write any two physical hazard occuring in the late choldhood​

Answer:

v = 6.28 m/s

Explanation:

It is given that,

A windmill on a farm rotates at a constant speed and completes one-half of a rotation in 0.5 seconds,

Number of revolution is half. It means angular velocity is 3.14 radians.

Let v is the angular speed. So,

[tex]v=\dfrac{\omega}{t}\\\\v=\dfrac{3.14}{0.5}\\\\v=6.28\ m/s[/tex]

So, the rotation speed is 6.28 m/s.

The angular velocity is the rotation speed, which is the angle of rotation

of the windmill per second, which is 2·π radians.

Response:

The given parameter are;

The angle of rotation the windmill rotates in 0.5 seconds = One-half a

rotation.

Required:

The rotational speed (angular velocity)

Solution:

The angle of one rotation = 2·π radians

Angle of one-half ration = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] × 2·π radians = π radians

[tex]Rotational \ speed = \mathbf{\dfrac{Angle \ of \ rotation}{Time}}[/tex]

Which gives;

[tex]Rotational \ speed, \omega = \dfrac{\pi}{0.5 \ s} = \mathbf{2 \cdot \pi \ rad/s}[/tex]

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Answer:

The question is not complete, here is the other part.

Assume that n = 1.36.

Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units.

λ = 707.2nm

Explanation:

n = 1.36

t = 130

2 n t= (m+1/2) λ

To solve for λ.

λ = 2 n t ÷ m+1/2

λ = 2 × 1.36 × 130 ÷ m +1/2

λ =

If m= 0

λ= 353.6 ÷ 0+ 1/2

λ = 353.6 × 2

= 707.2nm

Answer and Explanation:

The computation of the object distance related to two quantities is shown below:

It could find out by using the lens formula which is shown below:

[tex]\frac{1}{v} - \frac{1}{u} = \frac{1}{f}[/tex]

where,

v = image distance

u = object distance

f = focal length

It could be found by applying the above formula i.e considering the image distance, object distance and the focal length

Explanation:

According to Thermal Expansion of solids:

[tex]dl = \alpha \times l \times dt[/tex]

[tex]dl = {10}^{ - 5} \times 18 \times 40 [/tex]

[tex]dl = 7.2 \times {10}^{ - 3} [/tex]

Answer:

a) 91 m/s

b) 111 m/s

Explanation:

v = u + at

v = 128sin60 + (-9.8)(2.0) = 91.25125... m/s

v = √(vx² + vy²) = √((128cos60)² + 91.25125²) = 111.4575... m/s

Explanation:

It took 7.5 ms or [tex]7.5×10^{-3}\:\text{s}[/tex] for the laser beam to reach the planet's surface. Since the speed of light is [tex]3×10^8\:\text{m/s}[/tex], the distance is

[tex]d = vt = (3×10^8\:\text{m/s})(7.5×10^{-3}\:\text{s})[/tex]

[tex]\:\:\:\:=2.25×10^{6}\:\text{m}[/tex]

Answer:

40g

Explanation:

20g range > 1.0cm

Therefore,

40g range > 2.0cm

Answer:

A.5.7 x 10^-12m/s²

B. 32.5V/m

C. Pls. See attached file for explanations

Explanation:

Answer:

(B) a whole number of wavelengths.

Explanation:

Two beams of coherent light start out at the same point in phase and travel different paths to arrive at point P. If the maximum destructive interference is to occur at point P, the two beams must travel paths that differ by a whole number of wavelengths.

When the resultant effect of the combination of two identical waves result in their annihilation or complete cancellation of the effect of each other, destructive interference takes place. Hence to have two wave sources producing waves that have the same frequency wavelength and amplitude and which are always in phase with each other or have a constant phase difference are said to be Coherent source

Answer:

c. 1.11 m/s down

Explanation:

Momentum is conserved.

m₁u₁ + m₂u₂ = m₁v₁ + m₂v₂

Assuming the balloon and projectile are originally at rest:

(90 kg) (0 m/s) + (10 kg) (0 m/s) = (90 kg) v + (10 kg) (10 m/s)

0 kg m/s = (90 kg) v + 100 kg m/s

v = -1.11 m/s

Answer:

attached below is the free body diagram of the missing  illustration

Initial kinetic energy of the electron = 3 eV

Explanation:

The conclusion that can be drawn about the kinetic energy of the electron is

[tex]E_{e} = E_{3} - E_{1}[/tex]

E[tex]_{e}[/tex] = initial kinetic energy of the electron

E[tex]_{1}[/tex] = -4 eV

E[tex]_{3}[/tex] = -1 eV

insert the values into the equation above

[tex]E_{e}[/tex] = -1 -(-4)  eV

   = -1 + 4 = 3 eV

Answer:

