The drugs that have been used and studied the most extensively for the longest time in treating multiple sclerosis are interferon medicines. Although not as long-term medicines, steroids do have a role in acute.
What results from having sclerosis?A condition called multiple sclerosis (MS) can affect the brain and spinal cord and result in a variety of symptoms, such as issues with vision, arm or leg movement, sensation, or balance. It's a chronic disorder that occasionally results in severe disability, while it also occasionally manifests as a moderate ailment.
Is sclerosis treatable?Multiple sclerosis (MS) has no known cure, but medications and other treatments can help manage the disease and lessen some of its symptoms. The course of the illness and the patient's particular symptoms will determine the course of the MS treatment.
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a 75-year-old retired short-order cook presents to the office for evaluation of weakness. he has a history of htn: he stopped taking his medication a few months ago because he couldn't tell that it was making a difference and it was too expensive. on pe, his bp is 220/110, he has deviation of the tongue to the left side. which cranial nerve would have to be affected for this finding to be present?
He has a history of HTN and on PE, his BP is 220/110, he has deviation of the tongue to the left side, so the cranial nerve which would have to be affected for this finding to be present is Hypoglossal (CN XII).
The nervus hypoglosus is that the twelfth nerve {Hypoglossal (CN XII)}. it's principally a corticoefferent nerve for the tongue muscle system. The nerve originates from the medulla and travels caudal and dorsally to the tongue. It controls muscles that move the tongue, enabling you to: build noises together with your mouth, like clicking sounds. Move substances around in your mouth.
Hypertension(HTN) is the blood pressure level is simply too high. Blood pressure level is written as 2 numbers. the primary (systolic) range represents the pressure in blood vessels once the center contracts or beats. The second (diastolic) range represents the pressure within the vessels once the center rests between beats.
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a client presents to his physician with a red face, hands, feet, and ears; a headache; and drowsiness. a blood smear reveals an increased number of erythrocytes. based on the laboratory results, the nurse prepares teaching material for which disease process?
Polycythemia vera is a kind of persistent leukaemia (blood cancer) in which your bone marrow produces an abnormally large number of red blood cells. It advances slowly and is frequently detected beyond the age of 60.
Most people can live with their symptoms for many years. Blood clots are the most dangerous side effect of having too many red blood cells. Polycythemia vera causes your body to create an abnormally large number of red blood cells. The presence of extra blood cells increases the chance of bleeding, bruising, and clotting. Polycythemia thicken your blood and decrease your circulation, delivering less oxygen to your body's tissues and organs than they require. They also put undue strain on your spleen, which is in charge of filtering your blood and removing old blood cells.
Polycythemia might cause it to grow bloated and painful (splenomegaly). As a result of your disease, you may experience a number of unpleasant symptoms over time. PV can also cause a number of secondary diseases.
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jake recently visited a nutritionist who, after examining his weight and height, informed him that his body mass index is 30, which means that jake is:
The nutritionist Jake recently saw informed him that, based on his height and weight, Jake had a body mass index of 30, making him Patricia.
What do you understand the term body mass index?The body mass index is a measurement that is based on a person's height and weight. The BMI is calculated by dividing the body person's weight of a height, and it is expressed in kilograms per square meter (kg/m2) since weight is measured in kilograms & height is measured in meters. Most persons should maintain a BMI between 18 to 24.9, according to doctors. Obese adults are those having a BMI of greater than 25. However, older persons who have a BMI around 25 and 27 perform better. According to research, underweight adults over 65 had a reduced life expectancy and more health problems.
What is Body Mass Index example and what are the importance of body mass index?For instance, someone who weighs 180 lbs. and is 65 inches tall (5 feet and 5 inches total) would determine their BMI in the manner shown below: 180 x 703 = 126,540. 126,540 / 65 = 1,946.769.
Body mass index: its significance The BMI is a reliable indicator of the risk of developing illnesses that can develop as a result of having a higher body fat percentage. Your chance of developing certain conditions like heart problems, hypertension, 2 diabetes, gallstones, respiratory issues, and some malignancies increases with your BMI.
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an obese client has developed peripheral edema as a consequence of heart failure, making it very difficult for the student nurse to accurately palpate the client's peripheral pulses. how should the nurse proceed with this assessment?
A client's apical pulse should be auscultated by the nurse as part of this assessment.
