You are giving CPR and the first rescue breath does not cause the chest to rise therefore the nurse should re-tilt the head to ensure that the airway is properly opened and ensure that the nose and mouth are properly sealed before giving the second rescue breath and is denoted as option D.
What is CPR?This is referred to as cardiopulmonary resuscitation and it is a life saving technique which helps to revive a person who has a heart attack or the heart has topped beating.
In a situation where the individual gives CPR and the first rescue breath does not cause the chest to rise then it is best to re-tilt the head to ensure that the airway is properly opened and ensure that the nose and mouth are properly sealed.
After which the second rescue breath should be given and if the chest rises, then it should be followed by compressions and is therefore the reason why it was chosen as the correct choice.
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an 8-year-old girl is rushed to the emergency department by her parents because she has become delirious. the child was diagnosed with influenza three days prior. her parents say that she had begun vomiting yesterday, almost nonstop, and has not been able to hold down fluids. they also note that she has been breathing rapidly. your exam reveals a tachypneic, disoriented female with hyperreflexia, a positive babinski reflex, and liver enlargement. csf analysis reveals a normal protein and cell count. what is the most likely diagnosis?
The most likely diagnosis is Reyes syndrome. Although its exact etiology is uncertain, Reye's syndrome most frequently affects children and young adults who are recuperating from a viral infection.
Reyes syndrome: how serious is it?Brain swelling & liver damage are symptoms of the extremely rare yet dangerous condition known as Reye syndrome. Every organ in the body may be impacted. Children and teenagers recuperating from viral infections are the group most likely to have the disease. Reye syndrome is unknown to have a specific cause.
Reye's syndrome is a condition that can be cured or not ?A generally healthy youngster will develop Reye's syndrome, which is a biphasic disorder. It begins with a prodromal febrile sickness that is most likely viral in origin, such as an upper respiratory infection, varicella, or possibly rotavirus. The young patient will recover for three to five days following the sickness' resolution.
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a nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who was admitted for a respiratory illness.the nurse is teaching about infection prevention precautions. the nurse asks the client about where the client lives. the client describes the place where they live with others, share housekeeping tasks, and attend group meetings every day. what is the kind of housing the client is describing?
Answer:
Transitional housing
Explanation:
after teaching a group of nursing students about seizures, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the group identifies seizures that do not impair consciousness but can involve the senses or motor ability as which type?
After teaching a group of nursing students about seizures, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when they identifies seizures that do not impair consciousness but can involve motor ability as a Partial seizure type.
Since focal seizures start in one specific area of the brain, they are also known as partial seizures. Any focused injury that causes scar tangles might be the reason for them. In around half of those who experience focal seizures, a cause (such as trauma, a stroke, or meningitis) may be determined by medical history or an MRI. When abnormal electrical activity affects a specific region of the brain, it causes a partial (focal) seizure.
Simple partial seizures are recognized when the seizure has no impact on consciousness. Straightforward examples of partial seizures include: body muscles are affected by motor disorders. A simple partial seizure has a small chance of developing problems. For example, during a seizure, it is less probable that a person will unintentionally breathe in food.
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which of the following statements is most accurate? hbv vaccine has small parts of the hepatitis b virus, so it can cause hbv infection. hbv vaccine is recommended for unvaccinated adults who are at risk for hbv infection. workers exposed to human blood, body fluids, or opim must receive the hbv vaccination to work in the laboratory. hbv is a mild disease and there is no need for any vac
hbv vaccine has small parts of the hepatitis b virus, so it can cause hbv infection following statements is most accurate .
Does the virus present in the Hep B vaccination exist?Because there are no live viruses in the vaccination, it cannot spread hepatitis B. The World Health Organization has stated that due to the seriousness of the condition, hepatitis B immunization should be given to all newborns worldwide.
All known subtypes of the hepatitis B virus are preventable by the use of the hepatitis B vaccine. The usage of Recombivax HB is permitted in people of all ages. Energix B and Recombivax HB are two of the several commercial names for the hepatitis B vaccine.
Infants, kids, and adults who receive the hepatitis B vaccination are shielded against the disease.
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a client is 28 weeks pregnant when lab work is completed in the clinic. the client is rh negative with a white blood cell count of 12,000 and normal platelet count. the nurse should plan for which treatment?
The nurse should plan treatment with anti D immunoglobulin injection within 72 hours of birth.
