A brass road is 2cm long at instance to what is the lense for a temperature rise of 100k, If the expansivity of brass is 18x10^-6/k^-1

Answer:

1.8/0.61 =2.95 ft

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Tysm!

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Answer:

it is either constant or zero

Explanation:

Answer:

the final angular velocity of the particle is approximately 38.18  Rad/s

Explanation:

To start with, let's make sure that units of angle measure are the same, converting everything into radians:

[tex]4500^o\, \frac{\pi}{180^o}= 25\,\pi[/tex]

And now we can use the kinematic formulas for rotational motion:

[tex]\theta-\theta_0=\omega_0\,t+\frac{1}{2} \alpha\,t^2[/tex]

Therefore we can find the initial angular velocity [tex]\omega_0[/tex]  of the particle:

[tex]\theta-\theta_0=\omega_0\,t+\frac{1}{2} \alpha\,t^2\\25\,\pi=\omega_0\,(3)+\frac{1}{2} (8)\,(3)^2\\25\,\pi-36=\omega_0\,(3)\\\omega_0=\frac{25\,\pi-36}{3} \\\omega_0\approx 14.18\,\,\,rad/s[/tex]

and now we can estimate the final angular velocity using the kinematic equation for angular velocity;

[tex]\omega=\omega_0\,+\alpha\,t\\\omega=14.18+8\,(3)\\\omega=38.18\,\,\,rad/s[/tex]

Answer:

  λ= 5.4379 10⁻⁷ m = 543.79 nm

Explanation:

The phenomenon of diffraction is described by the expression for destructive diffraction is

           a sin θ = (m + 1/2) λ

           λ = a sin θ / (m + 1/2)

let's reduce the magnitudes to the SI system

           a = 15 um = 15 10⁻⁶ m

           m = 2

           θ = 5.2º

Let's calculate

          λ = 15 10⁻⁶ sin 5.2 / (2 +1/2)

         λ = 5.4379 10⁻⁷ m

Let's reduce to nm

          λ= 5.4379 10⁻⁷ m = 543.79 nm

Answer:

cognitive behavioral therapy

Explanation:

Answer:

[tex]B=2.74\times 10^{-10}\ T[/tex]

Explanation:

It is given that,

A planar electromagnetic wave is propagating in the +x direction.The electric field at a certain point is, E = 0.082 V/m

We need to find the magnetic vector of the wave at the point P at that instant.

The relation between electric field and magnetic field is given by :

[tex]c=\dfrac{E}{B}[/tex]

c is speed of light

B is magnetic field

[tex]B=\dfrac{E}{c}\\\\B=\dfrac{0.082}{3\times 10^8}\\\\B=2.74\times 10^{-10}\ T[/tex]

So, the magnetic vector at point P at that instant is [tex]2.74\times 10^{-10}\ T[/tex].

The magnetic vector of the wave at the point P at that instant is [tex]2.73 \times 10^{-10}T[/tex]

The formula relating electric field and the magnetic field is given as;

[tex]c=\frac{E}{B}[/tex]

From the formula shown:

[tex]B=\frac{E}{c}\\B=\frac{0.082}{3.0\times 10^8}\\B=2.73 \times 10 ^{-10}T[/tex]

Hence the magnetic vector of the wave at the point P at that instant is [tex]2.73 \times 10^{-10}T[/tex]

Learn more on magnetic field here: https://brainly.com/question/21040756

Answer:

space exploration pays off in goods, technology, and paychecks. The work is done by people who are paid to do it here on Earth. The money they receive helps them buy food, get homes, cars, and clothing. They pay taxes in their communities, which helps keep schools going, roads paved, and other services that benefit a town or city. The money may be spent to send things "up there", but it gets spent "down here." It spreads out into the economy.

Answer:

The planet that is farther from the star must have a time period greater.

Explanation:

We can determine the ratio of the period's planet with the radius of the circular orbit in the star's equatorial plane:

[tex] T = 2\pi*\sqrt{\frac{r^{3}}{GM}} [/tex]     (1)

Where:

r: is the radius of the circular orbit of the planet and the star

T: is the period

G: is the gravitational constant

M: is the mass of the planet

From equation (1) we have:

[tex] T = 2\pi*\sqrt{\frac{r^{3}}{GM}} = k*r^{3/2} [/tex]   (2)          

Where k is a constant

From equation (2) we have that of the two planets, the planet that is farther from the star must have a time period greater.

I hope it helps you!

Answer:

T = 3.14 hours

Explanation:

We need to find the orbital period (in hours) of an observation satellite in a circular orbit 1,787 km above Mars.

We know that the radius of Mars is 3,389.5 km.

