6co2 6h2o light energy ---> c6h12o6 6o2 what do you think will happen to the rate of the reaction as the light source is moved further away from the aquatic plant

Answers

Answer 1

The process of photosynthesis, which results in the production of glucose in plants, is 6 CO 2 + 6 H 2 O light C 6 H 12 O 6 + 6 O 2 6CO2+6H2O.

What kind of reaction produces C6H12O6 6O2 energy from 6CO2 6H2O?

6CO2+6H2OC6H12O6+6O2 is the chemical equation for photosynthesis. 6CO2+6H2O→C6H12O6+6O2. In plants, the chloroplasts in the mesophyll of the leaves are where photosynthesis occurs.

What part of photosynthesis does 6CO2 play?

Carbon dioxide and water are changed into glucose and oxygen during photosynthesis. Since glucose is a big molecule (C6H12O6) with six carbon atoms, only six molecules of carbon dioxide (CO2) are needed to create one molecule of glucose.

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Related Questions

explain the role of meiosis in sexual reproduction and evolution, distinguishing between somatic and germ-line cells (gametes).

Answers

Meiosis is a process that takes place while gametes develop and results in cells with half the usual amount of chromosomes.

By preventing reduction division, meiosis prevents an increase in the number of chromosomes.

Any cell in a multicellular organism that is not a germ-line cell is referred to as a somatic cell. Gametes, or germ-line cells, are haploid reproductive cells (eggs and sperm). During fertilization, combine to create a zygote.

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Can somebody please help with this?


Wisconsin Fast Plants are a rapid-cycling form of the species Brassica rapa, a member of the mustard family Cruciferae. They were developed at the University of Wisconsin-Madison by Professor Paul H. Williams to be used by research scientist in the laboratory and now used for hands on investigations throughout the world. In this investigation, two Wisconsin Fast Plants are crossed with the height traits (tall – dominant or dwarf – recessive) and pigment trait (dominant – anthocynanin) and recessive – anthocyanin-less). The F1 generation consists of the results below.

(a) Predict the P generation genotypes and justify your prediction

(b) Perform a chi-square test on the data for the F1 generation. Identify the chi-square value and specify the null hypothesis you are testing.

(c) Explain whether your hypothesis is supported by the chi-square test and justify your explanations.

(d) Predict how a mutation to the traits would affect the F2 generation.

Answers

a) The Parent (P) Generation genotype is heterozygous dominant and homozygous recessive.

b) The Chi-Square value is 0.2888; while the null hypothesis is "there is no significant distinction between the observed value and desired value, that is the genes are unlinked."

c) As a result of the Chi-Square results there is no significant difference between our actual and anticipated values, and the genes are not connected. As a result, the chi-square test supports our hypothesis.

d) A mutation in "[tex]F[/tex]1" traits will sufficiently modify the heterozygous dominant genotype in the "[tex]F[/tex]2" generation.

How can you arrive at the above results?

a) First, note that A chi-square test is a type of statistical test that is often used in hypothesis testing. This table is used in genetics to determine whether there is a statistical difference between the predicted and actual values. This is also known as the Goodness of Fit test.

Hence, to forecast the parental genotype or P offspring genotype, we must first know the cross-ratio.

The rations are given as follows:

96/372 : 94/372 : 93/372 : 89/372; this give us

⇒ (0.26):(0.25):(0.25):(0.24)

Looking at the above ratios, we can tell that they  are approximate:
1:1:1:1

Whenever a heterozygous genotype is crossed with a homzygous recessive, the ratio is 1:1:1:1. As a result, TT stands for tall, TT stands for short, PP stands for pigment, and PP stands for anthocyanin-less.

The parent's genotype will then be TtPp (Tall, pigment) and ttpp (Tall, pigment) (short, anthocyanin-less). That is, the paternal genotype is heterozygous recessive and heterozygous dominant.

c) In order to explain whether or not the Hypothesis is supported by the chi-square test and justify your explanations, we must compare the degree of freedom with the Chi-Square value with the help of a Squared Distribution Table.

The degree of freedom is equal to n-1, where n is the number of classes. Because there are four classes in this case, the degree of freedom is three.

The probability 0.05 or 5% is considered as a crucial value in statistics. Examine the chi-square distribution table with p = 0.05 and degree of freedom = 3. The answer is 7.8.