Why does the apical pulse exist?The bottom tip of your heart, or the apex, is where your apical pulse is located on your chest. Since it allows your doctor to hear your heart directly as it contracts and pumps blood, it differs from your arterial pulse points.
How is the apical pulse determined?If a sizable artery is located close to your skin, you can feel the pulse by laying your fingertips over it. One of the eight typical arterial pulse sites is at the apical region. In the left middle of your chest, just beneath the nipple, is where you'll find it. Your heart's lower (pointed) end is roughly where this place is.
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the stages of the epidemiologic transition are based on a. causes of death at varying stages of the demographic transition. b. the means through which disease is transmitted spatially. c. non-contagious diseases such as heart disease, obesity, or diabetes. d. new food sources which produced population explosions. e. pandemics like the bubonic plague, influenza, or aids.
The stages of the epidemiologic transition are based on causes of death at varying stages of the demographic transition.
An epidemiologic transition is a amount related to a amendment within the major reason for death at intervals a population because of demographic, economic, industrial, and social science factors. The term epidemiologic transition was coined by Abdel R. Omran in 1971 once he printed a paper describing the link between medicine studies and their relation and influence on demographics.
The stages of the epidemiologic transition are:
First transition stage - infectionsSecond stage - chronic diseasesThird transition stage - non-cardiovascular diseasesFourth transition stage - non-cardiovascular diseases, though deaths caused by them would show a decreasing trendFifth transition stage - senescence or old-ageTo learn more about Epidemiologic transition here
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a 58-year-old with a longstanding diagnosis of diverticulitis has been admitted to the hospital due to an acute exacerbation in her symptoms. the care team has deemed surgery unnecessary, but is pursuing aggressive medical treatment. what pathophysiological process is contributing to this woman's health problem?
The pathophysiological process contributing to a woman's health problem diagnosed with diverticulitis admitted in the hospital due to an acute exacerbation in her symptoms will be: (3) Food and bacteria have been collected in a herniated area of the patient's colon.
Diverticulitis is the development of small bulging pouches in the digestive tract. The condition is common after the age of 40. It symptoms are: abdominal pain, fever, nausea, change in bowel movement, etc. Liquid and low-fiber diet is recommended during the condition.
Exacerbation is medical terms is the worsening of the health conditions or disease in a person. The symptoms get in their fired up state during exacerbation.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
A 58-year-old with a longstanding diagnosis of diverticulitis has been admitted to the hospital due to an acute exacerbation in her symptoms. the care team has deemed surgery unnecessary, but is pursuing aggressive medical treatment. what pathophysiological process is contributing to this woman's health problem?
Stenosis of the ileocecal valve has created an infected obstruction.Proliferation of bacteria in the woman's large bowel has eliminated her normal flora.Food and bacteria have been collected in a herniated area of the patient's colon.Uncoordinated peristalsis has resulted in irritation of the colon and stagnation of the bowel's contents.To know more about diverticulitis, here
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mike appeared at the clinic complaining of pain in his knee, shoulder, and abdomen; nausea and vomiting; blurred vision; and exhaustion. the patient history revealed that he had been going to clinics for years trying to get treatment for these complaints as well as a host of other physical symptoms. there is no evidence that he is intentionally producing these symptoms.the diagnostic consensus was that mike suffered from:
People of all ages commonly complain about knee pain. An injury, such as a torn ligament or damaged cartilage, may cause knee pain.
What is knee pain?Knee discomfort can also be brought on by illnesses including arthritis, gout, and infections.
Numerous minor knee pain conditions respond effectively to self-care techniques. Knee braces and physical therapy are additional methods for pain relief. But occasionally, your knee could need to be surgically repaired.
The quadriceps muscles, which are found on the front of the thighs and straighten the legs, and the hamstring muscles, which are found on the back of the thighs and bend the leg at the knee, are two groups of muscles that work together in the knee.
Therefore, People of all ages commonly complain about knee pain. An injury, such as a torn ligament or damaged cartilage, may cause knee pain.
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which situations would the nurse associate with an increase in a client's risk for developing secondary thrombocytosis? select all that apply. cardiopulmonary bypass surgery lung cancer hepatomegaly inflammatory bowel disease rheumatoid arthritis
An increase in a client's risk of developing secondary thrombocytosis is something the nurse associates with conditions including inflammatory bowel disease, lung cancer, and rheumatoid arthritis.
