Help me please !!!!!

Answer:

The summary including its circumstances in question is outlined in the illustrating segment below.

Explanation:

Answer:

The speed is 401.76m/s

Explanation:

To find the fundamental frequency we use

3rd.harmonic - 2nd.harmonic = 324Hz

And we know that

f=v/2L

So v=f2L

v= 324 x 2 x 0.62= 401.76m/s

Answer:

d. At the base of the fire

Explanation:

Most fire extinguisher utilize the non-combustible nature of carbon-dioxide . carbon-dioxide is what is used in fire extinguishers, because it does not support burning. Also, carbon-dioxide is denser than air, allowing it to sink down. Aiming at the bottom of the flame allows the carbon-dioxide to sink down on the base of the flame, covering the base of the fire, and cutting off its supply of oxygen which is vital for combustion.

Answer:

Acceleration (a) = 1.167 m/s²

Distance travel = 105 m (Approx)

Explanation:

Given:

Initial speed (u) = 14 m/s

Final speed (v) = 21 m/s

Time taken (t) = 6 sec

Find:

Acceleration

Distance travel

Computation:

v = u + at

21 = 14 + a(6)

7 = 6a

Acceleration (a) = 1.167 m/s²

S = ut + (1/2)(a)(t²)

S = (14)(6) + (1/2)(1.167)(6²)

S = 84 + 21

S = 105 m (Approx)

Distance travel = 105 m (Approx)

Answer:

d. The object has constant acceleration.

Explanation:

Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity.  So if the rate of change is the same at all times, then the acceleration is constant.

Answer:

9.3

Explanatin:

Answer:

4.5

Explanation:

Answer:

Explanation:

A. Using

Sinစ= y/ L = 0.013/2.7= 0.00481

စ=0.28°

B.here we use

Alpha= πsinစa/lambda

= π x (0.0351)sin(0.28)/588E-9m

= 9.1*10^-2rad

C.we use

I(စ)/Im= (sin alpha/alpha) ²

So

{= (sin0.091/0.091)²

= 3*10^-4

Answer:

The total distance of the truck is 14.6 km

The magnitude and direction of truck's disaplacement is 4 km east

Explanation:

Distance is the total path covered by the trcuk regardless of the direction since distance is described by magnitude only.

The total distance traveled by the truck is given by;

Total Distance = 1.9 km + 9.3 km + 3.4 km

Total Distance = 14.6 km

Displacement is the change in postion at a time interval. In dispalcement direction is considered.

let eastward motion be positive

let westward motion be negative

Displacement = 1.9km east - 9.3 km west + 3.4 km east

Displacement = -4 km east

Therefore, the magnitude and direction of dispalcement = 4 km east

The star is approximately 45° above the celestial equator.  (A)

"Declination" on the celestial coordinate system is equivalent to latitude on the terrestrial one.

Answer:

0N

Explanation:

When trying to figure out opposing forces, you have to add them together,

10 + -10 = 0,

so your answer is 0N

Answer:the answer is 0 N

Answer:

Because the force F is always at 90 degrees to the velocity of the particle.

Explanation:

The factors that determine the path of a particle in a uniform magnetic field depend on

The magnetic flux density

The charge on the particle

The speed of the particle

Why is the trajectory of the positively charged particle curving down, to the bottom of the screen, when moving in the magnetic field?

Because the force F is always at 90 degrees to the velocity of the particle.

This can be illustrated by the equation

F = BQVSINØ

The magnetic force is always acting perpendicular to the particle velocity and its direction can be found using the left hand rule.

Answer:

A) 443 Hz

B) She has to loosen the string

Explanation:

A) Given;

Beat frequency;f_beat = 3 Hz

Frequency of electronically generated tone; f_e = 440 Hz

We know that formula for beat frequency is given by;

f_beat = |f1 - f2|

Now, applying it to this question, we have;

f_beat = f_v - f_e

Where f_v is frequency of the note played by the violinist

Thus, plugging in the relevant values;

3 = f_v - 440

f_v = 3 + 440

f_v = 443 Hz

B) In the concept of wave travelling in a string, the frequency is directly proportional to the square root of the force acting on the string.