A. Ef/ Ei = 1/2

B. EF/ Ei = 1

C Ef / Ei = 4

Explanation:

To solve this we apply Coulomb's law which States that

E = Kq / r^2

Where

q = charge r = straight line distance from q to the point in question and

K = Coulomb's constant

Then

Ei = K Q / r^2

So

A) If Q is halved then

Ef = K Q / (2 r^2)

Ef/Ei = 1/2

B) If R is halved, the value of the E-f

at a distance r remains unchanged. So

Ef/Ei = 1

C) if r is now r/2 then

Ef = K Q / (r/2)^2 = K Q / r^2/4 = 4 K Q / r^2

Ef / Ei = 4

Answer:

The width is [tex]w_c = 0.00252 \ m[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

  The  width of the single slit is  [tex]a = 1.5 \ mm = 1.5 *10^{-3} \ m[/tex]

   The  wavelength is  [tex]\lambda = 420 *10^{-9} \ m[/tex]

   The distance of the screen is  [tex]D = 4.5 \ m[/tex]

Generally the width of the central maximum is  

        [tex]w_c = 2 * y[/tex]

where y is the width of the first maxima which is mathematically represented as

       [tex]y = \frac{\lambda * D}{a}[/tex]

=>   [tex]y = \frac{ 420 *10^{-9} * 4.5}{ 1.5*10^{-3}}[/tex]

=>  [tex]y = 0.00126 \ m[/tex]

So

    [tex]w_c = 2 *0.00126[/tex]

    [tex]w_c = 0.00252 \ m[/tex]

Answer:

The torque on the wrench is 4.188 Nm

Explanation:

Let r = xi + yj where is the distance of the applied force to the origin.

Since x = 18 cm = 0.18 cm and y = 5.5 cm = 0.055 cm,

r = 0.18i + 0.055j

The applied force f = 88i - 23j

The torque τ = r × F

So, τ = r × F = (0.18i + 0.055j) × (88i - 23j) = 0.18i × 88i + 0.18i × -23j + 0.055j × 88i + 0.055j × -23j

= (0.18 × 88)i × i + (0.18 × -23)i × j + (0.055 × 88)j × i + (0.055 × -22)j × j  

= (0.18 × 88) × 0 + (0.18 × -23) × k + (0.055 × 88) × (-k) + (0.055 × -22) × 0   since i × i = 0, j × j = 0, i × j = k and j × i = -k

= 0 - 4.14k + 0.0484(-k) + 0

= -4.14k - 0.0484k

= -4.1884k Nm

≅ -4.188k Nm

So, the torque on the wrench is 4.188 Nm

Answer:

21.8°

Explanation:

Let's call θ the angle between BC and the horizontal.

Draw a free body diagram for each block.

There are 4 forces acting on block D:

Weight force P pulling down,

Normal force N₁ pushing perpendicular to AB,

Friction force N₁μ pushing parallel up AB,

and tension force T pushing parallel up AB.

There are 4 forces acting on block E:

Weight force P pulling down,

Normal force N₂ pushing perpendicular to BC,

Friction force N₂μ pushing parallel to BC,

and tension force T pulling parallel to BC.

Sum of forces on D in the perpendicular direction:

∑F = ma

N₁ − P sin θ = 0

N₁ = P sin θ

Sum of forces on D in the parallel direction:

∑F = ma

T + N₁μ − P cos θ = 0

T = P cos θ − N₁μ

T = P cos θ − P sin θ μ

T = P (cos θ − sin θ μ)

Sum of forces on E in the perpendicular direction:

∑F = ma

N₂ − P cos θ = 0

N₂ = P cos θ

Sum of forces on E in the parallel direction:

∑F = ma

N₂μ + P sin θ − T = 0

T = N₂μ + P sin θ

T = P cos θ μ + P sin θ

T = P (cos θ μ + sin θ)

Set equal:

P (cos θ − sin θ μ) = P (cos θ μ + sin θ)

cos θ − sin θ μ = cos θ μ + sin θ

1 − tan θ μ = μ + tan θ

1 − μ = tan θ μ + tan θ

1 − μ = tan θ (μ + 1)

tan θ = (1 − μ) / (1 + μ)

Plug in values:

tan θ = (1 − 0.4) / (1 + 0.4)

θ = 23.2°

∠BCA = 45°, so the angle of AC relative to the horizontal is 45° − 23.2° = 21.8°.

Yeah

All they are all correct

Answer: The properties of magnets are used to make electricity. Moving magnetic fields pull and push electrons. Moving a magnet around a coil of wire, or moving a coil of wire around a magnet, pushes the electrons in the wire and creates an electrical current.

Answer:

c. because the rod polarizes the metal.