If our estimated value is less than this number, our null hypothesis will be accepted; otherwise, we will reject the null hypothesis. Because our chi-square value is 0.288, which is less than 7.8 in the chi-square distribution table, the null hypothesis is accepted.

As a result, there is no significant difference between our actual and anticipated values, and the genes are not connected. As a result, the chi-square test supports our hypothesis.

d) The "[tex]F[/tex]1" generation is the first filial generation of Offspring from the parents, whereas the "[tex]F[/tex]2" generation is the second filial generation of offspring produced via the congenital of "[tex]F[/tex]1" individuals.

As a result, a mutation in "[tex]F[/tex]1" features modifies the heterozygous dominant genotype sufficiently in the "[tex]F[/tex]2" generation.

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Who is the fastest speedster in the CW The Flash????

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Answer:

yes barley

Explanation:

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explain the functions of follicular dendritic cells (fdcs) in b cell activation and proliferation in lymphoid follicles, as well as their role in affinity maturation.

Answers

Follicular dendritic cells (FDCs) are a specialized type of antigen-presenting dendritic cells that are largely restricted to lymphoid follicles. They capture immune complexes either directly from the lymph or from macrophages and move to the lymphoid tissue, where they transfer complement opsonized antigen to the FDCs.

Follicular dendritic cells in turn attract B cells and activate them. They form dense three-dimensional meshwork patterns within benign follicles, which maintain the follicular architecture.

Follicular dendritic cells take part in B-cell activation and play an important role during affinity maturation by displaying native antigens and by presenting survival signals to B cells and that they are involved in memory B-cell development.

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Which best describes a dichotomous key?
A. Each step has two choices.
B. Each step can have any number of choices.
C. Each step describes two possible inferences.
D. Each step is based on genetic traits.

Answers

Answer:

Each step has two choices.

which channel type triggers the rapid depolarization phase of the autorhythmic cell action potential?

Answers

The fast sodium channel triggers the rapid depolarization phase of the autorhythmic cell action potential.

Rapid sodium influx causes depolarization and reversal of the membrane potential inside the cell from negative to positive. Depolarization is an all-or-nothing event in neurons that is initiated by the opening of sodium ion channels within the plasma membrane. Repolarization, the subsequent return to resting potential, is mediated by the opening of potassium ion channels.

Autorhythmic cells lack a resting membrane potential, which drifts and changes as a result of ionic movement. Hyperpolarisation causes voltage-gated sodium channels known as funny channels to open, allowing [tex]Na^{+}[/tex]Na+ into the cell.

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looking at the punnet square above, how does this demonstrate codominance

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Answer:

Both characteristics of the parental traits for fur colour were present in the offspring, this is because both parents were homozygous dominant for their respective colour and when fertilization occurred, co dominance was shown

garden plants are eaten by snails, which are eaten by birds, which are eaten by the household cat. what happens to the other members of the food chain if the garden is removed?

Answers

The number of snails and birds decrease in the given food chain.

Food chain refers to the order of events in an ecosystem, where one living organism feeds another organism, and after that organism is consumed by another organism in higher tropic level.

The food chain always begins with producers who make food, proceeds  with other consumers who eat the food and at the comes the topmost predator. In ecology food chain is considered as the series of events that transfer energy and food from one organism to another and is necessary for survival of the organisms .

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which process occurs directly after meiosis ii?responsescell differentiationcell differentiationdna replicationuppercase d n a replicationmitosismitosisreproductionreproduction

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After cell has undergone meiosis ii it enters into the phase of cell differentiation.

Thus, after meiosis II is complete, four haploid daughter cells are created, each of which only has one copy of each chromosome. The haploid cells, also known as primordial germ cells, go through cell development and develop particular characteristics based on their purpose. It produces spermatids and eventually sperm in males, and an ovum or egg in females. These cells are a component of the reproduction process and are known as sexual cells or germ cells.

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if all the kinetochores are not attached to spindle fibers, then what would we likely observe in the cell?

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If all the kinetochores are not attached to spindle fibers, then we would likely observe aneuploidy in the cell.

What is cell?

The basic biological, structural, and functional units of all living things are cells. A cell is capable of independent reproduction. As a result, they are referred to as the foundation of life. The cytoplasm, a liquid found inside every cell, is surrounded by a membrane. Numerous biomolecules such as proteins, nucleic acids, and lipids are also found in the cytoplasm. In addition, cell organelles have been suspended in the cytoplasm of the cell. The most fundamental building block of life are cells. Therefore, the smallest independent component that we might discover if we dissected an organism down to its cellular level is the cell. Discover the definition, structure, types, and functions of cells by reading the notes on cells.