Pregnancy :When a woman is pregnant, one or more gestations (offspring) grow inside her uterus. Multiple pregnancies result in multiple children, such twins. Although sexual activity is the most common way to become pregnant, assisted reproductive technology procedures are also an option.
The outcome of a pregnancy can be a live birth, miscarriage, forced abortion, or stillbirth. The gestational age is the period of time after the start of the last menstrual period (LMP) when childbirth normally occurs. It's been a little over nine months. According to the age of fertilisation, the duration is roughly 38 weeks. The definition of pregnancy is "the presence of a human embryo or foetus implanted in the uterus." Implantation happens typically 8 to 9 days following conception.
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which exercise proves highly desirable for determining the most accurate whole body in healthy subjects in the laboratory?
Exercise on a treadmill is particularly effective for obtaining the most precise whole-body VO2max measurements in healthy test volunteers.
What is laboratory?
A laboratory is a place with carefully regulated circumstances where experiments, measurements, and technological or scientific research can be done. Physician offices, clinics, hospitals, as well as regional and national referrals centers all offer laboratory services. Alchemy and the creation of medicines were two early uses of the term "laboratory" in written English. Particle accelerators and other related devices were introduced as a result of the Big Science movement that began to emerge during World War II.
What are techniques and equipment and supplies are used in laboratory?The scientific method is used in all laboratory techniques, which are a set of steps used in the sciences including such chemistry, biology, and physics to conduct experiments. Some of these techniques call for the use of sophisticated laboratory equipment, such as electrical devices and glassware, while others call for more specialized or expensive supplies.
The many instruments and tools that scientists use when working in a lab are referred to as laboratory equipment. In addition to specialized tools like operant conditioning chambers, spectrophotometers, and calorimeters, the traditional equipment includes instruments like Bunsen burners, microscopes, and spectrophotometers.
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a postpartum client a postpartum client is attempting to breast-feed for the first time. the nurse notes that the client has inverted nipples. what nursing action should the nurse take to assist the client in breast-feeding the newborn infant?
Nursing action should the nurse take to assist the client in breast-feeding the newborn infant is massaging the nipple or can breastfeed using a nipple shield and also a breast pump.
A Gentle massage in the Areola Area is done for certain forms of nipples that require stimulation to come out so that the child can breastfeed comfortably. The trick can be done with the thumb and forefinger gently massaging the areola area to stimulate the nerves around the nipple so that it can protrude as it should.
Inverted nipples can occur due to a short milk duct that pulls the nipple tissue inward. However, nipples can still protrude when a woman gets stimulated or through certain processes.
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the client with preeclampsia asks the nurse why she is receiving magnesium sulfate. the nurse's most appropriate response to is to tell the client that the priority reason for giving her magnesium sulfate is to
According to the research, the correct answer is it reduces the risk of eclampsia. The nurse's most appropriate response to is to tell the client with preeclampsia that the priority reason for giving her magnesium sulfate is to reduce the risk of eclampsia.
What is preeclampsia?It is a disease that occurs in the third trimester of pregnancy and is characterized by the appearance of hypertension, edema and proteinuria.
In this sense, if it is not treated properly it can evolve towards the eclamptic attack (convulsions) where magnesium sulfate is the medicine of choice to prevent said convulsions (eclampsia) in women with preeclampsia.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, magnesium sulfate, when administered to women with preeclampsia, which is a syndrome unique to pregnancy, reduces the risk and prevents seizures in the event of eclampsia.
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pharmacologic intervention for patients with depression should: group of answer choices continue for 4 to 6 months after remission is achieved be continued indefinitely with a first episode of depression be titrated to a lower dosage after symptom relief is achieved generally be given for about 4 to 6 months
Pharmacologic intervention for patients with depression should be titrated to a lower dosage after symptom relief is achieved generally be given for about 4 to 6 months.
Depression is a mood disorder that causes a persistent feeling of unhappiness and loss of interest. conjointly referred to as major clinical depression or affective disorder, it affects however you are feeling, assume and behave and might result in a range of emotional and physical issues.
Doctors typically begin pharmacologic intervention by prescribing associate antidepressant drug such as SSRIs. These medicine area unit thought of safer and customarily cause fewer annoying aspect effects than different forms of antidepressants. SSRIs embrace citalopram (Celexa), escitalopram (Lexapro), SSRI (Prozac), paroxetine (Paxil, Pexeva), Zoloft (Zoloft) and vilazodone (Viibryd).