Explanation:

Bringing the negatively charged rod close to the neutral metal ball causes the neutral metal ball to be polarized with induced positive charge on it. The polarizing of the formally neutral metal ball is due to the negative charge on the metal rod (bodies induce a charge opposite of their own charge on a nearby neutral body). The ball and rod then attract themselves because bodies with opposite charges attract each other, unlike bodies with same charges that repel each other.

Answer:

The direction of net magnetic force on the circular section of the loop is in the positive y-axis

The net magnetic force on the circular section of the loop is 3.74 N

Explanation:

The magnetic field strength [tex]B[/tex] = 1.7 T

the current [tex]I[/tex] = 0.7 A

The diameter of the loop = 2 m

the length of the circular section of the semi-circular loop [tex]l[/tex] = πd/2

==> [tex]l[/tex] = (3.142 x 2)/2 = 3.142 m

The force on the semi-circular is given as

F = [tex]BIl[/tex] sin ∅

but the loop is perpendicular to the field, therefore

sin ∅ = sin 90° = 1

F = 1.7 x 0.7 x 3.142 x 1 = 3.74 N

The right hand rule states that "if the fingers of the right hand are held parallel to each other in the direction of the magnetic field, and the thumb is held at right angle to the other fingers in the direction of the flow of current. The palm will push in the direction of the magnetic force on the conductor".

According to the right hand rule, the direction of net magnetic force on the circular section of the loop is in the positive y-axis

Answer:

Around the center of the mirror

Answer:

λ = 6.61 x 10⁻⁷ m = 661 nm

Explanation:

From the Young's Double Slit experiment, the the spacing between adjacent bright or dark fringes is given by the following formula:

Δx = λL/d

where,

Δx = fringe spacing = 2.86 mm = 2.86 x ⁻³ m

L = Distance between slits and screen = 2.12 m

d = slit separation = 0.49 mm = 0.49 x 10⁻³ m

λ = wavelength of light = ?

Therefore,

2.86 x 10⁻³ m = λ(2.12 m)/(0.49 x 10⁻³ m)

(2.86 x 10⁻³ m)(0.49 x 10⁻³ m)/(2.12 m) = λ

λ = 6.61 x 10⁻⁷ m = 661 nm

Answer:

The magnetic field at the center of the solenoid is 2.1  × 10⁻³ T

Explanation:

The magnetic field B at the center of the solenoid is given by

B = μ₀ni where μ₀ = permeability of free space = 4π × 10⁻⁷H/m, n = number of turns per unit length of the solenoid = 1100 turns per meter and i = current in the solenoid = 1.5 A.

So B = μ₀ni

= 4π × 10⁻⁷H/m × 1100 × 1.5 A

= 4π × 10⁻⁷H/m × 1650 A-turns/m

= 20734.5 × 10⁻⁷T  

= 2.07345 × 10⁻³ T

≅ 2.1  × 10⁻³ T

So the magnetic field at the center of the solenoid is 2.1  × 10⁻³ T

Answer:

As opposed to n-type semiconductors, p-type semiconductors have a larger hole concentration than electron concentration.

Explanation:

In p-type semiconductors, holes are the majority carriers and electrons are the minority carriers. A common p-type dopant for silicon is boron or gallium. hope this you :)

Answer:

Here are notes I took on semiconductor conductivity :

________________________________________________________
-A p-type semiconductor is made of a material in which electrical conduction is due to the movement of a positive charge.

-Examples of p-type dopants - boron, aluminum, gallium, indium, and thallium

Explanation:

In this case, indium only correct option being a dopant of a P-type semiconductor. Other options are N-type dopants.

Hopefully its correct !! <3

Answer:

the pressure after contraction is 2×10^5 Pa

the speed after contraction is 15m/s

Explanation:

We were given Pressure P to be 3.5 x 10^5 that is Flowing with speed of 5.0 m/s,

For us to calculate pressure we need to calculate the area first as;

Let initial Area = A₁

And Final area A₂

We were told that in a horizontal pipe it contracts to 1/3 its former area. Which means

A₂= A₁/3.................

V₁ is the speed

the pressure and speed of the water after the contraction can be calculated using equation of continuity below

A₂V₂ = A₁V₁

But

If we substitute given value in the expresion we have

V₂ = (3A *5)/A

V₂ = 15m/s

Therefore, the speed after contraction is 15m/s

Now we can calculate the pressure using

Bernoulli's equation

p₁ + ½ρv₁² + ρgh₁ = p₂ + ½ρv₂² + ρgh₂

But we know that the pipe is horizontal, then "h" terms cancel out then

p₁ + ½ρv₁² = p₂ + ½ρv₂²

Making P₂ subject of formula we have

p₂ = 0.5ρ( V ₁² - v₂² ) + P₁

P₂=. 0.5 × 1000 (5² -15² ) + 3*10^5

=2×10^5 Pa

Therefore, the pressure after contraction is 2×10^5 Pa

(a)  the final speed of the water after contraction is 15 m/s.

