Answer:
I would say C. Disruptive Selection!
Explanation:
occurs when natural selection favors both extremes of continuous variation. Over time, the two extreme variations will become more common and the intermediate states will be less common or lost. Disruptive selection can lead to two new species.
Why is cholesterol able to integrate into a lipid bilayer?a) Because it is a bulky steroidb) Because it has a planar organizationc) Because it binds covalently to phospholipidsd) Because it has an amphiphatic organization, similar to membrane lipidse) Because it prevents the dense packing of phospholipids
Cholesterol is able to integrate into the lipid bilayer d) Because it has an amphipathic organization, similar to that of a lipid membrane
What is cholesterol?Cholesterol is fat produced by the body, and also comes from animal foods. Cholesterol helps the body produce vitamin D, a number of hormones, and bile acids to digest fat. In the blood, cholesterol is carried by protein. The combination of the two is called a lipoprotein.
Cholesterol can integrate into the lipid bilayer because it has an amphipathic organization, which is similar to that of a lipid membrane. If the level of cholesterol in the blood exceeds normal levels, this condition is known as hypercholesterolemia or high cholesterol.
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Which part of the dna molecule codes for information that is translated into proteins?
Answer:
Gene
Explanation:
Please find the attachment for detail
Using blood doping to artificially increase the number of blood cells in an athlete might lead to long term shortage of rec blood cells because
Answer:
Homeostasis could be disruped in the athlete.
Explanation:
Since you are changing the blood cells amount it is un naturual to the body for the athlete. It is going against the Homeostasis with this artificial type of work. That is no bueno. (no good)
Breaking down food for nutrients involves many body systems . A student made a partial list of the process
Digestion is vital for breaking down food into nutrients
Describe breaking down food for nutrients in body systems.Digestion is required for breaking down food into nutrients, which the body uses for energy, growth, and cell restoration, which the body uses for energy, nutrient development, and cell mend. Food and drink nutrients must be swapped into smaller molecules of nutrients before the blood absorbs them and convey them to cells throughout the body.
Overview of the digestive system—how food moves between each part of the GI tract to help break down food for energy, growth, and cell restoration. Food is broken down by the digestive system's nutrients to give energy to every cell nutrient in the body. The digestive tract begins at the mouth and ends
So we can conclude that Along the way, food is broken down into tiny particles so that the body can absorb the nutrients it needs.
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What is the function of the messenger RNA during the process of gene expression?
The function of messenger RNA (mRNA) during the process of gene expression is to carry the genetic information from the DNA to the ribosome, where it is translated into a protein.
Gene expression is the process by which genetic information is converted into a functional product, such as a protein. The process of gene expression consists of two main steps: transcription and translation. In transcription, the information stored in the DNA molecule is used to synthesize a complementary RNA molecule. The RNA molecule that is synthesized is called messenger RNA (mRNA).
The mRNA carries the genetic information that is encoded in the DNA to the ribosome, which is the site of protein synthesis. The mRNA is read by the ribosome in a sequence of three nucleotides, called codons. Each codon corresponds to a specific amino acid, the building blocks of proteins. As the ribosome reads the mRNA, it brings together the appropriate transfer RNAs (tRNA) and their corresponding amino acids, forming a peptide bond between them. This process continues until the ribosome reaches a stop codon and the protein is complete.
The mRNA plays a critical role in the process of gene expression because it is the intermediary between the DNA and the protein. It allows the genetic information stored in the DNA to be used to synthesize a functional protein. The mRNA is also subject to various post-transcriptional modifications that can change its stability, translation efficiency, and localization.In summary, the function of messenger RNA (mRNA) during the process of gene expression is to carry the genetic information from the DNA to the ribosome, where it is translated into a functional protein.
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cells reproduce by a cycle of growing and dividing called the
Answer:
Cell cycle
Explanation:
The cell cycle is the name we give the process through which cells replicate and make two new cells.
does anyone know the answer?!
The bases or letters that make up a virus's genome are arranged in a certain order according to its genome sequence. The genome of a specific coronavirus has a sequence that would consist of around 30,000 letters if you were to write it down.
