Answer:
sea water has lot of salt which is dangerous to human health
Explanation:
i don't seem to see any video.i which I could answer your questions
In the DNA isolation process, cells are mixed with sodium chloride (i.e. NaCl) because the sodium (Na ) neutralizes the negative charge of DNA.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
this is true it neutralise easily
It is true that in the DNA isolation process, cells are mixed with sodium chloride (i.e. NaCl) because the sodium (Na ) neutralizes the negative charge of DNA.
What is DNA isolation?DNA extraction is a method of separating DNA from cell membranes, proteins, and other cellular components using physical and/or chemical methods from a sample. In 1869, Friedrich Miescher isolated DNA for the first time.
The ability to extract DNA is critical for studying the genetic causes of disease and developing diagnostics and drugs.
It is also required for forensic science, genome sequencing, detecting bacteria and viruses in the environment, and determining paternity.
Because sodium (Na+) neutralizes the negative charge of DNA, cells are mixed with sodium chloride (i.e. NaCl) during the DNA isolation process. It makes homogenization easier.
Thus, the given statement is true.
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Which two Neolithic activities came about because of climate change?
Answer:
1. Domesticating animals
2. Farming grains
Explanation:
Poeple started doing these without machines because of climate change.
How green is green energy?
Answer:
Green energy is important for the environment as it replaces the negative effects of fossil fuels with more environmentally-friendly alternatives. Derived from natural resources, green energy is also often renewable and clean, meaning that they emit no or few greenhouse gases and are often readily available.
When is a hypothesis considered scientific?
A hypothesis is considered scientific if it has something that can be supported or refuted through carefully crafted experimentation or observation
Explain this statement
" The role of oxygen in the regulation of respiratory rhythm is quite significant"
Answer:
Pneumotaxic centre in the pons region of the brain can moderate functions of the respiratory rhythm centre. Neural signals from this centre can reduce the duration of inspiration and thereby alter the respiratory rate. A chemosensltive area is situated adjacent to the rhythm centre to make necessary adjustments in the respiratory process. Receptors associated with aortic arch and carotid artery also can recognise changes in CO
2
and H+ concentration and send necessary signals to the rhythm centre for remedial actions. The role of oxygen in the regulation of respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant.
So, the correct answer is 'Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion'.
Explanation:
Answer:
this means that the oxygen is maintained by the respiratory rhythm.
Explanation:
I 4. Rewrite the sentence correctly. “All the organelles shown in the typical plant or animal cell will exist in every cell”.
All the genetic materials shown in the typical plant or animal cell will exist in every cell”.
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Which properties of systems does a robot have? Which does it not have?
Answer:
Robot has physical structure, movable and brain.
Robot has no feelings and no ability of reproduction.
Explanation:
A robot have the following properties of systems such as they have a physical structure which helps them to move from place to place. They also have a sensor system which detect any change in the environment, a power supply which helps them for doing different activities and a computer brain which control all the activities. A robot does not have any feelings such as pain, happiness etc because it is a machine and inability to reproduce like humans.
Imagine that plaque uniformly coats the walls of the blood vessel in the diagram. Based on the diagram, what is the reduced area inside the blood vessel? Round your answer to the nearest tenth. The equation for the area of a circle is A = πr2, where A is area, π ≈ 3.14, and r is the radius. Recall that the radius is half of the diameter.
Hello. You forgot to put the image that complements this question.
The image is attached below:
Answer:
A = 38.465.
Explanation:
To arrive at the result you will have to perform a very simple calculation, using the fromula shown in the question above.
First, it will be necessary to find the diameter of the figure, to
therefore, you will have to divide, which will result in 3.5.
You can now replace the values in the formula: A = (3.14) (3.5) ² = (3.14) (12.25)= 38.465.