Now, for the violinist to get her violin perfectly tuned to concert A from what it was when she heard the 3-Hz beats, the beat frequency will have to be zero. Which means it has to decrease by 3 Hz. For it to decrease, it means that the force applied has to decrease as we have seen that frequency is directly proportional to the square root of the force acting on the string.

Thus, she would have to loosen the string.

Answer:

We know that

Velocity= wavelength x frequency

And f= 1/2π√T/u

So we also know that

The frequency of nth harmonic standing wave is

fn=nv/2L

So from the relationships above

We can see that as propagational velocity increases, the frequency increases and the wavelength decreases. So finally we can say that sinusoidal pattern on a string is shorter when there is a greater propagation velocity

Answer:

16 secs.

Explanation:

Data obtained from the question include the following:

Period on earth (T) = 8 secs

Next period (Tn) =?

Next, we shall determine the length of the string. This can be obtained as follow:

Period on earth (T) = 8 secs

Acceleration due to gravity on earth (gE) = 9.8 m/s²

Pi (π) = 3.14

Length of string (L) =?

T = 2π√(L/gE)

8 = 2 × 3.14 ×√(L/9.8)

8 = 6.28 × √(L/9.8)

Divide both side by 6.28

8/6.28 = √(L/9.8)

Take the square of both side

(8/6.28)² = L/9.8

Cross multiply

L = (8/6.28)² × 9.8

L = 15.9 m

Therefore the length of string is 15.9 m

Next, we shall determine the new period of the pendulum as follow:

Length (L) = constant = 15.9 m

Pi (π) = 3.14

Acceleration due to gravity on earth (gE) = 9.8 m/s²

Acceleration due to gravity on the planet (g) = 1/4 gE = 1/4 × 9.8 m/s²

= 2.45 m/s²

New period (Tn) =?

Tn = 2π√(L/g)

Tn = 2 × 3.14 × √(15.9/2.45)

Tn = 6.28 × √(15.9/2.45)

Tn = 16 secs.

Therefore, the new period of the pendulum is 16 secs.

Answer:

Tension in each cable = 175 N

Explanation:

Given:

Number of cables = 2

Weight of sign board(T) = 350 N

Find:

Tension in each cable

Computation:

We know that,

T1 = T2

So,

T1 + T2 = T

T1 + T2 = 350

T1 + T1 = 350

T1 = 175

Tension in each cable = 175 N

Answer:

The car is going to slow down to 3N.

Explanation:You have a force going 10N to the left and if you put an opposing force of 7N you get 3N of total force.

Answer:

this occurs because the energy of the constituents is greater than the energy of the material formed and this excess is what we can appreciate in the form of ligh

Explanation:

When the light stick breaks, it allows substances to mix, produced by a chemical reaction, which releases light into the environment.

The energy released is the energy energy of the excess when the transformation takes place, this occurs because the energy of the constituents is greater than the energy of the material formed and this excess is what we can appreciate in the form of light,

Answer:

the sphere

Explanation:

From the given information,

A free flow body diagrammatic expression  for the small uniform disk and a small uniform sphere which are released simultaneously at the top of a high inclined plane  can be seen in the image attached below.

From the diagram;

The Normal force mgsinθ - Friction force F  = mass m × acceleration a

Meanwhile; the frictional force

[tex]F = \dfrac{I \alpha }{R}[/tex]

where

[tex]\alpha = \dfrac{a}{R}[/tex]  in a rolling motion

Then;

[tex]F = \dfrac{I a }{R^2}[/tex]

∴

The Normal force mgsinθ - F  =  m ×  a     can be re-written as:

[tex]\mathtt{mg sin \ \theta- \dfrac{Ia}{R^2} = ma}[/tex]

making a the subject of the formula, we have:

[tex]a = (\dfrac{mg \ sin \theta}{m + \dfrac{I}{R^2}})[/tex]

Similarly;

I = mk²  in which k is the radius of gyration

∴

replacing I = mk² into the above equation , we have:

[tex]a = (\dfrac{mg \ sin \theta}{m + \dfrac{mk^2}{R^2}})[/tex]

where;

the uniform disk [tex]\dfrac{k^2}{R^2 }= \dfrac{1}{2}[/tex]  

the uniform  sphere [tex]\dfrac{k^2}{R^2 }= \dfrac{2}{5}[/tex]

∴

[tex]a = \dfrac{2}{3} \ g sin \theta \ for \ the \ uniform \ disk[/tex]

[tex]a = \dfrac{5}{7} \ g sin \theta \ for \ the \ uniform \ sphere[/tex]

We can now see that the uniform sphere is greater than the disk as such the sphere will reach the bottom first.