What Is Virus Genome Sequencing?DNA constitutes genomes. Your genome is duplicated and stored inside each of your cells. It's similar to a guidebook or cookbook, if that makes sense. All the "recipes" or instructions your body needs to function and appear the way it does are contained in the genome.There are 3 billion DNA bases total, of four different kinds, that make up the human genome. Four "letters" in the DNA "alphabet" can be used to represent each base. Your DNA is largely going to be identical to everyone else's.However, millions of genes across your genome have thousands of minor variations in how those letters are spelled or ordered, which helps to partially explain why you are unique.Viral genomes also exist. Both DNA and the related chemical RNA can be used to create the genome of a virus. The genome of a virus is very little compared to your genome. An RNA genome of a coronavirus, such as the one that causes COVID-19, is roughly 30,000 letters long, which is 100,000 times shorter than the human genome. Even shorter—roughly 13,500 RNA letters—is the genome of the influenza or flu virus.To Learn more About virus's genome refer To:
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biol 3010 exam what are some major conclusions from studies of the drosophila even skipped (eve) cis regulatory region, using transgenic reporters and mutant lines?
Studies of the Drosophila even skipped (eve) cis regulatory region, using transgenic reporters and mutant lines, have led to several major conclusions about the regulation of gene expression during development.
One of the major conclusions from these studies is that the eve cis regulatory region contains several cis-regulatory elements, or enhancer elements, that control the spatial and temporal expression of the eve gene. These enhancer elements interact with various transcription factors, which bind to the cis-regulatory elements and control the expression of the gene.
Another conclusion is that the eve cis-regulatory region is under the control of a complex network of transcription factors, which act together to regulate the expression of the eve gene. This network is composed of several different types of transcription factors, each of which plays a specific role in regulating the expression of the gene.
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what do we call specific sequences of genetic material that code for a trait?
Specific sequences of genetic material that code for a trait are called genes.
A gene is a segment of DNA that contains the instructions for the synthesis of a specific protein or RNA molecule, which in turn determines the physical or functional characteristics of an organism.
Genes are made up of nucleotides, which are the building blocks of DNA, and they are arranged in a specific order that provides the code or blueprint for the production of a specific protein.
These proteins play a vital role in the development of traits, and the variations of these sequences of nucleotides are what makes each individual unique. The Human genome has around 20,000-25,000 protein-coding genes.
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the discovery of cells with the aid of a microscope led to the
The cell theory is a fundamental scientific theory that states that all living organisms are composed of one or more cells, the cell is the basic unit of life, and all cells come from pre-existing cells through the process of cell division.
The discovery of cells with the aid of the microscope in the 17th century by Robert Hooke, Anton van Leeuwenhoek, and other scientists led to the development of the cell theory. The microscope allowed scientists to observe the structure and function of cells, and to study the diversity of life at a cellular level.
This led to the realization that all living organisms are made up of cells, and that cells are the building blocks of life. The cell theory has been widely accepted and has been the foundation of modern biology, and it is considered one of the most important scientific discoveries in history.
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Sarah experiences abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting. Her doctor tells her that she has hepatitis B, an infectious disease that affects the liver. Hepatitis B, caused by the hepatitis B virus. After a couple of weeks, Sarah's illness goes away. Explain how Sarah's third line of defense successfully fought the hepatitis B virus. Words to include: white blood cells; antigen; pathogen; hepatitis B virus; antibodies
When Sarah's body was exposed to the hepatitis B virus, her third line of defense was activated.
Explain how Sarah's third line of defense successfully fought the hepatitis B virus?White blood cells called lymphocytes identified the virus as an antigen, or a pathogen, that the body did not recognize. The lymphocytes then produced special proteins called antibodies that attacked the hepatitis B virus. The antibodies successfully destroyed the virus and Sarah's illness went away.Sarah's third line of defense successfully fought the hepatitis B virus by mounting an immune response directed at the pathogen. When the virus was detected by Sarah's body, white blood cells were activated to produce antigen-specific antibodies to fight the hepatitis B virus.The antibodies bind to the antigen, which is a unique protein or carbohydrate found on the virus, and mark it for destruction by the immune system. The antibodies also activate other white blood cells, such as macrophages and B cells, to help destroy the virus.The antibodies can also neutralize the virus, preventing it from replicating further. As a result of this process, the virus was successfully eliminated from Sarah's body and her symptoms disappeared.To learn more about White blood cells called lymphocytes refer to:
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T/F In humans, fruit flies, and many other organisms, most of the genes on the X chromosome are not found on the Y chromosome.
