posteriorly at the fourth neck bone.
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the nurse knows that a client who is being taught to perform home blood pressure monitoring (hbpm) understands the teaching plan when he makes which statement about the size of the bp cuff? the cuff should:
Blood pressure be 1 in (2.5 cm) above the crease of the elbow and fit snugly around the upper arm with room for a fingertip to slid the cuff (HPBM)The most frequent reversible cause of cardiovascular disease is hypertension.
Major recommendations advise patients with hypertension to use home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM), a self-monitoring technique that may be included into their therapy. A increasing body of research demonstrates the advantages of patient HBPM over office-based monitoring, including better blood pressure control, the identification of white-coat hypertension, and cardiovascular risk prediction.
HBPM is more affordable and practical than 24-hour ambulatory blood pressure monitoring
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in which of the following is a defendant held responsible for injuring another person, regardless of negligence or intent? a. Contributory negligencec. Strict liabilityb. Product liabilityd. Warranty liability
The option that a defendant held responsible for injuring another person, regardless of negligence or intent is option c. Strict liability.
What kinds of laws are strict liability?Being the owner of dangerous animals makes you strictly liable for any harm and losses those animals cause. Dog biting laws are covered by state statutes. Most courts today maintain that strict liability rules apply when a person partakes in ultrahazardous activities.
Therefore, Strict liability refers to the legal doctrine that a defendant is responsible for an action regardless of the defendant's intent or state of mind at the time the action was committed, and it is present in both tort and criminal law. Possession crimes is an example of strict liability offenses in criminal law.
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which of the following patients would be an appropriate candidate for the adjuvanted influenza vaccine (aiiv4)? a 5 year-old child with asthma a 26 year-old woman with no health conditions a 72 year-old woman with copd a 62 year-old pharmacist with hypertension
A 62 year-old pharmacist with hypertension would be an appropriate candidate for the adjuvanted influenza vaccine (aiiv4). Influenza viruses cause the disease.
Adults 65 and older are advised by the CDC to obtain preference for any of the following higher influenza vaccinations, either dosed or adjuvanted: quadrivalent high-dose inactivated influenza vaccine (HD–IIV4), RIV4 quadrivalent recombinant influenza vaccination Adjuvanted quadrivalent inactivated influenza vaccine (aIIV4). There are two kinds of Human influenza A and B epidemics occur. Both Types may cause minor to severe sickness in people of all ages. While influenza A viruses infect both people and animals, Only humans are affected by influenza B viruses. In the event that none of these three vaccinations are accessible, then any other age-appropriate influenza vaccination should be administered. Be put to use Inactivated and recombinant vaccinations are administered as an injection into the muscle.
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which client should the nurse see first? bronchitis, increased mucus and painful cough, pef 390 ml out of best pef 475 ml. refractory asthma, pef 210 ml out of best pef 450ml, diminished wheezing. pleuritis, respirations 22/min, rates right sided pain with inspiration 7 out of 10. copd, respirations 22/min, pulse ox 90%, reports fatigue and dyspnea with activity.
Client which the nurse should see first is refractory asthma, PEF 210 ml out of best PEF 450ml and diminished wheezing.
Wheezing is usually a higher-pitched whistling sound that happens most typically after you respire. This happens once the airways square measure narrowed because of bronchospasms and/or inflammation. once the airways square measure severely narrowed, asthmatic are often detected after you respire moreover.
Asthma patients are thought-about refractory once they expertise persistent symptoms, frequent asthma attacks or low respiratory organ operate despite taking asthma medications. Some refractory asthma attack|respiratory disease|respiratory illness|respiratory disorder} patients got to take oral steroids like Orasone to manage their asthma.
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a mother is upset because her newborn has lost 6 ounces since birth 2 days ago. the nurse informs the mother that it is normal for a newborn to lose which percentage of their birth weight within the first week of life?
A mother is upset because her newborn has lost 6 ounces since birth 2 days ago. the nurse informs the mother that it is normal for a newborn to lose a percentage of their birth weight within the first week of life5% to 10% of their birth weight.