What is thrombocytosis caused by?Anemia: Thrombocytosis can be brought on by hemolytic anemia and iron deficient anemia. Cancer: A lot of persons with high platelet counts also have cancer, most commonly lymphoma, breast, ovarian, lung, or gastrointestinal cancer. A high platelet count may occasionally be the first indication of malignancy.
What is the treatment for thrombocytosis?Your doctor may recommend interferon alfa or hydroxyurea (Droxia, Hydrea) as platelet-lowering medicines (Intron A). You can have your blood's platelets extracted using a process akin to dialysis.
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a client who has just been diagnosed with asthma is receiving patient education. what information should the client be given about using a steroid inhaler
Client who has been diagnosed with asthma is receiving patient education. The information should be given to the client about using a steroid inhaler .
How to use a steroid inhaler?Steroid inhalers are also called corticosteroid inhalers. They are anti-inflammatory sprays that you breathe in. They are used to treat asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and are only available on prescription.
Information about using steroid inhaler are:
Hold the inhaler in the right position and breathe out fully before you breathe in and continue to breathe in even after hearing the click. Do not breathe out into the inhaler and replace the cap after use.Shake the inhaler in between puffs.Gargling and rinsing mouth with water after each dose may help prevent hoarseness, throat irritation, and infection in the mouth.To know more about asthma, refer
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a client who was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of thrombophlebitis 1 day ago suddenly reports chest pain and shortness of breath and is visibly anxious. the nurse immediately assesses the client for other signs and symptoms of
The nurse needs to assess the client right afterwards to look for any other Rationale symptoms or indicators.
Pulmonary embolism is a potentially lethal consequence of deep vein thrombosis and thrombophlebitis. The most common symptom is sudden onset, excruciating chest discomfort that gets worse as you breathe. Additional warning signs and symptoms include anxiety, diaphoresis, coughing, and dyspnea. When one of the pulmonary arteries in your lungs is clogged, it might result in a pulmonary embolism. Deep leg vein blood clots or, less frequently, veins in other parts of the body most frequently cause Rationale by making its way to the lungs (deep vein thrombosis).
Due to the clots' ability to prevent blood from getting to the lungs, pneumoembolism is a potentially fatal condition. But receiving prompt medical care greatly reduces the likelihood of dying.
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the hospital's grievance committee is made up of members from various departments and is responsible for reviewing patient grievances and making recommendations to promptly resolve those complaints. this committee is an example of a(n) blank team.
This committee is an example of a Parallel team.
A body of one or more people under the authority of a deliberative assembly is known as a committee or commission. A committee isn't taken into account to be an assembly in and of itself. The assembly typically refers issues to a committee in order to investigate them in greater detail than would be practicable if the assembly were to consider them directly. Depending on the sort of organization and its requirements, committees may have a variety of roles and work styles.
A committee assignment, which entitles a legislator to participate in a certain committee, may be given to a member of the legislature.A deliberative assembly has the option to create a committee (or "commission") made up of one or more people to help with the assembly work.
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a client who has a gastrostomy feeding tube is receiving 3/4 strength ensure 240 ml every 6 hours. full strength ensure is available in a 240 ml can. the nurse should use how many ml of ensure to prepare the feeding? (enter numeric value only. if needed, round to the nearest whole number.)
A purchaser who has a gastrostomy feeding tube is receiving three/four strength make certain 240 ml each 6 hours 240 ml ensure: 1: X ml make sure 175 240/X: 1 / 0.75 X = 240 x 0.75 =180 ml make sure + 60 ml water = 240 ml
A gastrostomy tube (additionally known as a G-tube) is a tube inserted thru the stomach that brings vitamins immediately to the belly. A surgeon places in a G-tube for the duration of a brief manner called a gastrostomy.
A tube is inserted through the wall of the abdomen without delay into the belly. It permits air and fluid to depart the stomach and can be used to present capsules and liquids, along with liquid meals, to the affected person. Giving meals via a gastrostomy tube is a type of enteral nutrition.
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a nurse assesses a postoperative client's level of consciousness and documents the following: the client's eyes open spontaneously; the client accurately responds to instructions, converses, and is oriented to time, place, and person. what score would this client receive on the glasgow coma scale
The client would score 14 on the Glasgow Coma Scale.This score indicates that the client is alert and oriented, and able to follow commands. The client is able to communicate and respond accurately to questions.