True. In humans, fruit flies, and many other organisms, most of the genes on the X chromosome are not found on the Y chromosome.
One chromosome from each parent makes up each of the 23 pairs of chromosomes that make up the human genome (22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes). The X and Y chromosomes, also called the sex chromosomes, are what determine a person's biological sex. Females get an X chromosome from the father, giving them a XX genotype, while men acquire a Y chromosome, giving them an XY genotype (mothers only pass on X chromosomes). The Y chromosome is essential for the development of the male reproductive system because it includes the genes required to overcome the biological default, female development, and cause it instead.
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Which of the following is the site for attachment of amino acid in tRNA molecule Mcq?
3’ end is the site for attachment of amino acid in tRNA molecule
The amino acid binding site is known as the CCA site because it produces an aminoacyl-tRNA when an amino acid is attached to the 3'adenosine. At the 3' end of the tRNA molecule, in the opposite direction from the anticodon, is a three-nucleotide acceptor site that contains a free -OH group.
The Tetrahymena self-splicing ribosomal precursor RNA contains an intron with a distinct, reversible binding site for a free amino acid.
The second tRNA binding site in the ribosome is called the P-site (for peptidyl). The A-site (aminoacyl), which is the ribosome's first binding site, and the E-site (exit), which is the third, are the other two sites. The tRNA that is connected to the lengthening polypeptide chain is held in the P-site during protein translation.
Complete question:
Which of the following is the site for attachment of amino acid in tRNA molecule
A. Anticodon
B. DHU arm
C. 3’ end
D. 5’ end
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Fossil Record
The fossil record provides a glimpse into the evolution of life on Earth. It shows that there have been remarkable changes in the kinds of organisms that have been abundant at different times during the past 3.5 billion years.
Part A - The history of life according to the fossil record
Classify each event in the history of life into the appropriate eon or era.
Drag each phrase to the appropriate bin.
O The figure below shows the geologic record as well as some important events in the history of life.
Based on the idea that certain radioactive isotopes decay at a consistent rate, radiometric dating is a method for estimating the age of fossils.
Which of the following techniques would provide the most accurate assessment of a fossil's age?The right answer is a, measuring the radioisotope decay in the fossil. By monitoring the radioactive decay of the rock where the fossils are found, the precise age of the fossils may be estimated.
What ancient techniques were employed to estimate the age of the earth?Radiation Measurement is one of the three main techniques. Superposition in the strata. This fossil record.
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feedback loop depicting the role of oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes is called
When oncogenes expand because of proto-oncogene mutation, a high quality remarks loop occurs. Oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes play numerous roles in most cancers.
Oncogenes are created with the aid of using the activation of proto-oncogenes, while genes that inhibit the tumor expand most cancers whilst they're now no longer activated, that is a sizable difference among them and oncogenes. Some malignancies in households had been recognized to have genetic abnormalities or gene mutations. Oncogenes and tumour suppressor genes are the 2 number one classes of genes that have an effect on most cancers. Oncogenes: Genes referred to as proto-oncogenes commonly resource in mobileular growth. an anti-oncogene, additionally referred to as a tumour suppressor, is a gene that regulates mobileular department and reproduction. Cancer will expand if the mobileular maintains to develop unchecked. A plant's characteristic is misplaced or decreased whilst the compression element of the plant is changed.
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A science student claims that a substitution mutation is less likely to affect gene function than an insertion or deletion mutation. Use logical reasoning and evaluate this claim.
Insertions and deletions usually do more harm than replacements that change only one amino acid because they generate a frameshift that alters the interpretation of codons after them.