So, r = 1,787 + 3,389.5 = 5176.5 km

Using Kepler's law,

[tex]T^2=\dfrac{4\pi ^2}{GM}r^3[/tex]

M is mass of Mars, [tex]M=6.39\times 10^{23}\ kg[/tex]

So,

[tex]T^2=\dfrac{4\pi ^2}{6.67\times 10^{-11}\times 6.39\times 10^{23}}\times (5176.5 \times 10^3)^3\\\\T=\sqrt{\dfrac{4\pi^{2}}{6.67\times10^{-11}\times6.39\times10^{23}}\times(5176.5\times10^{3})^{3}}\\\\T=11334.98\ s[/tex]

or

T = 3.14 hours

So, the orbital period is 3.14 hours

Answer:

The velocity is  [tex]v_h = 19.2 \ m/s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The speed of the roller coaster at ground level  is [tex]v = 26 \ m/s[/tex]

Generally we can define the roller coaster speed at ground level using the an equation of motion as

     [tex]v^2 = u^2 + 2 g s[/tex]

 u is  zero given that the roller coaster started from rest

      So

            [tex]26^2 = 0 + 2 * g * s[/tex]

So  

           [tex]s = \frac{26^2}{ 2 * g }[/tex]

=>       [tex]s = 37.6 \ m[/tex]

Now the displacement half way is mathematically represented as

    [tex]s_{h} = \frac{37.6}{2}[/tex]

     [tex]s_{h} = 18.8 \ m[/tex]

So

      [tex]v_h ^2 = u^2 + 2 * g * s_h[/tex]

Where  [tex]v_h[/tex] is the velocity at the half way point

=>  [tex]v_h = \sqrt{ 0 + 2 * 9.8 * 18.8 }[/tex]

=>   [tex]v_h = 19.2 \ m/s[/tex]

Answer:

8 possible combinations

Assuming R 1, R 2 and R 3 be three different Resistance

1- all three in series

2-all three in parallel

3- R 1 and R 2 in series and parallel with R 3

​

4-R 1 and R 3 in series and parallel with R 2

​

5-R 2 and R 3 in series and parallel with R 1

​

6- R 1 and R 2

in parallel and series with R 3

​

7-R 1 and R 3 in parallel and series with R 2

​

8-R 2 and R 3 in V with R 1

​

Answer:

b) True. potencial diferencie does not depend on orientation

Explanation:

In this exercise we are asked to show which statements are true.

The expression the potential with respect to earth or the electric field with respect to earth refers to the potential or electric charge of the planet that is assumed to be very large and does not change in value during work.

It does not refer to the height of the system.

We can now review the claims

a) False. Potential not to be refers to height

b) True. Does not depend on orientation

c) False The potential does not refer to the altitude but to the Earth's charge

Answer:

2.2 ft

Explanation:

0.65 lb / 1 ft = 1.4 lb / x

x ≈ 2.2 ft

Answer:

433

Explanation:

Answer:

check photo for solve

Explanation:

Answer:

Lever => [tex]d_{e} = d_{r}[/tex]

Pulley => G = M x n (gravitational acceleration)

Wheel and axle => M.A = Radius of the wheel/radius of the axle = R/r

Inclined plane => It can be divided into two components: Fi = Fg * sinθ - parallel to inclined plane. Fn = Fg * cosθ - perpendicular one.

Answer:

Explanation:

The moment of inertia of the disk I  = 1/2 m R² where R is radius of the disc and m is its mass .

putting the values

I = .5 x 95 x .38²

= 6.86 kg m²

n = 87 rpm = 87 / 60 rps

n = 1.45 rps

angular velocity ω = 2π n , n is frequency of rotation .

= 2 x 3.14 x 1.45

= 9.106 radian /s

frictional force = 16 x .2

= 3.2 N

torque created by frictional force = 3.2 x .38

= 1.216 N.m

angular acceleration = torque / moment of inertia

= - 3.2 / 6.86

α  = - 0.4665 rad /s²

b ) ω² = ω₀² +  2 α θ , where α is angular acceleration

0 = 9.106² - 2 x .4665 θ

θ = 88.87 radian

no of turns = 88.87 / 2π

= 14.15  turns

Answer:

We apply force to move the brick.

Explanation:

Let me first of define a force .

A force is something applied to an object or thing to change it's internal or external state.

Now if a brick is resting on smooth wood inclined at 30° to the horizontal for us to overcome the friction which is also a force we have to apply a force greater than the gravity force acting on the body and then depending on the direction of the applied force the angle to apply it also.

Answer:

IMA is always larger than the AMA

Explanation:

IMA is Ideal Mechanical Advantage and it equals the length of effort that is divided by the length of resistance which is given by the formula

IMA= Fr/Fe

Where Fr is the resistance force

Fe is the effort force.

IM= de/dr

Where de is the distance of the applied effort  

dr is the distance traveled by the load.