Newborns come in a number of wholesome sizes. most babies born between 37 and 40 weeks weigh somewhere between five kilos, 8 oz (2,500 grams), and eight pounds, 13 ounces (4,000 grams). Newborns who are lighter or heavier than the average toddler are typically satisfactory.
Maximum full-term wholesome newborns weigh anywhere from 5 kilos eleven oz. to 8 pounds 6 oz. (2.6 to 3. eight kg). Low start weight is less than 5 kilos 8 oz. (2.5 kg) at the complete time period, and larger than common is a birth weight over eight kilos thirteen oz. (four.0 kg).
The common weight of an infant born at 37–forty weeks ranges from five lb eight oz eight lb thirteen oz.. that is 2. five to 4 kg. At transport, specialists don't forget a low delivery weight to be less than 5 lb 8 oz., or 2. five kg. it is commonplace for toddlers to lose around 10% of their weight shortly after delivery.
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the nurse is providing care for a client whose history of intimate partner violence has resulted in posttraumatic stress disorder (ptsd). the client has few friends and states that the client is estranged from the client's family. how can the nurse best enhance the client's social support?
Encourage the PTSD patient to join a support group.
A support group can provide valuable social support. If the client states that he or she is estranged from his or her family, the nurse should not approach this issue on their own. Making new friends is difficult for a (posttraumatic stress disorder) PTSD patient. Educational resources can be beneficial, but they are not a replacement for social support.
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition caused by witnessing or experiencing a terrifying event. Flashbacks, nightmares, and severe anxiety, as well as uncontrollable thoughts about the event, are some of the symptoms.
People suffering from PTSD have intense, disturbing thoughts and feelings about their traumatic experience that last long after the event has ended. They may relive the event in flashbacks or nightmares, experience sadness, fear, or anger, and feel detached or estranged from others.
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I NEED THIS ASAP, PLEASE!!!
The Topic Is COVID-19 (Answers Should Be In Paragraphs Form):
Definition Of Disease/Condition
Populations Affected
Signs/Symptoms
Possible Causes
Diagnosis (Lab Test And/Or Other Methods Used)
Test used To Monitor The Progress Of Disease
Pharmacological Treatment And Any Tests That May Be Used To Monitor Medication Prescribed
Research - Past & Present
Prognosis
Complications Of Disease Progression
At least five sources are required:
1 Website Only.
Books that contain more than 2000 pages.
Resources dates after 2006.
Can have more than three websites cited
COVID 19 is a respiratory disease caused by the corona virus that usually attacks the respiratory tract of the human body. The disease is infectious in nature and passes through the agents such as saliva, exchange of gases and the contact of the body even.
What is the cause of COVID ?
The cause of COVID is the infectious virus that is corona virus that infects the respiratory tract of the human body and the people who are having more weaker response are prone to get it more.
Signs and symptoms of COVID 19 are coughing, cold and high fever. The more possible causes to the people who are more prone to the infection have lesser blood cells, blood pressure drop and the other body symptoms as per the body reactions one has.
The diagnosis is RT-PCR where the covid antibodies if found shows the positive result for the patient and there direct kits coming in the market as well.
Cure is isolation and having antibiotics or letting people get recover on their own.
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Each serving from the dairy group provides approximately ________ milligrams of calcium.
Each serving of dairy foods, such as yogurt, milk, and cheese, provides approximately 300 milligrams of calcium.
Understanding calciumCalcium is an important mineral that is useful for the growth and maintenance of bones and teeth. Calcium can be obtained from several types of food, such as milk and processed products, green vegetables, sardines, and salmon.
In addition to maintaining healthy bones and teeth, calcium is also needed to support the work of the nervous system, blood clotting, and muscle contractions. Lack of calcium in the body can cause children's growth to be stunted and trigger various diseases, such as rickets, osteoporosis, and osteomalacia.