Answer:
12.56
Explanation:
what are the advantage of the presence of hydrogen in large scale in the sun ?
hydrogen is essential to nuclear fusion. hydrogen is the fuel the sun burns. we don't have to burn solar energy, so there's no smoke and pollution
Answer:
Hydrogen fusion reaction is the one which provides so much light and heat (in short, energy) which escapes into space and spread. If Hydrogen on sun ends, It will lose its warmth (and may be soon become a planet, but will surely be a dead star).
Explanation:
Answer from Gauth math
characteristics of euglena
Answer:
Euglena is a large genus of unicellular protists: they have both plant and animal characteristics. All live in water, and move by means of a flagellum. This is an animal characteristic. Most have chloroplasts, which are characteristic of algae and plants.
You perform a test cross of the dihybrid AaBb and score the phenotypes of 1000 progeny. Assuming independent assortment, how many of the progeny do you expect to display the dominant phenotype for both the A and B genes?
Answer:
4
Explanation:
The number of progeny expected to display the dominant phenotype for both the A and B genes should be 4.
A test cross usually involves crossing an individual whose zygosity is in doubt with an individual that is recessive for both alleles so as to ascertain the zygosity of the former. Hence, for a test cross involving AaBb:
AaBb x aabb
Progeny:
4 AaBb
4 Aabb
4 aaBb
4 aabb
Therefore, the number of progeny expected to display the dominant phenotype for both the A and B genes is 4.
Given the gene sequence GGACCGTCGATCTTC, which of the following choices would represent an inversion mutation? A. GGACTCGATCTTC B. CCACCGTCGATCTTC C. GGACCGTCGATCTTC D. GGACCGTCGATCCTT
Answer:
D. GGACCGTCGATCCTT
Explanation:
Mutation refers to any change in the nucleotide sequence of a gene. Mutation can be of different types depending on how it occurs. According to the question, an INVERSION mutation is a type of mutation in which a segment of a gene gets broken off and reattached in another way on the same DNA. Hence, the only change in inversion mutation is the arrangement of the nucleotide bases on the gene.
Considering the nucleotide sequence: GGACCGTCGATCTTC, the sequence that describes an occurrence of inversion mutation is: GGACCGTCGATCCTT because the segment TTC in the original sequence has been rearranged as CTT in the mutated sequence.
Answer: GGACCGTCGATCCTT
Explanation: mutation means change and there is change in the gene sequence
If a cusp is lost during preparation, which matrix band would provide the best support while restoring
Answer:
I would use a specialized or preformed matrix for the posterior sector.
Explanation:
Losing a cusp is a much more critical situation, that is, there will be less tooth remnant and less resistance to functional and parafunctional forces.
The matrices that are usually used in the posterior sector are matrices that must be burnished and already come with a format to better restore the functional unit of the occlusal surface.
It is important to clarify that cusps are only in the posterior sector and not in the anterior sector.
The cusps, even if they have the most correct selection of the matrix, will fail in their restoration if they are not performed according to the patient's occlusion, under a good dental integration system such as adhesion through resins, and respecting the normal antomy of the piece to be restored.
ASAP Why is ATP used as an active energy source over glucose? A. It is more abundant in food sources. B. It releases its energy quickly in a single reaction. C. It releases its energy slowly through multiple reactions, allowing it to last longer. D. It has more energy.
Answer:
B.
Explanation:
Glucose is an organic molecule that stores ATP or energy while Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is an energy-carrying molecule.
ATP used as an active energy source over glucose because ATP is a shorter process and releases energy in a single reaction as glucose first converted into ATP and then used as energy in cellular respiration.
Hence, the correct option is "B".
Como harías para ver microorganismos del suelo con plantas y del suelo sin plantas
Answer:
i didn't understand what you told
Squamous cells specialize in what function? A) the secretion of enzymes B) diffusion of gasses C) the absorption of nutrients D) none of the above
Answer:
The abosbton of nutrients
Please help me with this.