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describe the electrical responses produced by rods and cones, and explain how these responses are produced.

Answers

Rods are responsible for eyesight in . In addition to having poor spatial acuity, they do not mediate colour vision.

Cones and rods: how do they react to light?

Rods are responsible for eyesight in . In addition to having poor spatial acuity, they do not mediate colour vision. Cones are involved in high spatial acuity, colour vision, and activity at higher light levels (photopic vision).

How does action potential develop in rods and cones?

Without any indication of action potentials, rods and cones hyperpolarize in response to light. As it turns out, rod and cone synapses release neurotransmitters in a manner similar to that of any other cell.

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Which phrase best describes the purpose of mitosis?

Answers

to produce identical daughter cells

Two frog populations become separated by a river. Over 100 years the frogs have become two
different species. A drought hits and the river drys up. Would the separated populations of
frogs be able to interbreed now that the barrier was no longer there? Defend your answer.
Correctly use the term geographic isolation in your free response answer.

Answers

Yes, the frogs now able to interbreed.

What is hybridization?

Hybridization is significant because it increases a species' genetic variety—the number of different gene combinations—which is essential for evolution to take place.

A population's members being physically separated. When their original habitat is divided, populations may become physically separated. As in the case of new land or water barriers.

It is well known that geographic isolation contributes to divergent evolution, producing distinctive phenotypes. Sometimes populations with different morphologies are found to be interfertile, while nominal morphological species are found to have reproductive isolation, revealing the existence of cryptic species.

The geographical isolation that results from allopatric speciation, which prevents members of an original species from breeding with one another when they are reunited, is exemplified by islands.

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Answer:

After the drought, there was very little water and many plants died, so the remaining environment was mostly brown. Because of this, having brown coloration was a favorable adaptation  for frogs. The brown frogs are the ones that survived and reproduced, causing the number of brown frogs to increase.  Having green coloration, on the other hand, was an unfavorable adaptation because they were unable to blend in with the surrounding environment. They became less likely to survive and reproduce, causing the number of green frogs to decrease.

Explanation:

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Why does the top trophic level have less organisms than the first trophic level

Answers

At higher trophic levels, there is typically less energy, which results in fewer creatures as well.

Why are higher trophic levels less populated with organisms?

Consequently, we will typically see larger animals as we up the trophic ladder. However, as they move up the food chain, these larger animals must rely on less energy generated at the lower trophic levels in order to survive. As a result, higher trophic levels typically have fewer creatures.

Why do creatures at the top trophic level tend to be more numerous?

The highest number of species, mostly plants, are found in the first trophic level. Primary producers are the creatures in this layer because they obtain their energy from an abiotic source. many primary producers obtain their energy from the sun itself.

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which disorder results in decreased erythrocytes and platelets with changes in leukocytes and has clinical manifestations of pallor, fatigue, petechiae, purpura, bleeding, and fever?

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Pallor, purpura, petechiae, increased risk of mucosal bleeding, increased risk of infection, and weariness due to pancytopenia are all signs of aplastic anaemia.

When the body ceases making enough new blood cells, aplastic anaemia develops. You get worn out and more vulnerable to infections and uncontrolled bleeding as a result of the disease. Aplastic anaemia is an uncommon and dangerous illness that can appear at any age.

The bone marrow, the sponge-like substance inside our bones, is where the stem cells in aplastic anaemia are damaged. The bone marrow's stem cells can be harmed by a variety of illnesses and ailments. As a result, less red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets are produced by the bone marrow.

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abdominal organ that filters erythrocytes and activates lymphocytes: a.bone marrow b.spleen c.adenoids d.tonsils e.thymus

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The abdominal organ that filters erythrocytes and activates lymphocytes is: (b) spleen.

Lymphocytes are the white blood cells that are the part of our immune system. The lymphocytes generally have  a large nucleus and are agranular. There are three types of lymphocytes: B cells, T cell and NK cells.  All these together constitute 20-40% of all the white blood cells.

Spleen is the secondary lymphoid organ. It is the size of a fist, present on the upper left side of the abdomen. The function of spleen is to regulate the blood cell levels and also it removes the old, damaged and dead blood cells.

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What are the base-pairing rules?