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a neurological scale that aims to give a reliable, objective way of recording the conscious state of a person for initial as well as continuing assessment.
The scale was originally published in 1974 by Graham Teasdale and Bryan Jennett, two professors of neurosurgery at the University of Glasgow, and has since become the most widely used measure of consciousness.
The GCS has three components: eye, verbal and motor responses. Each component is graded on a scale of 3 (fully awake and responsive) to 15 (unresponsive).
The total score ranges from 3 to 15, with lower scores indicating a more severe impairment of consciousness. A score of 8 or below is generally considered to be indicative of a coma.
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which nursing interventions are appropriate for inclusion into the care plan of a patient demonstrating agitation resulting from a manic episode? (select all that apply.)
-Maintain a consistent routine for the patient, Maintain a calm, quiet environment for the patient, and approach the patient in a non judgmental manner.
What is the meaning of patient or patience?The noun 'patience' refers to the ability to wait calmly or to endure hardship for an extended period of time without being angry or eager. The plural form of the word 'patients' refers to a person who obtains medical care.
How do doctors handle the death of a patient?The two most common responses were being upset when thinking the about patient (47%) but also feeling miserable after the death (24%). Interestingly, more experienced doctors reported fewer grief symptoms than the interns inside the study. But when it came to long-term care, none of this mattered.
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which of the following statements does not describe the consequence of inadequate calcium intake? a. low calcium intakes during the growing years limits the bones' ability to attain peak bone mass. b. a low-calcium intake during the growing years will not stunt the child's growth. c. by age 30, those with a high-peak bone mass will be well protected against age-related bone loss and fractures that can occur later in life. d. all adults lose bone as they grow older, beginning between 30 and 40.
The statements does not describe the consequence of inadequate calcium intake is by age 30, those with a high-peak bone mass will be well protected against age-related bone loss and fractures that can occur later in life. Thus, option C is correct.
Which food would suggested to the vegetarians to increase the calcium intake for adequate bone growth?
In such case dairy products such as calcium has been abundant in dairy products like milk, yogurt, and cheese, which are also frequently the best sources of calcium absorption. Fortified diets and foods made of plants do not absorb calcium as well.
As well as Calcium-rich meals are extremely important for developing and maintaining strong bones. It is also a key component for preserving regular cell activity. Your body needs calcium to support healthy muscle and neuron function, hormone levels, blood pressure, and cell-to-cell communication.
Therefore, The statements does not describe the consequence of inadequate calcium intake is by age 30, those with a high-peak bone mass will be well protected against age-related bone loss and fractures that can occur later in life. Thus, option C is correct.
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10 mL of a 20% (w/v) solution of a drug is added to 500 mL of dextrose 5% in water. What is the percentage strength (in % w/v) of the drug in the dextrose solution?
The percentage strength (in % w/v) of the drug in the dextrose solution 188.5g of dextrose are needed.
What is concentration?In Weight per volume percentage - %(w/v) -, the concentration is defined as the mass of solute in grams -In this case, dextrose-, in 100mL of solution. As you want to prepare 725mL of a 26.0% (w/v) solution. you need:
725mL * (26g / 100mL) = 188.5g of solute =
10 mL of a 20% (w/v) solution of a drug is added to 500 mL of dextrose 5% in water. In Weight per volume percentage - %(w/v) -, the concentration is defined as the mass of solute in grams -In this case, dextrose-, in 100mL of solution.
Therefore, The percentage strength (in % w/v) of the drug in the dextrose solution 188.5g of dextrose are needed.
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several urine tests can be useful in establishing a diagnosis of acute renal failure (arf). the nurse must consider that fractional excretion of sodium can be particularly affected by administration of which type of drug?
33. the nurse is assisting the hospitalized client with his food selections for breakfast. the client is on a low-cholesterol diet. what recommendations are most appropriate for this client?
Skim milk, oatmeal, banana, orange juice, coffee are most appropriate for this client
What is cholesterol ?All of the cells in your body contain cholesterol, a waxy, fatty-like substance. Your body needs cholesterol to produce hormones, vitamin D, and compounds that aid in food digestion. All the cholesterol your body needs is produced by you.