Answer:
natural selection is the answer
The essence of meiosis is that a. specialized cell division reduces the chromosome number by half b. gametes are formed that are diploid c. specialized cell division doubles the chromosome number d. gametes are formed that are haploid e. a and d are correct
Answer:
e. a and d are correct
Explanation:
Meiosis produces 4 daughter cells that are haploid. Haploid means they have half of the chromosomes of the parent cell.
The essence of meiosis is that specialized cell division reduces the chromosome number by half and gametes are formed that are haploid.
Therefore option e is the right answer.
What is meiosis?A single cell splits twice during the meiotic process, resulting in four cells with half the original genetic material. These cells are our sex cells—eggs in females and sperm in males—and they are produced by a specific form of germ cell division in sexually reproducing species. Two rounds of division are necessary, and the end product is four cells with just one copy of each chromosome. The goal is to produce gametes, or sperm and eggs, that contain half of the parent cells' genetic makeup. Meiosis is characterized by DNA replication, two rounds of cell division, and the production of four daughter cells, each of which has half as many chromosomes as the parent cell.To learn more about meiosis, refer
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n your lab you are studying the genome of venomous rattlesnakes to find the gene which codes for their venom glands. You have two rattlesnakes, one rattlesnake has a mutation but can still produce venom. You compare his DNA to a normal rattlesnake. What type of mutation has occurred? Normal: AATCGCTACGCACGTCAG Mutated: TATCGCTACGCACGTCAG
Answer:
There are no options but the kind of mutation that occurred by carefully observing both sequences is:
POINT SUBSTITUTION MUTATION
Explanation:
Mutation is any change, whether small or big, in the nucleotide sequence of a gene (DNA). Mutation occurs from time to time in an organism either by a mistake during DNA replication or induced by a mutagen (mutation-causing substance). Mutation can be of different types depending on the effect on the mutant.
In this case of comparing the DNA sequence two rattle snakes, the sequences of the two snakes are:
Normal: AATCGCTACGCACGTCAG
Mutated: TATCGCTACGCACGTCAG
By carefully observing the two DNA sequences, one would realize that the only difference in the two sequences is the first nucleotide base. That is, in the normal sequence, th first base is Adenine (A) while in the mutated sequence, the first base is Thymine (T).
This type of mutation that involves only one nucleotide base is called POINT MUTATION. It can also be noticed that base "A" was changed "T". Hence, this is a type of SUBSTITUTION MUTATION because a single base was replaced by another in the sequence.
The backbone vertebrae, skull, and rib cage make up the _______ skeleton. Among other types of cells, bone marrow produces _______ blood cells, which carry oxygen in the blood. _______ can eventually become osteocytes. If bones rapidly deconstruct faster than new bone tissue grows, this can lead to less dense and more fragile bones. When severe, this condition is called _______. _______ such as the MCL and ACL connect bone to other bone at joints.
ANSWERS :
1.axial
2. red
3. Osteoblasts
4. osteoporosis
5. Ligaments
6. Osteoblasts are cells that build bone tissue, and are called osteocytes when they become surrounded by the bone that they have built. Osteoclasts are cells that break down bone tissue. The building and breaking down of bone tissue continues throughout a person’s lifetime and makes bones strong. If osteoclasts break down more bone than osteoblasts build, this can lead to osteopenia and osteoporosis, causing bones to be fragile and break more easily.
Answer:
1. axial
2. red
3. Osteoblasts
4. osteoporosis
5. Ligaments
Explanation:
The axial skeleton consists of the bones of the head and trunk of a vertebrate including skull, and rib cage.
Bone marrow produces red blood cells, which carry oxygen in the blood.
Osteoblasts can become osteocytes, which are the third type of bone cells.
Osteoporosis is a bone resorption disease in which bones rapidly deconstruct faster than new bone tissue grows, and decreases the mechanical strength of bones.
Ligaments connects one bone to other at joint such as medial collateral ligament (MCL) and anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) that joins knee.