Answers

Answer:

The rules of base pairing (or nucleotide pairing) are: A with T: the purine adenine (A) always pairs with the pyrimidine thymine (T) C with G: the pyrimidine cytosine (C) always pairs with the purine guanine (G)

Explanation:

for Chargaff's rules

Answer: The rules of base pairing (or nucleotide pairing) are: A with T: the purine adenine (A) always pairs with the pyrimidine thymine (T) C with G: the pyrimidine cytosine (C) always pairs with the purine guanine (G)

Explanation:

uag (as well as uaa and uga) is an example of a stop codon. molecules called release factors bind to stop codons. place the release factor on the mrna molecule. what happens?

Answers

The molecules will go away and a protein is created.

The stop codons in the genetic code are UGA, UAG, and UAA. These stop codons indicate the conclusion of the polypeptide chain during translation. There is no amino acid coded by these codons. As a result, they are also known as nonsense or termination codons.

These stop codons have been referred to as umber or opal (UAG), ochre (UAA), and amber (UAG) (UGA). Charles Steinberg and Richard Epstein made Amber public (UAG). To continue the idea of "colors names," they gave the remaining two stop codons the names ochre (UAA) and opal (UAG) while naming the product amber. During protein synthesis, stop codons allow the ribosome to release the newly synthesized polypeptide chain. This occurs because there are no tRNAs that have an anticodon that matches the stop codon.

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What organisms are
essential for cycling
nitrogen through the
biosphere?

Answers

Answer:

Nitrogen-fixing bacteria and cyanobacteria

Explanation:

Nitrogen fixing bacteria are miniature of urea factories, turning N2 gas from the atmosphere into plant available amines and ammonium via a specific and unique enzyme they possess called nitrogenase.

after ovulation levels of prgesterone rise sharply what is the primary function of progesterone at this point in the menstrual cycle

Answers

The most crucial function of progesterone is preparing your uterus to receive, implant, and sustain a fertilized egg during pregnancy.

Progesterone's primary role during the menstrual cycle is what?

Progesterone gets the endometrium ready for the possibility of getting pregnant following ovulation .The lining becomes thicker as a result, getting ready for a fertilized egg. Additionally, it stops the uterine muscles from contracting in a way that would make the body reject an egg.

What three jobs does progesterone perform?

A key player in maintaining pregnancy, getting the body ready for conception, and controlling the monthly menstrual cycle, progesterone is a hormone that activates and controls vital processes.

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Concept of Terrestrial ecosystems​

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¿What are terrestrial ecosystems?

A terrestrial ecosystem is a community of organisms and their environment that occurs only on land masses, such as continents or islands.

In addition, there are six primary terrestrial ecosystems that are:

TundraTaiga.Deciduous temperate forest.Rain forest.Temperate grasslands and shrublands

shrublandsdesert.

Terrestrial ecosystems are distinguished by their low water availability and the consequent importance of water as a limiting factor, as opposed to aquatic ecosystems. Terrestrial ecosystems are characterized by wider temperature fluctuations, both daily and seasonal, compared to aquatic ecosystems of similar climates.

How is recycling paper similar and different to how an ecosystem recycles nutrience.

Answers

Answer:

Its decomposition

Explanation:

When an organism dies fungi and bacteria break it down to gain nutrients and return nutrients to the soil, just like how paper is broken down over time except there are no nutrients gained.

When oxidized completely, which of the following 3 milk products will release the greatest amount of potential energy (G)? Casein, Lactose, or Palmitic Acid?

Answers

When oxidized completely, casein will release the greatest amount of potential energy (G) .

What is Casein?

Casein is a family of related phosphoproteins that are found in mammalian milk. It comprises about 80% of the proteins in cow's milk and 20% to 60% of the proteins in human milk.

Casein is a slow-digesting protein that boosts muscle growth and help in recovery after exercise. Taking this can improve the health and also increase the total daily protein intake. This is also an important factor in weight loss and muscle growth.

Casein is absorbed slowly, so it can be more satiating in the long-term. Taking it regularly can cause weight loss and improved body composition.

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Which of these responses is used by a herd of deer and a school of fish for protection from predators?
O grouping
O hibernation
O migration
O camouflage

Answers

Answer:

Which of these responses is used by a herd of deer and a school of fish for protection from predators?