What is frame-shift mutation?The disruption of a DNA sequence's triplet reading frame due to an insertion or deletion involving base pairs that are not multiples of three.
This only affects one amino acid, since they create a frame-shift that alters the reading of succeeding codons and, consequently, changes the entire amino acid sequence that follows the mutation.
Therefore, insertions and deletions typically do more damage than substitutions.
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What types of data can be collected in an experiment biology?
An experiment can collect various types of data. Typically, we try to design experiments that collect objective, quantitative data. Objective data is factual, measurable, and observable.
What is experiment?Experimental biology is a set of approaches in biology concerned with the conduct of experiments in order to investigate and comprehend biological phenomena. The term contrasts with theoretical biology, which is concerned with mathematical modeling and abstractions of biological systems. An experiment is a scientific investigation in which a hypothesis is tested. An experiment involves manipulating an independent variable (the cause) and measuring the dependent variable (the effect); any extraneous variables are controlled. The fact that experiments should be objective is an advantage.
Here,
In an experiment, different types of data can be collected. We typically attempt to design experiments that collect objective, quantitative data. Objective data is factual, quantifiable, and observable.
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a producer must be in the presence of light to make which of the following through light reactions.
a sugars
b oxygen
c h20
d co2
Answer:
Through the light reactions of photosynthesis, a producer must be in the presence of light to make oxygen (O2), as well as NADPH and ATP, which are energy-carrying molecules. The light reactions also require water (H2O) and carbon dioxide (CO2) as the reactants. The light reactions produce oxygen (O2), as well as NADPH and ATP, which are used in the Calvin Cycle to produce sugars.
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Which of the following enzymes use RNA as a template to make a DNA strand?
Reverse transcriptase (RT) is an enzyme found in some viruses, such as HIV, that has the unique ability to reverse the standard transcription process and create a single-stranded DNA copy of an RNA template.
This process, known as reverse transcription, allows the virus to replicate by incorporating its genetic material into the host cell's genome. In addition to its role in viral replication, RT is also used in molecular biology laboratories to produce cDNA from mRNA for gene expression analysis.
RT is a valuable tool for the study of gene regulation and the structure and function of RNA molecules.
Complete Question:
Which one of the following makes use of RNA as a template to synthesize DNA?
A. Reverse transcriptase
B. DNA dependant RNA polymerase
C. DNA polymerase
D. RNA polymerase
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Which sentence correctly describes an ocean wave?
OA. The distance between two successive wave troughs is the fetch.
OB. The top of a wave is the amplitude, and the bottom is the base.
C. The top of a wave is the crest, and the bottom is the trough.
OD. The height of a wave is half the distance between its top and
bottom.
The wavelength is the distance horizontally between two consecutive crests or troughs.
What is wavelength?A wave's crest and trough are the two highest and lowest surface portions, respectively. The height of a wave is the vertical distance between its crest and trough. The wavelength is the distance horizontally between two consecutive crests or troughs.Wind speed, wind duration, or how long the wind blows, and fetch, or the length of time the wind blows in a single direction over the ocean, all have an impact on wave height. Small waves only occur in slow-moving winds. No significant waves will form if the wind is blowing strongly for a brief period of time. Additionally, no significant waves develop when powerful winds blow across a short distance yet for a long duration.Large waves can only be created when all three conditions are present (Duxbury, et al, 2002.)To Learn more About wavelength refer To:
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how are ion channels and ion pumps different? how are ion channels and ion pumps different? there are many types of ion channels, and only one type of ion pump ion channels are proteins and ion pumps are not ion channels allow ions to passively diffuse across the cell membrane through their pores (when open) and ion pumps require energy (atp) to actively transport ions across the cell membrane ion channels are always open and allow ions to constantly flow and ion pumps require energy (atp) to open
Answer:
Ion channels and ion pumps are different in several ways. Ion channels are proteins that allow ions to passively diffuse across the cell membrane through their pores when open. Ion pumps, on the other hand, require energy (ATP) to actively transport ions across the cell membrane, and they can be in either an open or closed state. Ion channels are always open and allow ions to constantly flow, while ion pumps require energy (ATP) to open, allowing ions to flow only when the pump is open. Additionally, there are many types of ion channels, but only one type of ion pump.