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foods that are high in dietary fiber (like whole grains) usually contain both soluble and insoluble fiber. according to the spreadsheet report, there are 2.3 grams of soluble fiber (fib-s) and 1.6 grams of insoluble fiber (fib-i) in the oatmeal. what is the primary benefit of the insoluble fiber in oatmeal?
The primary benefit of the insoluble fiber in oatmeal is that when the food reaches your digestive tract the insoluble fibers that are present in the oatmeal will not be broken down and also it will not absorb water as well so instead it will add more bulk to your stool and hence will create a regular bowl moment.
Oats, beans, peas, apples, carrots, barley, citrus fruits, psyllium, and oat bran all contain fiber that is insoluble This type of fiber can be helpful for people who experience irregular stools or constipation since it encourages the flow of material through your digestive system and increases stool bulk.
Among the health advantages is Losing weight Insoluble fiber, like soluble fiber, can help people manage their weight by reducing hunger. Digestive health: Insoluble fiber helps keep you regular and can help you feel better if you become constipated. Eating more of it can assist weight loss and digestive health.
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A nurse drains the bladder of a client by inserting a catheter for 5 minutes. What type of catheter would the nurse use in this instance?.
According to the given statement Intermittent urethral catheter type of catheter would the nurse use in this instance.
What is the role of a nurse?The primary duty of a nurse is to care for patients by meeting their physical needs, preventing disease, including treating illnesses. In order to help with treatment decisions, nurses must monitor the patient and record any relevant information.
Are nurses capable of operating?They are already in charge of numerous preoperative planning elements, including surgical postoperative care. Many surgical nursing specialists also choose to specialize in a particular area, such as obstetrics, pediatric surgery, or surgical intervention.
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the nurse enters the room of molly, who has pneumonia. molly has a low oxygen level and is working hard to breathe. the nurse raises the head of the bed and has molly tilt her head back. what is the next appropriate action by the nurse?
Provide oxygen therapy to Molly is the next appropriate action by the nurse.
What causes a person to get pneumonia?Pneumonia can be brought on by airway and lung viruses. The two most frequent causes of bacterial pneumonia in adults are the influenza (influenza virus) as well as the common cold (rhinovirus). In young children, respiratory syncytial (RSV) is the most frequent cause of viral pneumonia.
How serious is a pneumonia?The majority of pneumonia patients react favorably to therapy, although the condition can be highly hazardous and even fatal. But if you're an older adult, a small child, have a compromised immune system, or suffer from a chronic illness like diabetes or cirrhosis, you are more likely to experience difficulties.
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a 32-year-old warehouse worker presents for evaluation of low back pain. he notes a sudden onset of pain after lifting a heavier-than-usual set of boxes. he also states that he has numbness and tingling in the left leg. what test should the nurse perform to assess for a herniated disc?
A straight leg raise test should the nurse perform to assess for a herniated disc.
The straight leg raise test, also known as the Lasegue test, is a basic procedure used during the physical examination of a patient suffering from lower back pain.
This test can be positive in various conditions, the most common of which is lumbar disc herniation. Facet joint cysts or hypertrophy are two other causes of a positive straight leg raise test. This activity explains the pathophysiology of low back pain and emphasizes the interprofessional team's role in managing patients with a positive straight leg raise test.
The patient must be in a specific position for the straight leg raise test. It also necessitates movement in specific joints. Some contraindications to performing the straight leg raise test include:
The patient does not consent to the test.
Due to underlying issues such as serious spinal disease, advanced scoliosis, and so on, the patient is unable to lie down straight.
The patient has advanced knee or hip joint disease, which makes the procedure extremely painful for the patient.
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the report found that the public: group of answer choices could not understand the medical terms being used by physicians, ill trained or rightly trained could easily assess if a physician was ill trained or rightly trained could not distinguish between ill trained and rightly trained physicians could more easily figure out what was best for their health on their own
The Flexner report found that public could not distinguish between ill trained and rightly trained physicians.
The Flexner Report may be a book-length landmark report of medical education within the US and Canada, written by Abraham Flexner and revealed in 1910 underneath the aegis of the Carnegie Foundation. several aspects of the current yankee health profession stem from the Flexner Report and its aftermath
In his report, Flexner also wrote that African-American physicians ought to be trained in "hygiene instead of surgery" and will primarily function "sanitarians," whose purpose was "protecting whites" from common diseases like TB.