In any real machine, the effort is needed to overcome friction and because of this, the ideal mechanical advantage(IMA) is always larger than the actual mechanical advantage (AMA)

Answer:

C. inertia

Explanation:

inertia describes an object’s resistance to change in motion (or to get in motion due to a lack of motion), and momentum describes how much motion it has.

both are connected, as inertia depends on the object's momentum, but the answer here is inertia.

Answer:

Current, I = 1.23 A

Explanation:

Given that,

Inductance, L = 35 mH

Resistance, R = 12 ohms

Potential difference, V = 18 V

We need to find current 5 ms after the switch is closed. Current in LR circuit is given by :

[tex]I=I_o(1-e^{-t/\tau })[/tex] ....(1)

Here,

[tex]I_o[/tex] is final current

[tex]I_o=\dfrac{V}{R}\\\\I_o=\dfrac{18}{12}=1.5\ A[/tex]

[tex]\tau[/tex] is time constant

[tex]\tau=\dfrac{L}{R}\\\\\tau=\dfrac{35\times 10^{-3}}{12}\\\\\tau=0.00291\ s[/tex]

So, equation (1) becomes :

[tex]I=1.5\times (1-e^{-5\times 10^{-3}/0.00291})\\\\I=1.23\ A[/tex]

So, after 5 ms the current in the circuit is 1.23 A.

Answer:

3.30 x 10^-7 Pascal

Explanation:

distance r = 1.5 m

power P = 700 W

the radiation pressure is given as

Pr = P/A*c

where

area of the surface A = 4πr^2

calculate for A

speed of light is c = 3×10^8  m/s

plugging above values in equation above gives

Pr = 3.30 x 10^-7 Pascal

Answer

1.07E22 Joules

Explanation;

We know that mass expands by a factor

=>>1/√[1-(v/c)²]

But v= 0.509c

So

1/√(1 - 0.509²)

=>>> 1/√(1 - 0.2591)

= >> 1/√(0.7409) = 1.16

But given that 121 tons is rest mass so 121- 1.16= 119.84 tons is kinetic energy

And we know that rest mass-energy equivalence is 9 x 10^19 joules per ton.

So Multiplying by 119.84

Kinetic energy will be 1.07x 10^22 joules

Answer:

They both have the same acceleration

Answer and Explanation:

The computation of the shortest wavelength in the series is shown below:-

[tex]\frac{1}{\lambda} = R(\frac{1}{n_f^2} - \frac{1}{n_i^2} )[/tex]

Where

[tex]\lambda[/tex] represents wavelength

R represents Rydberg's constant

[tex]n_f[/tex] represents Final energy states

and [tex]n_i[/tex] represents initial energy states

Now Substitute is

[tex]1.097\times 10^7\ m^{-1}\ for\ R, \infty for\ n_i,\ 3 for\ n_i,\\\\\ \frac{1}{\lambda} = R(\frac{1}{n_f^2} - \frac{1}{n_i^2} )[/tex]

now we will put the values into the above formula

[tex]= 1.097\times 10^7 m^{-1}(\frac{1}{3^2} - \frac{1}{\infty^2} )\\\\ = 1.097\times10^7\ m^{-1} (\frac{1}{9} )[/tex]

[tex]= 1218888.889 m^{-1}[/tex]

Now we will rewrite the answer in the term of [tex]\lambda[/tex]

[tex]\lambda = \frac{1}{1218888.889} m\\\\ = 0.82\times 10^{-6} m[/tex]

So, the whole Paschen series is in the part of the spectrum.

Answer:

8.65x10^3m

Explanation:

See attached file

Answer:

θ = 45.15°

Explanation:

We need to use the grating equation in this question. The grating equation is given as follows:

mλ = d Sin θ

where,

m = order number = 3

λ = wavelength of light = 520 nm = 5.2 x 10⁻⁷ m

d = slit spacing = 2.2 μm = 2.2 x 10⁻⁶ m

θ = angle from the axis = ?

Therefore,

(3)(5.2 x 10⁻⁷ m) = (2.2 x 10⁻⁶ m) Sin θ

Sin θ = (3)(5.2 x 10⁻⁷ m)/(2.2 x 10⁻⁶ m)

Sin θ = 0.709

θ = Sin⁻¹(0.709)

θ = 45.15°

Answer:

Explanation:

Bohr's atomic model was replaced by the  modern atomic model because of its limitations, which included :

(a) Only applicable for Hydrogen and like atoms ( He+1, Li+2 )

(b) Couldn't explain Zeeman Effect (splitting of spectral lines due external magnetic field ) and Stark Effect (splitting of spectral lines due to external electric field).

(c) Inconsistent with De-Broglie's Dual nature of matter and Heisenberg Uncertainty principal, etc.

Answer:

The additional load is 20g

Answer:

5 years old 7 months and 21 days

Explanation:

Answer:

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