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measurement of urine osmolality is a more accurate measure of renal concentrating ability than specific gravity because:
The ability of the kidneys to concentrate or dilute urine can be assessed using the ratio of urine osmolality (Uosm) to plasma osmolality (Posm). The kidneys can concentrate urine if the Uosm:Posm ratio is larger than 1.
Urinary specific gravity measurements can be invalidated by large molecules such glucose proteins and foreign compounds like dyes, carbenicillin, methanol, ethanol, isopropyl alcohol, acetone, and ethylene glycol. As a result, urine osmolality rather than specific gravity provides a more precise estimation of urine concentration.
The specific gravity and osmolality of the six substances under study, as well as their mixtures, were found to be linearly correlated. The urine samples taken from patients with various clinical circumstances showed that relying on specific gravity could cause the urine osmolality to be overestimated or underestimated.
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Given observations of a family, identify the best-supported conclusion about genetic versus environmental trait determination.
A. A child develops early-onset cataracts that the maternal grandmother also developed, and O both individuals were delivered in the same hospital. Conclusion: environmental factors caused the cataracts B. Non-identical siblings with intact hearing are the biological offspring of parents who are deaf. Conclusion: environmental factors caused deafness in the parents Identical twins separated at birth and raised in different parts of the country both have a O severe form of asthma that neither biological parent has. Conclusion: genetic factors caused the asthma C. Identical twins raised by their biological parents both have a specific congenital heart O defect that neither parent has. Conclusion: environmental factors caused the congenital heart defects D. Among non-identical siblings, one sibling was prenatally exposed to a known teratogen and born with birth defects. Conclusion: genetic factors caused the birth defects
The correct answer will be The severe kind of asthma that none of their biological parents had is shared by identical twins who split apart at birth and were raised in different regions of the country. Conclusion: Asthma was brought on by hereditary reasons.
Environmental conditions are external factors such as carcinogens or teratogens which when inserted into the body cause certain diseases. Genetic factors, on the other hand, arise from mutations in the DNA which may happen during the development of the child. In this case, although both parents did not have severe asthma, the identical twins still carry the disease even though present in different locations of the world. This shows that the cause is purely genetic and the environment has no role in the manifestation of the symtpoms.
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Which of these best completes this concept map?
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Which of the following processes is not a type of RNA processing carried out by eukaryotes?
A.
Splicing and removal of introns
B.
Polyadenylation of the 3' end
C.
Nucleotide excision repair
D.
Capping of the 5' end
Nucleotide excision repair is not a type of RNA processing carried out by eukaryotes.
Mammals primarily use nucleotide excision repair (NER) to eliminate large DNA lesions from DNA, such as those caused by UV light, environmental mutagens, and some cancer chemotherapy adducts. The very skin cancer-prone hereditary condition xeroderma pigmentosum is linked to NER deficiency.
The four major processes of NER are: (1) recognising the DNA damage; (2) cutting on both sides of the DNA lesion and removing the damaged DNA fragment; (3) gap-filling DNA synthesis; and (4) ligating the open ends of the DNA.
A section of damaged DNA is cut out or "excisioned" in excision-repair pathways, and the resulting gap is filled up by DNA replication using the intact DNA as a template. Several teams identified crucial components of the NER pathway in mammalian cells and microbes in the 1960s.
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Which of the following events does not occur during prophase I of meiosis?
a) Spindle fibers form.
b) Homologous pairs of chromosomes align at the metaphase plate.
c) Homologues come very close together.
d) Crossing over occurs between sister chromatids.
e) Chromosomes condense.
During s phase I of meiosis, none of the following activities result in homologous chromosome pairs aligning at the metaphase plate.