A. grouping

Explanation:

There are two example of grouping:

1. Forming a herd: Many animals, such as deer, wildebeests and zebras, form herds as a defense mechanism against predators. By staying in a group, individuals increase their chances of detecting predators and have a higher likelihood of survival. When a predator approaches, the herd can quickly scatter in different directions, making it difficult for the predator to target a single individual.

2. Forming a school: Fish, such as sardines and anchovies, often form schools as a defense mechanism. By swimming together in a tightly packed group, they create the illusion of a larger organism, which can confuse and deter predators. Additionally, swimming in a school provides better visibility for each individual, increasing their chances of detecting predators and escaping.

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Identify three selection pressures rhat Darwin would have had to rule out before determining that competition for limited food resources drive natural selection on the Galapagos Island.

Answers

Answer:

Darwin nunez or Charles Darwin

in humans, right handed is dominant to left handed. cross 2 heterozygous right handed parents. what is the genotypic ratio?

Answers

1 : 2 : 1 is the genotypic ratio. The development of hand preference most likely occurs together with the separation of the right and left sides of the body.

More precisely, variations between the right and left hemispheres of the brain seem to be connected to handedness. 10% of children born to right-hand parents will be left-hand, on average. At 18 to 22% and 27%, respectively, the likelihood that a child will be left-handed increases if one or both parents are left-hand. In fact, one of the stranger explanations for the rarity of left-handedness holds that a genetic mutation in the ancient past moved the human brain's language center from the right hemisphere to the left, essentially making right-handedness more prevalent.

The complete question is:

In humans, right handed is dominant to left handed. Cross 2 heterozygous right handed parents. What is the genotypic ratio?

4 : 0

1 : 1

1 : 2 : 1

3 : 1

9 : 3 : 3 : 1

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- 5. Which of the following would ecologists NOT study?
A. how beavers get food.
B. how much water is needed for a corn crop.
C. how plastic expands when it is heated.
D. how rabbits escape from predators.

Answers

Answer:

I think C is correct

Explanation:

I am not really sure

what is the predicted size of the corresponding mature mrna in base pairs (bp), excluding the 5' cap and 3' poly-a tail?

Answers

Predicted size of the corresponding mature mRNA in base pairs (bp), excluding the 5' cap and 3' poly-a tail is 295 bp.

1000 base long mRNA, this means that its double-stranded version will be 500 bp long. Messenger RNA or mRNA is a type of single-stranded RNA involved in protein synthesis.

mRNA is type of RNA that is important for protein production. In human cells, mRNA uses the information in genes to create a copy for making proteins. Many mRNA vaccines helps to protect humans from various disease like recently scientist have developed covid vaccine using mRNA .

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In the above map, the Pacific plate (oceanic crust) collides with the South American plate (continental crust). Based on the data you mapped and the shape it made above, which plate is more dense and slides under the other? Continental crust this is actually for earth science

Answers

This is an example of convergent boundaries. The pacific plate subduces under the South American plate. The pacific plate is denser and older and slides under the continental plate.

What are convergent boundaries?

Convergent boundaries are one of the three boundaries involved in plate motion and interaction. These are convergent, divergent, and transforming.

Convergent boundaries refer to plates moving forward to each other, colliding, and causing the deformation of one or both plates.

There are three possible collisions,

Between two oceanic plates Between two continental platesBetween a continental and an oceanic plate.

When an oceanic plate collides with a continental plate, the following sequence occurs,

The older, denser, and thicker plate subduces under the other one. The oceanic crust is the one that sinks under the continental plate.Due to this collision, the continental plate suffers deformation on its edge.Mountain chains, like The Himalayas and Los Andes, are created after these events.

In the exposed example, the pacific plate subduces under the South American plate.

The pacific plate is denser and older and slides under the continental plate.

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the ability of a virus or bacteriophage to specifically attach to particular types of host cells occurs through the interactions of the viral attachment protein with the host cell receptors. this binding determines

Answers

The binding of a virus or bacteriophage to attach to the host cells determines the host range.

Phages interact and attack a particular type of bacteria; they do not attack other types of bacteria or the cell lines of other organisms. The interactions between phages and their host cells have garnered a lot of attention because of how specifically they occur. The binding thus determines the host range tp attch to the host cell.

Bacteriophage is a virus that can infect bacterial cell. It enters the host cell through the lytic cycle. the virus in the bacterial cell can even kill the host cell or replicate even without killing it. The bacteriophage attaches to the bacterium using its long tail fibers, and after doing so, the virus inserts its genetic material into the host cell to start the reproduction process.

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