High blood cholesterol can be caused by a variety of factors, including underlying medical conditions like diabetes or high blood pressure, as well as lifestyle factors like smoking, eating poorly, and not exercising. Fatty deposits might form in your blood vessels if your cholesterol is excessive.Learn more about Cholesterol here:
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the nurse is preparing discharge education for a patient with a permanent colostomy. what information concerning diet and nutrition will the nurse include?
Concerning diet and nutrition, the nurse should inform the patient to eat low-fiber foods, such as well-cooked vegetables and strained vegetable juice. It's because the patient now has a permanent colostomy.
A colostomy is a surgical procedure that creates an opening in the large intestine. It is formed by drawing the healthy end of the colon through an incision in the abdominal wall and suturing the bag into place.
When a patient is discharged with a permanent colostomy, the nurse that is preparing for the discharge must educate the patient on several things. One thing that needs to be informed is diet and nutrition. The best food for the patient would be foods that contain low fiber, such as well-cooked vegetables and strained vegetable juice.
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the nurse is reviewing the client morning labs and notes the platelet level dropped from yesterday's level of 215,000/mcl and is now 175,000/mcl. what is the most appropriate intervention for the nurse to do at this time?
The nurse who is reviewing the platelet level of a patient notices that the count dropped from 215,000/MCL to 175,000/MCL. The nurse should follow the intervention by noting the lab value as within normal limits.
In the question, it is stated that the nurse reviews a client's lab reports regarding the platelet level. She assesses the condition and noticed that the platelet count dropped from 215,000/MCL to 175,000/MCL. It would be the appropriate intervention for the nurse to mark the count on this report as within normal limits.
Platelet count helps us to determine the number of platelets in your blood. Normal platelet count in a body generally is between 150,000/MCL to 400,000/MCL.
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a group of nursing students are analyzing the various categories of upper gastrointestinal system drugs. the instructor determines the session is successful when the students correctly choose which drug(s) as an example of a proton pump inhibitor?
Esomeprazole, omeprazole Drugs called proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) lessen the amount of stomach acid produced by glands in the lining of your stomach.
PPIs are ingested orally. They come in tablet or pill form. These medications are frequently given 30 minutes prior to the morning meal. Stomach H,K-ATPase is blocked by proton pump inhibitors (PPIs), which reduces the production of gastric acid. As part of combination regimens, this action allows for the healing of peptic ulcers, gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), Barrett's oesophagus, Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, and Helicobacter pylori eradication.Some PPI brands are available over-the-counter in stores.
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you have been caring for a hispanic patient with advanced obstructive lung disease for the past several weeks. the family has been at the bedside daily, with one member spending the night throughout the hospital stay. in planning for the death of the patient, how might spiritual and cultural beliefs most affect the plan of care?
We were caring for a Hispanic patient with superior obstructive lung disease for the past several weeks the rituals, practices, and beliefs approximately dying are important to the affected person and their own family.
Hispanic tradition is known for close ties with families, as well as rich culinary, musical, nonsecular, and holiday traditions which might be exceeded among households.
Hispanics have better-than-common rates of kind 2 diabetes and related complications, inclusive of kidney disease. Diabetes also can increase the chance of coronary heart sickness. once more, obesity is a major hazard thing for type 2 diabetes. Our weight loss program plays a chief position not just in our weight, but also in coping with our blood sugar stages.
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what is the definition of confounding? could you make a reasonable argument for pickled vegetable consumption or moldy bread consumption as potential confounders on the relationship between low vitamin c consumption and the risk of esophageal cancer?
Confounding is often referred to as effect mixing, in which the effects of the exposed research on a particular result are mixed in with the effects of another factor, resulting in deformations of the true relationship.
What foods should you avoid if you have esophageal cancer?
Foods that are extremely acidic or spicy, foods with sharp pointed edges, or foods that are extremely hot or cold Fluids can be irritating, especially sometimes during treatments.
Confounding refers to something unexpected or perplexing. If eating pickled vegetables or moldy bread raises vitamin C levels, or if it has no effect on vitamin C levels but is linked to esophageal cancer in some other way.
Therefore, confounding effects of mixing and pickled vegetable consumption or moldy bread cause esophageal cancer.