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for the patient with an increasing afterload, which hemodynamic parameter would the nurse expect to reflect the afterload status?
The hemodynamic parameters that the nurse would anticipate to indicate the afterload condition include preload, afterload, and contractility.
What is hemodynamic nursing?Preload and afterload are two forces that have an impact on how blood circulates throughout the body and are referred to as hemodynamics. When nurses test blood pressure or feel a pulse, they examine the stability of such forces.
What factors affect hemodynamic?Vascular width and resistance, respiration, blood viscosity, and circulating fluid volume are only a few of the many variables that affect hemodynamics. Physiological factors, like food, exercise, illness, use of drugs or alcohol, obesity, and excess weight, may have an impact on each of these in turn.
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the school nurse is doing a health class on the functional organization of the circulatory system. what is the function of the capillaries in the circulatory system? pump blood
The function of the capillaries is to act as a link between the arteries and veins and where the exchange of substances between the blood and tissue fluids takes place.
Blood vessels are part of the circulatory system that circulates blood to all parts of the human body. These vessels circulate blood cells, nutrients, and oxygen to the body's tissues and transport waste and carbon dioxide to be removed from the body.
Capillaries are a combination of branching arteries and veins. These vessels have very thin walls. This allows nutrients to enter the cells and tissues of the body. Inside the capillaries, the processes of filtration and absorption occur.
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how did hipaa change healthcare? it made employees more accountable. it improved efficiency of the healthcare system it helped create electronic health record templates. it changed medical authorization forms.
HIPAA changed healthcare changed medical authorization forms.
A selection via your fitness insurer or plan that a fitness care provider, treatment plan, prescription drug, or long-lasting scientific equipment is medically important. sometimes called medical authorization, earlier approval, or precertification.
Under scientific and prescription drug plans, some treatments and medicinal drugs can also need approval from your health insurance provider before you receive care. medical authorization is commonly required if you want a complicated treatment or prescription. insurance will no longer take place without it.
Authorization is a technique by using which a server determines if the purchaser has permission to use an aid or get the right of entry to a file. Authorization is commonly coupled with authentication in order that the server has a few ideas of who the client is that is inquiring to get admission.
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the nurse instructs a client with chronic kidney disease who is receiving hemodialysis about dietary modifications. the nurse determines that the client understands these dietary modifications if the client selects which items from the dietary menu?
The diet of a hemodialysis patient with chronic kidney disease must include controlled amounts of sodium, potassium, calcium, phosphorus, and fluids.
Can dialysis patients consume vegetables?
Because these types of dialysis can eliminate more potassium, you may need to eat more potassium-rich foods. Leafy green vegetables are a good way to add potassium to your diet and reduce the need for a potassium supplement.
Renal dietitians and nurses advise most hemodialysis patients to eat high-quality protein since it generates less waste for removal during hemodialysis. Meat, poultry, fish, and eggs are good protein sources.
Therefore, Cut out processed meats high in sodium and phosphorus, such as hot dogs and canned chili.
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Decisions related to scarce resource allocations must be made in consideration of the ethical principles of autonomy, beneficence, and especially justice, discuss
It is correct to state that decisions related to scarce resource allocations must be made in consideration of the ethical principles of autonomy, beneficence, and especially justice.
What are the ethical principle of autonomy, beneficence, and especially justice?The essential principles that underlie decision-making in any discipline, such as medicine, economics, and public administration, are autonomy, beneficence, and justice.
Distributive justice may be effective in making challenging judgments for policymakers, managers, and providers who confront difficult resource allocation issues.
The practice of assigning and managing assets in a way that meets an organization's strategic planning goals is known as resource allocation.
Resource allocation entails managing physical assets like hardware in order to make the most use of softer assets like human capital.
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which interventions are appropriate for a client with diabetes and poor wound healing? select all that apply. question 9 options: instruct the family about how to perform dressing changes teach the client about signs and symptoms of infection perform dressing changes twice a day as ordered gently refocus patient from discussing body image changes administer medications to control the client's blood sugar as ordered
The interventions appropriate for client with diabetes and poor wound healing are:
instruct the family about how to perform dressing changes.teach the client about signs and symptoms of infection.perform dressing changes twice a day as ordered.administer medications to control the client's blood sugar as ordered.Diabetes is the condition where the concentration of dissolved sugar in the blood is very high. It can happen due to ineffective working of insulin producing cells or due to failure of cells to utilize blood sugar for energy.