Homologous chromosomes link up and create synapses during prophase I, a process that only occurs during meiosis. The connected to various are known as bivalents, and it is now clear that genetic recombination is what causes chiasmata to occur. These can be seen under a microscope thanks to chromosomal condensation. Recombination does not take place during the s phase of mitosis. Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene, Diplotene, and Diakinesis are the five phases that make up Prophase 1, the first stage of Meiosis. Leptotene, zygotene, changes in the quantity, diplotene, & diakinesis are the five sub-stages of prophase I, the initial stage of the first meiotic (meiosis I), which is crucial for the process of homologous recombination, which entails the exchange of DNA among homologous chromosomes. Five distinct phases make up meiotic prophase I.
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explain the differences observed between transport of molecules through ion channels vs. by protein-mediated facilitated diffusion, especially in terms of how the concentration gradient affects transport rate.
The main difference between these two mechanisms is that ion channels are passive, meaning that they do not require energy to open or close.
Protein-mediated facilitated diffusion, on the other hand, requires energy in the form of ATP to maintain the protein's conformation and allow for transport. Additionally, Ion channels are highly selective for specific ions and are not affected by the size and shape of the molecules, whereas facilitated diffusion is not selective and can transport any type of small molecules.
In summary, transport of molecules through ion channels and protein-mediated facilitated diffusion are two different mechanisms by which molecules can cross the cell membrane. The rate of transport for both mechanisms is determined by the concentration gradient of the molecules, with a higher concentration resulting in a higher rate of transport. The main difference between the two is that ion channels are passive and selective, while protein-mediated facilitated diffusion is active and not selective.
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congestive heart failure (chf) is an inability of the heart to pump sufficient blood to the body. one sign of chf is excess fluid in the tissue spaces, known as edema. describe the location of the edema if the left side of the heart fails.
One sign of Congestive heart failure (chf) is excess fluid in the tissue spaces, known as edema. Lungs is the location of the edema if the left side of the heart fails.
Congestive heart failure is a clinical condition that occurs when the heart fails to provide sufficient blood flow to meet metabolic needs. Heart failure usually affects the left or right side of the heart. The most common clinical manifestations of congestive heart failure are shortness of breath, fatigue, and edema, which can occur in the legs, ankles, feet, abdomen, and lungs.
Heart failure causes people to develop symptoms such as dyspnea (shortness of breath), pulmonary edema (fluid in the lungs), peripheral edema (swelling of the legs, ankles, and feet), and ascites (fluid accumulation in the abdomen). For venous return disorders. CHF can be further divided into left-sided heart failure and right-sided heart failure. Fluid accumulates in the tissues and spaces of the lungs, called pulmonary edema, and causes the primary clinical manifestation of dyspnea.
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Who was the geneticist that is responsible for the application of dna science to forensics?
Sir Alec John Jeffreys, (born on nine January 1950) is a British geneticist recognized for growing strategies for genetic fingerprinting and DNA profiling.
These techniques are now used international in forensic technology to help police detective paintings and to solve paternity and immigration disputes. He changed into one of the first to find out inherited version in human DNA, then went directly to invent DNA fingerprinting, displaying how it is able to be used to solve troubles of identification and developing the sector of forensic DNA. Alec John Jeffreys created a technique referred to as DNA fingerprinting withinside the UK in the course of the 20th century. For DNA fingerprinting, technicians perceive someone because the supply of a organic pattern via way of means of evaluating the genetic data contained withinside the person's DNA to the DNA contained withinside the pattern.
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how is the female reproductive system of a frog different from a human?
Humans are internally fertilised while frogs are externally fertilised. Frogs produce a lot of ova (spawn), whereas humans do not.
There is sexual dimorphism in frogs. A pair of testicles, vasa efferentia, urinogenital ducts, and the cloaca make up the male reproductive system. Ovaries and oviducts make up the female reproductive system. The male and female frogs temporarily unite during the breeding season in a process known as amplexus. There are two ovaries and oviducts in the female reproductive system.Humans are internally fertilised while frogs are externally fertilised. Frogs produce a lot of ova (spawn), whereas humans do not. The ovary is where female gametes are made. They are subsequently transported with the aid of oviducts and expelled outside the cloaca aperture. At the time of reproduction, the male and female frogs enter a mating open and inclusive as amplexus.
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