(b) The final pressure of the water after contraction is 2.5 x 10⁵ Pa.

The given parameters;

Let the initial area of the pipe = A₁

Apply the continuity equation to determine the final speed of the water after contraction as follows;

[tex]A_1 V_1 = A_2 V_2\\\\V_2 = \frac{A_1V_1}{A_2} \\\\V_2 = \frac{A_1 \times 5}{\frac{1}{3} A_1 } \\\\V_2 = 15 \ m/s[/tex]

The final pressure of the water after contraction is determined by applying Bernoulli's equation for horizontal pipe;

[tex]P_1 + \frac{1}{2} \rho V_1^2= P_2 + \frac{1}{2} \rho V_2^2\\\\P_2 = \frac{1}{2} \rho (V_1^2 - V_2^2) + P_1\\\\P_2 = \frac{1}{2} \times 1000(5^2 - 15^2) + 3.5 \times 10^5\\\\P_2 = 2.5 \times 10^5 \ Pa[/tex]

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Answer:

The magnetic field produced by an electric current is always oriented perpendicular to the direction of the current flow. And.Direction of magnetic field is governed by the 'right hand thumb rule, The right hand rule states that: to determine the direction of the magnetic force on a positive moving charge, ƒ, point the thumb of the right hand in the direction of v, the fingers in the direction of B, and a perpendicular to the palm points in the direction of Force . Similar to the situation with electric field lines, the greater the number of lines (or the closer they are together) in an area the stronger the magnetic field.

Answer:

The probability that Susan turns 85 years old is 45,436/97,825= 0.4644.

Explanation:

Edmentum

Answer:

45,436/97,825= 0.4644.

Answer:

The speed of the rod is 2.169 m/s.

Explanation:

Given that,

Mass = 0.100 kg

Current = 15.0 A

Distance = 2 m

Length = 0.550 m

Kinetic friction = 0.120

(a). We need to calculate the magnetic field

Using relation of frictional force and magnetic force

[tex]F_{f}=F_{B}[/tex]

[tex]\mu mg=Bli[/tex]

[tex]B=\dfrac{\mu mg}{li}[/tex]

Where, l = length

i = current

m = mass

Put the value into the formula

[tex]B=\dfrac{0.120\times0.1\times9.8}{0.550\times15.0}[/tex]

[tex]B=0.01425\ T[/tex]

[tex]B=1.425\times10^{-2}\ T[/tex]

(b). If the friction between the rod and rail is reduced zero.

So, [tex]f_{f}=0[/tex]

We need to calculate the acceleration

Using formula of force

[tex]F_{net}=f_{f}+F_{B}[/tex]

[tex]F_{net}=0+Bil[/tex]

[tex]ma=Bil[/tex]

[tex]a=\dfrac{Bil}{m}[/tex]

Put the value into the formula

[tex]a=\dfrac{1.425\times10^{-2}\times15\times0.55}{0.1}[/tex]

[tex]a=1.176\ m/s^2[/tex]

We need to calculate the speed of the rod

Using equation of motion

[tex]v^2=u^2+2as[/tex]

Put the value into the formula

[tex]v^2=0+2\times1.176\times2[/tex]

[tex]v^2=\sqrt{4.704}\ m/s[/tex]

[tex]v=2.169\ m/s[/tex]

Hence, The speed of the rod is 2.169 m/s.

Answer:

Velocity of wave (V) = 5.2 × 10² m/s

Explanation:

Given:

Per unit length mass (U) = 4.80 × 10⁻³ kg/m

Tension (T)= 1,300 N

Find:

Velocity of wave (V)

Computation:

Velocity of wave (V) = √T / U

Velocity of wave (V) = √1300 / 4.80 × 10⁻³

Velocity of wave (V) = √ 270.84 × 10³

Velocity of wave (V) = 5.2 × 10² m/s

Answer:

λ = 428.6 nm

Explanation:

Hello,

In this case, we must remember that the Young's double slit experiment is described by the expression :

d sin θ = m λ

For constructive interference , and:

d sin θ = (m + ½) λ          

For destructive interference , whereas d accounts for the distance between the slits, λ for the wavelength and m for an integer that describes the order of interference . Thus, for the given angle 30º, the distance between the slits is 3.00 μm or 3.00 10⁻⁶ m and the order of interference is 3; we therefore use the destructive interference equation  to compute the wavelength as shown below:

λ = 3x10⁻⁶ sin (30) / (3 +1/2)

λ = 4.286 10⁻⁷ m

Or in manometers:

λ = 428.6 nm

Best regards.