Calcium supplements can be given if calcium intake from food is lacking or if the body's need for calcium increases. Supplements containing calcium carbonate had the highest levels of calcium, followed by calcium citrate, calcium gluconate and calcium lactate.
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does a provider who is only performing waived tests need a clia number? a. no, waived testing does not require the provider to have a clia number. b. yes, the law requires that no matter what type of testing is performed, a clia number is required. c. yes, the law requires that no matter what type of testing is performed, only medicare providers need a clia number. d. no, medicare does not pay for waived testing.
The correct statement about waived tests needing a CLIA number is: (b) yes, the law requires that no matter what type of testing is performed, a CLIA number is required.
Waived tests are the ones that are considered to be so simple that there are very very less chances of error. This has been approved by CDC or FDA. The examples of waived tests include: pregnancy tests, fecal occult blood tests, some urine tests, etc.
CLIA has the full form Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments. It states that all the facilities that perform testing for which materials from human body are extracted need to requirements decided by the CLIA. CLIA number is a type of certification provided by CLIA, essential for all testing facilities.
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a patient with a traumatic brain injury underwent monitoring of the intracranial pressure. suddenly, it resulted in leakage of the cerebrospinal fluid. what would be the possible reason for the leakage?
Leakage of the cerebrospinal fluid is due to Use of intraventricular catheter.
In order to install an intraventricular catheter, a hole in the skull must first be drilled. The catheters are then introduced into the brain to a location where cerebrospinal fluid is present. As the most intrusive device, it runs the risk of leaking cerebrospinal fluid close to the point of insertion.
The use of a fiberoptic transducer-tipped catheter, subdural or epidural catheter, or sensor may not result in cerebrospinal fluid leakage. This is due to the catheters not being positioned near the cerebrospinal fluid. Cerebrospinal fluid leaking may not happen if a fiberoptic transducer-tipped catheter, subdural or epidural catheter, or sensor is used. This is because the catheters were not placed close to the cerebrospinal fluid.
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Can someone give me more information about Euthanasia besides the definition and types?
Answer:
The alternatives to euthanasia are hospice or palliative care. Often people who lean toward euthanasia are those who fear pain, poor quality of life, burdening loved ones with their care, etc. Self-administered euthanasia: the patient administers the means of death. Other-administered euthanasia: a person other than the patient administers the means of death. Assisted: the patient administers the means of death but with the assistance of another person, such as a physician. There are 4 main types of euthanasia, i.e., active, passive, indirect, and physician-assist. Active euthanasia involves “the direct administration of a lethal substance to the patient by another party with merciful intent” [2].
which medication would the nurse administer to the patient exhibiting hyperactivity, insomnia, and delirium while on the icu
The patient who was suffering delirium, restlessness, and hyperactivity while in the intensive care unit would receive medication called dexmedetomidine from the nurse.
What is called medication?Medicines are substances or chemicals that treat, halt, or prevent illness, lessen symptoms, or aid with in diagnosis of illnesses. Modern medicine has allowed it for doctors all to save and cure many diseases. Today, there are various reports for drugs.
Why do people take medication?People take drugs to treat illness, feel good when they are ill, and to fend off potential ailments. A doctor considers the patient's situation when determining the drug to prescribe to them.
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the nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving iv furosemide (lasix) and morphine for the treatment ofacute decompensated heart failure (adhf) with severe orthopnea. which clinical finding is the best indicatorthat the treatment has been effective
Clinical finding through an echocardiogram examines the heart rhythm using electrodes and ultrasound technology to see how blood flows through the heart.
How should you treat decompensated heart failure?
Identification of acute decompensation inducers, and also noninvasive characterization of cardiac filling pressures and output, is critical to management. To relieve symptoms, diuretics, vasodilators, positive airway pressure, and inotropes can be used.
An echocardiogram treatment by the nurse is the best indicator for a patient who is receiving iv furosemide (Lasix) and morphine for the treatment of acute decompensated heart failure (hf) with severe orthopnea.