Infection is the presence of pathogens at any location inside or on the body. The general symptoms include: fever, chills, redness, sneezing, etc.
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a 75-year-old male is involved in a motor vehicle accident and strikes his forehead on the windshield. he complains of neck pain and severe burning in his shoulders and arms. his physical exam reveals weakness of his upper extremities. what type of spinal cord injury does this patient have?
Using theories of spinal cord, we got that central cord syndrome is the type of spinal cord injury to which patient complaining of neck pain and severe who burns his shoulders and arms.
The spinal cord is the long, thin, tubular structure made up of nervous tissue, which extends from medulla oblongata in the brainstem to the lumbar region of vertebral column (backbone). The backbone encloses the central canal of spinal cord, which contains cerebrospinal fluid. The brain and spinal cord together make up central nervous system (CNS). In humans, the spinal cord begins at occipital bone, passing through the foramen magnum and then enters spinal canal at the beginning of the cervical vertebrae. The spinal cord extends down to between first and second lumbar vertebrae, where it ends. Actually enclosing bony vertebral column protects the relatively shorter spinal cord. It is around to 45 cm (18 in) long in adult men and around 43 cm (17 in) long in the adult women.
Hence, the person who involves in a motor vehicle accident and strikes his forehead on the windshield, complaining of neck pain and severe burning in his shoulders and arms, the type of spinal cord injury he have is central cord syndrome.
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a nurse is caring for a client with left-sided heart failure. during the nurse's assessment, the client is wheezing, restless, tachycardic, and has severe apprehension. the clients reports that these symptoms came on suddenly. the nurse knows that these are symptoms of what condition?
The symptoms wheezing, restlessness, tachycardia, and severe apprehension in client with left-sided heart failure indicate acute pulmonary edema.
The condition acute pulmonary edema refers to buildup of fluid in lungs. There can be multiple reasons for the same such as heart problem, some specific toxin intake through food or medications, exercising or traveling at high elevations and trauma to the chest wall.
Oxygen flow through both nostrils, medications for diuretics, blood pressure, inotropes and morphine are taken. For edema due to higher altitude can be treated by going to lower elevation, stop exercising and take medications.
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nursing students are reviewing information about the advantages and disadvantages of the different types of feeding tubes. the students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which as an advantage of a nasointestinal feeding tube?
Nursing college students are reviewing information approximately the blessings and disadvantages of the distinct styles of feeding tubes. the students demonstrate knowledge of the records after they identify a reduced chance for aspiration.
Tube feeding also has dangers of its own, including infections and leaks across the tube. in addition, some sufferers with feeding tubes need to be limited physically or with pills to keep them from trying to eliminate the tubes. hardly ever, feeding tubes can reason critical contamination and death.
A prime complication of aspiration is damage to the lungs. when food, drink, or stomach contents make their way into your lungs, they could harm the tissues there. The harm can on occasion be severe. Aspiration additionally increases your chance of pneumonia.
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a 70 year-old male is brought to the office by his wife. she is complaining that her husband has been having great difficulty remembering things, however remains alert. she also complains that he is having difficulty getting to the bathroom on time. on physical examination you notice that the patient's gait is wide-based and slow and he walks without lifting his feet off the floor. you also notice a tremor in his right hand. what is the most likely diagnosis
Answer: Masked facies (concerned for ParksIon's disease.
Explanation: Not good in neruo good in microbiology but I hope this helps.
a 56-year-old client who suffers from seasonal affective disorder is being assessed by the nurse in an outpatient mental health clinic. the nurse is aware which treatment is the most effective type of treatment for this condition?
Light therapy treatment is perhaps the most effective form of treatment for the this condition.
What are the benefits of light therapy?A light therapy box simulates outdoor light. This type of light is thought to cause a chemical change inside the brain that lifts your mood and alleviates other SAD symptoms such as being tired almost all of the time and sleeping excessively.
Who should not use laser therapy?The main contraindications for using light therapy are diseases involving the retina of the eye, such as diabetes, including the use of photosensitizing medicines such as lithium, melatonin, triazine antipsychotics, and certain antibiotics.