Answer:

12.5 m/s

Explanation:

If the avg speed is 10 m/s we assume that the speed is constant and not fluctuating

If VT (Velocity*Time) is equal to speed at the end of the 4 seconds of accel. it is the top speed at the finish line

since the speed is 0 at the beginning of races, we will use V0= 0 m/s

So the avg velocity for those 4 seconds is (VT+V0) /2 = or 1/2 VT (for 40% of the race)

The avg velocity for the last 6 seconds is, of course, VT (for 60% of the race

hence

(1/2VT)(.4) + VT(.6) = 10 m/s

VT = 10/.8 = 12.5 m/s

Answer:

The  value is   [tex]V_d  = 5 \ V[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The  capacitance of the capacitor is [tex]C =  0.16 \  pF  =  0.16*10^{-12} \ F[/tex]

     The  voltage is  [tex]V  =  10\ V[/tex]

    The number of electrons present on the negative plate is  [tex]N_e  =  1.00 *10^{7} \  electrons[/tex]

     Generally the charge on the positive plate at 10 Volt is mathematically represented as

            [tex]Q_a =  C *  V[/tex]

     =>   [tex]Q_a  =  0.16*10^{-12} *  10[/tex]

     =>    [tex]Q_a  =  0.16*10^{-11} \  C[/tex]

Now the charge  on the plate when the electron where placed is evaluated as

    [tex]Q_b  =  Q_a  + ( N_e * e)[/tex]

Where e  is the charge on each electron with a value  [tex]e =  1.60 *10^{-19} \ C[/tex]

     =>    [tex]Q_b  =  0.16*10^{-11} + (1.0*10^7 *  1.60*10^{-19})[/tex]

      =>  [tex]Q_b  = 3.2 *10^{-12 } \  C[/tex]

Generally the voltage between the two plate is evaluated as

       [tex]V_d  =  \frac{ Q_b  -  Q_a  }{ 2 * C }[/tex]

=>     [tex]V_d  = \frac{ 3.2*10^{-12} -  0.16*10^{-11}}{2 *  0.16 *10^{-12}}[/tex]

=>      [tex]V_d  = 5 \ V[/tex]

Answer:

The minimum thickness of the soap bubble for destructive interference to occur is 225.56 nm.

Explanation:

Given;

wavelength of light, λ = 600 nm

The minimum thickness of the soap bubble for destructive interference to occur is given by;

[tex]t = \frac{\lambda/n}{2}\\\\t = \frac{\lambda}{2n}[/tex]

where;

n is refractive index of soap film = 1.33

[tex]t = \frac{\lambda}{2n} \\\\t = \frac{600*10^{-9}}{2(1.33)}\\\\t = 2.2556 *10^{-7} \ m\\\\t = 225.56 *10^{-9} \ m\\\\t = 225.56 \ nm[/tex]

Therefore, the minimum thickness of the soap bubble for destructive interference to occur is 225.56 nm.

Answer:

The value is [tex]B = 7.7106 *10^{-12 } \ T[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

The energy is [tex]E = 10.0 MeV = 10.0 *10^{6} \ eV = 10.0 *10^{6} * 1.60*10^{-19} = 1.6 *10^{-12} \ J[/tex]

The  radius  is  [tex]R = 5.80 *10^{10} \ m[/tex]

Generally the magnetic field is mathematically represented as

       [tex]B = \frac{m * v }{q * R }[/tex]

Where m is the mass of  proton with value  [tex]m = 1.6*10^{-27} \ kg[/tex]

 v is the velocity of the proton which is mathematically deduced  from the formula for kinetic energy as

                   [tex]v = \sqrt{ \frac{E }{ 0.5 * m } }[/tex]

Here E is also equivalent to kinetic energy of the proton so

                   [tex]v = \sqrt{ \frac{1.6 *10^{-12} }{ 0.5 * 1.6*10^{-27} } }[/tex]

                 [tex]v = 4.47214 *10^{7} \ m/s[/tex]

So  

     [tex]B = \frac{1.60 *10^{-27} * 4.47214 *10^{7}}{ 1.60 *10^{-19} * 5.80*10^{10}}[/tex]

      [tex]B = 7.7106 *10^{-12 } \ T[/tex]

The magnetic field in the region has a magnitude of 7.7×[tex]10^{-12}[/tex] T.