Therefore, an echocardiogram can aid the nurse in the diagnosis of heart conditions such as heart failure (adhf).
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dr. smartypants designs a research study to examine whether or not taking probiotic supplements causes children to perform better in school. she assigns one group of children to take probiotic supplements daily, and assigns another group of children to take vitamin c every day. in her study, the group of children taking probiotic supplements is called the:
Ashe assigns one group of children to take probiotic supplements daily, and assigns another group of children to take vitamin C every day so in her study, the group of children taking probiotic supplements is called the experimental group.
Probiotics help your body maintain a healthy community of microorganisms or facilitate your body's community of microorganisms come back to a healthy condition once being disturbed. It influence your body's immune reaction.
Vitamin C is an inhibitor that helps shield your cells against the results of free radicals that play a job in cardiopathy, cancer and different diseases.
An experimental group is that the cluster that receives the variable being tested in an experiment. The management cluster is that the cluster in an experiment that doesn't receive the variable you're testing.
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an adolescent with well-controlled type 1 diabetes has assumed complete management of the disease and wants to participate in gymnastics after school. to ensure safe participation, the nurse should instruct the client to adjust the therapeutic regimen by:
The nurse should instruct the client to adjust the therapeutic regimen by eating a snack before each gymnastics practice.
What is therapeutic regimen ?A method of controlling and incorporating into everyday life a program(s) for the treatment of sickness and its aftereffects that is/are sufficient for achieving health-related objectives and can be enhanced.
A regimen is a set of predetermined steps you take to complete a task. Your objective can be to have clear skin, for instance. You might follow a routine that involves abstaining from bad foods, washing frequently with a quality product, and obtaining a full night's sleep.Learn more about Therapeutic regimen here:
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he nurse is providing instructions to a pregnant client with human immunodeficiency virus (hiv) infection regarding care to the newborn after delivery. the client asks the nurse about the feeding options that are available. which response should the nurse make to the client?
The best advice that the nurse can give to a patient who has an HIV infection and wants to know about the feeding options that are available to her is, "You will need to bottle-feed your newborn."
HIV can easily spread from one person to another through blood, breastfeeding, etc. Hence, the best advice that the nurse can give her client is to bottle-feed the baby so that the baby does not get infected with the disease.
HIV is also known as the human immunodeficiency virus.
The affected person's immune system weakens over time, leading to critical conditions even with a minor viral fever. There are no direct medications or cures that can get rid of HIV completely.
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29. Which of the following are NOT connective tissues:
Note:
Your question provides basic detail (not enough), next time...please provide "the following."
Doing basic research about your question, this is the answer I came across. Hopefully it's correct, if not please specify the question in more detail in the comments.
Answer:
Flexible connective tissue
for the patient on the intensive care unit (icu) who sustained a motor vehicle crash, which action would the nurse implement to keep the patient's large family informed of the patient's status and decrease the number of status checks by the family?
The best course of action the nurse should take to inform the patient's vast family of their condition is to ask the patient to designate a spokesman who will speak with the providers.
The best strategy to ensure that the patient's family is informed as soon as possible is to request that they appoint a spokesperson to facilitate communication between the patient's family and the medical staff. It is not appropriate to ask the family to check at the end of the shift because this is the worst time to learn about the patient owing to communication between caregivers as they switch changes. The family will not be able to stay informed of the patient's present condition by asking the doctor to schedule a patient-care conference for them. It is improper to ask security to accompany the family to the main lobby.
Hence, we can state that the patient should choose a spokesperson who will speak with the providers.
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Your question is incomplete. Please find the complete question below.
For the patient in the intensive care unit (ICU) who sustained a motor vehicle crash, which action would the nurse implement to keep the patient's large family informed of the patient's status and decrease the number of status checks by the family?
1 Ask the family members to check on the change of shift.
2 Ask security to escort the family from the waiting room to the main lobby.
3 Ask the healthcare provider to schedule a patient-care conference for the family.
4 Ask the patient to identify a spokesperson to communicate with the providers.