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when caring for a patient who is being ventilated with positive-pressure ventilation, the nurse understands that a complication associated can cause an increase in intrathoracic pressure. which answer best reflects this change in pressure as it relates to cardiac output?
The insertion of positive pressure into the airways while exhaling is known as PEEP. PEEP is expressed in water cm.
What is positive pressure ventilation?The most common kind of mechanical ventilation utilized nowadays is positive pressure ventilation. The ventilator pushes air into the airway wall during pressurized ventilation, and the ensuing pressure gradient drives airflow into the tiny airways and alveoli.
When ought positive pressure ventilation to be used?Acute effect of rising respiratory failure can be treated with NIPPV if the patient's condition responds to it. Relapses of chronic obstructive lung disease (COPD) and acute sinus tachycardia pulmonary edema are two conditions that respond best to NIPPV.
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a client with posttraumatic stress disorder (ptsd) has been unable to have restful sleep since being the victim of a robbery and assault. what should the nurse recommend?
A client with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) has been unable to have restful sleep since being the victim of a robbery and assault so the nurse should recommend Prazosin.
Prazosin is suggested as a first-line agent in sleep disturbances in anxiety disorder with a median dose for men at sixteen mg and for girls, seven mg titrated over five weeks. nontricyclic is employed in patients with initial-sleep sleep disorder with anxiety disorder at a beginning dose of fifty mg. Avoid benzodiazepines thanks to its abuse potential.
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a disorder that develops in some those who have practised a surprising, scary, or dangerous event. it's natural to feel afraid throughout and once a traumatic scenario. worry triggers several split-second changes within the body to assist defend against danger or to avoid it.
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a patient is admitted to the hospital through the ed with chf. after assessment, it was determined that she met criteria for ip admission. the nurse is writing her care plan based on established protocol. this protocol is called: group of answer choices
False; the nurse is basing her care plan on accepted procedure. Care pathway is the name of this approach.
What is a care pathway?Care plans are a technique to lay out the best practice procedure to be followed when undergoing treatment or consumer with a specific disease or set of needs. They should be evidence-based as they are a condensed version of the best expert analysis on the care procedure currently available.
How long do individuals remain here on end-of-life pathway?End-of-life care should start as soon as you want it and may continue a few days, months, or even longer on occasion. End-of-life care can help people in a variety of circumstances. a small number of months.
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When planning a classical conditioning experiment, what is the goal of the researcher? a. to teach the subject to respond to a conditioned response b. to teach the subject to respond to the conditioned stimulus c. to teach the subject to respond to the unconditioned stimulus d. to teach the subject to respond to an unconditioned response
The purpose of the classical conditioning experiment is (B) to teach the subject to respond to the conditioned stimulus.
What is classical conditioning?Classical conditioning is a learning process in which a neutral stimulus can elicit a new response after being paired with a stimulus that usually follows the response. Classical conditioning was originally discovered by Ivan Pavlov, a physiologist from Russia while conducting experimental research on the process of saliva production in dogs.
Classical conditioning laid the foundation for behaviorism, one of the most important schools of psychology, and was born as a result of Pavlov, a research psychologist who was interested in the physiology of digestion, especially in the salivary reflex in dogs.
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Each serving from the dairy group provides approximately ________ milligrams of calcium.
Answer: 300
Explanation:
which five foods in her diet are highest in folate? of these, which are fortified with folic acid? (note: fortified foods would be refined flour based on fact that folate is added to refined grains as required by law)
There is no one-size-fits-all answer to this question, as the amount of folate in a person's diet will vary depending on their individual dietary needs. However, some foods that are high in folate include leafy green vegetables, legumes, nuts, and fortified grains.
Of these, fortified grains are typically the best source of folic acid, which is the synthetic form of folate that is added to refined flour products as required by law. While leafy greens, legumes, nuts, and seeds also contain folate, they are not typically fortified with folic acid. Few others includes nuts and seeds like sunflower seeds and almonds and citrus fruits like oranges and grapefruits can be included in diet.
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a nurse is observing the interaction between a new mother and the neonate. the nurse notes that the neonate moves the head and eyes to focus on the mother's voice and smile. the nurse interprets this as which behavioral response?
Answer:orientation The neonate is demonstrating orientation, the neonate's ability to respond to auditory and visual stimuli, as demonstrated by the movement.
Explanation:
dont think this will be helpful but her ya go (credit quizlet)