Let's consider the magnetic field in the region be B. Now the proton in the given orbit is in equilibrium under the influence of centripetal force ([tex]F_{c}[/tex]) and magnetic force([tex]F_{b}[/tex]).

[tex]F_{c}[/tex] = [tex]F_{b}[/tex]

m[tex]v^{2}[/tex]/R = qvB

⇒ B = mv/qR

where, m is the mass of proton =  1.6 × [tex]10^{-27}[/tex] kg

            q is the charge of proton = 1.6 × [tex]10^{-19}[/tex] C

            R is the radius of the orbit = 5.8 × [tex]10^{10}[/tex] m

now we can calculate the velocity of the proton, v, from the energy of the proton given in the question that is E = 10 MeV.

1 MeV = 1.6 × [tex]10^{-19}[/tex] J

           v = [tex]\sqrt{\frac{2E}{m} }[/tex]

               =[tex]\sqrt{\frac{2*10*10^{6}* 1.6*10^{-19} }{1.6*10^{-27} } }[/tex]

            v = 4.47 × [tex]10^{7}[/tex] m/s

now,

        B = mv/qR

           = [tex]\frac{1.6*10^{-27}*4.47*10^{7} }{1.6*10^{-19}*5.8*10^{10} }[/tex]

       B = 7.7 ×[tex]10^{-12}[/tex] T

Learn more about magnetic force :

https://brainly.com/question/25746114

A hypothesis. It is the first step to the scientific method.

Answer:

Hey!

Your answer is 10^12 nanometers!

Explanation:

AKA

1,000,000,000,000  nm

HOPE THIS HELPS!!

Answer:

32.6mm

Explanation:

Using area of a sphere(bulb) = 4πr²

So A is proportional to radius²

So the Energy will be proportional to r²

But 120/80 = 1.5 is the energy factor so

Using

1.5/d² = 1/r²

1.5/40²= 1/r^2

r = √( 40²/ 1.5)

r = 32.6m

Answer:

5730 guppies

Explanation:

1 liter= 38.2 guppies

150 liters= 150×38.2

On planet Q the standard unit of volume is called guppi. Space travelers from Earth have determined that one liter = 38.2 guppies. Guppies in 150 liters is 5730 guppies.

Volume, which is measured in cubic units, is the 3-dimensional space occupied by matter or encircled by a surface. The cubic meter (m³), a derived unit, is the SI unit of volume. A addition new nickname for the cubic (dm³) is a liter (L).

Given that in the question on planet Q the standard unit of volume is called guppi, the conversion of different volume unit,

1 liter = 38.2 guppies, so

150 litre =  5730 guppies

Guppies in the given 150 liters of volume is 5730 guppies.

To learn more about volume refer to the link:

brainly.com/question/13338592

 #SPJ2

Explanation:

The electromagnetic spectrum consists of series of waves that are arranged from longest wavelength to shortest.

Answer:

hello the diagram related to your question is missing attached below is the missing diagram

answer : 107.07⁰

Explanation:

The direction of the force can be calculated as below

angle = 180 - ∝ - ∅  ------ 1

∅ = [tex]tan^{-1} b/a[/tex] = tan^-1 ( 0.429 )

∅ = 23.2⁰

∝  can be determined by applying the parallelogram law

∝ = [tex]tan^{-1} ( \frac{R24sin56.4}{f13 + R24cos56.4} )[/tex]

   = tan^-1 ( 21.173 / 17.935 )

∝ = 49.73⁰    

back to equation 1 direction of force with positive angle

= 180 - 49.73 - 23.2 = 107.07⁰