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anastasia is a neurosurgeon who specializes in the cerebrum. what report did she most likely publish? a. the brain and the endocrine system: working together b. keeping the heart pumping without any brain power c. how patients maintain posture and balance following injuries d. why patients lose memories after brain surgery
The doctor is most likely to publish a book on Why Patients Experience Memory Loss Following Brain Surgery.
The cerebrum, or front of the brain, is composed of white and gray matter (the cerebral cortex). The cerebrum, the main region of the brain, regulates temperature as well as beginning and directing movement. Speech, judgment, thinking and reasoning, problem-solving, emotions, and learning are all enabled by different parts of the cerebrum. Touch, hearing, sight, and other senses are examples of extracurricular activities.
Memory loss and other cognitive issues can be brought on by a number of circumstances, including depression, infections, and severe medication responses. Occasionally, the issue may be remedied, and cognition improves. In other circumstances, the issue is an irreversible brain illness such as Alzheimer's.
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following resuscitation, an infant weighing 1,814 g (4 lb) is admitted to the nicu. the nurse would initiate enteral feedings based on which assessment?
Following resuscitation, an infant weighing 1,814 g (4 lb) is admitted to the NICU, then the nurse would initiate internal feedings based on the assessment of the heart rate of the newborn.
What are the assessment based on after resuscitation?A rise in the heart rate of baby is the best indicator of a successful response to the resuscitative techniques.
Current NRP guidelines recommend the use of umbilical cord palpation, auscultation, pulse oximetry and electrocardiography for the assessment during neonatal resuscitation at birth.
Newborns who require resuscitation at birth are transferred to an environment where close monitoring and anticipatory care can be provided.
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a client with left-sided weakness needs assisted living. the client's family plans to sell the client's home to pay for assisted living, but the client refuses to sell because the client feels that the family should pay the expenses. what would the nurse do at this time?
The greatest way to soothe a patient who needs assisted living and has left-sided weakness is to ask the woman to share her experiences with the home.
A common consequence of stroke is hemiparesis, which results in weakness on one of the body's sides. Your mobility may be restricted by this one-sided weakness, which may also have an impact on your ability to dress, eat, and walk. Hemiplegia and hemiparesis are frequently misunderstood.
One of the 5 Major Moral Standards in Healthcare is represented by the action the nurse made.
I. NON-MALFEASANCE.
II. BENEFICENCE.
III. UTILITY.
IV. DISTRIBUTIVE JUSTICE.
V. AUTONOMY.
Gently inform them that you believe they may be experiencing a panic attack, let them know you are for them, and urge them to take deep breaths.
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with some minerals, definitive blood tests are needed to diagnose whether the client is deficient or experiencing a toxicity. the nurse is aware that one mineral can result in muscle weakness when either deficiency or toxicity of this mineral occurs. which mineral causes muscle weakness in both deficiency and toxicity?
Both potassium mineral shortage and toxicity weaken muscles.
The effects of too much potassium in the blood extend beyond the heart muscles. It may also have an impact on all of your body's muscles. High potassium levels might cause muscular weakness or deterioration.
Even basic tasks like walking might leave you feeling weakened.
Additionally, your muscles can stop working correctly, which would fatigue you. You could even feel a persistent, dull soreness in your muscles. Even if you haven't finished a physically demanding task, it might seem that way. The blood potassium level can also have an impact on how well your nerves work.
Potassium aids in the proper signaling of your nerves to the brain. But when your blood has too much potassium, this becomes challenging.
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a client is hospitalized for open reduction of a fractured femur. during the postoperative assessment, the nurse notes that the client is restless and observes petechiae on the client's chest. which nursing action is indicated first?
Oxygen administration is a recommended nursing action for all patients who are having trouble breathing. When a patient's room air saturation reaches 98%, oxygen is recommended.
Why do we give oxygen?Numerous factors can lead to the administration of oxygen. Increased metabolic demand, maintaining oxygenation while administering anesthesia, supplementation during diagnosis of pulmonary diseases that affect oxygen exchange, treating headaches, and carbon monoxide exposure are a few instances for its initiation.
Which is the most popular way to administer oxygen?Typically, a healthcare professional can apply nasal prongs and a straightforward face mask (low-flow oxygen apparatus). A respiratory therapist must set up and use any additional oxygen equipment (high-flow systems). Nebulizer treatments for asthmatics should use more oxygen than 6 L/min.
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