Hence, the correct answer for the question is as follows:
1.axial
2. red
3. Osteoblasts
4. osteoporosis
5. Ligaments
Answer:
1. axial
2. red
3. Osteoblasts
4. osteoporosis
5. Ligaments
6. Osteoblasts are cells that build bone tissue, and are called osteocytes when they become surrounded by the bone that they have built. Osteoclasts are cells that break down bone tissue. The building and breaking down of bone tissue continues throughout a person’s lifetime and makes bones strong. If osteoclasts break down more bone than osteoblasts build, this can lead to osteopenia and osteoporosis, causing bones to be fragile and break more easily.
Explanation:
Penn Foster
Mountain ranges are created at boundaries between tectonic plates a. b. transform transflux divergent convergent C. d. 5
Define Siamese twins
Answer:
Conjoined twins are two babies who are born physically connected to each other. Conjoined twins develop when an early embryo only partially separates to form two individuals. Although two fetuses will develop from this embryo, they will remain physically connected — most often at the chest, abdomen or pelvis.
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(iii) Enzymes P, Q and R (choose any one)
P - pepsin / protease
Q - amylase / carbohydrase
R - lipase / trypsin / protease / amylase
(c) There are many ways in which different types of enzymes are using in preparing baby foods such as the amylase breaks down the starch and the starch breaks down to maltose or glucose. The protease breaks down protein and the protein breaks down into amino acids. The lipase breaks down fats and then the fats break down to gylcerol.
Hope it's help you.If it is right
Chinstrap and Gentoo penguins are two species of penguins that feed on krill in the Antarctic Ocean.
a. True
b. False
In a laboratory experiment with three groups of students, one group drinks pure water, a second group drinks an equal amount of beer, and a third group drinks an equal amount of concentrated salt solution, all during the same time period. Their urine production is monitored for several hours. Which groups are expected to have the greatest and least amounts of urine, respectively
Answer:
beer is the greatest and salt solution would be least
Explanation:
Match each term with the best description.
a. Membrane-bound structure that supports energy production.
b. Semi-permeable, living covering of the cell.
c. Long, whip-like appendage used for locomotion.
d. Membrane-bound structure containing the hereditary material of the cell.
e. Gel-like substance encompassing the contents of the cell
f. Basic structural and functional unit of living orgaisms
1. Cell
2. Cell membrane
3. Cytoplasm
4. Flagellum
5. Mitochondrion
6. Nucleus
Answer:
a) 5. mitochondrion
b) 2. cell membrane
c) 4. flagellum
d) 6. nucleus
e) 3. cytoplasm
f) 1. cell
Professor George Palade’s elegant experiment to follow protein synthesis and trafficking, published nearly 60 years ago, provided us with a great deal of information and has been used as a tool by several investigators. If you had access to all the reagents needed to repeat the in vitro experiment, describe what you would need to do to see the progression of newly synthesized proteins and their transport in the cell.
Answer:
The interpretation including its particular topic is demonstrated in the following portion on the interpretation.
Explanation:
After experiments with Guinea Pigs, Palade transitioned to anything in vitro research in which sections of pancreatic tissue had all been subjected to a pulsed radioactive lysine for something like a shorter amount of time. The radiation leucine pulse must have been subsequently adopted with nonradioactive leucine, as well as the pieces have been fixed but instead analyzed besides electron microscopy as well as transmission line during some different points in time.Effects from either the radioactive elements with leucine throughout the reflective coating surrounding the tissue fragments formed autoradiographic particles.Such granules eventually passed forward towards the Golgi throughout corresponding different points in time, as well as subsequently towards the cell membranes, whereby they seemed equipped for induction as established zymogen granulates.The maps below represent the same area of the Amazon rainforest over an 8-year period as humans moved into the rainforest. Forested areas are shown in deep green, and cleared areas are tan (bare ground) or light green (pasture land). Which of the following statements is best supported by evidence from the maps? A. This area became more densely populated with trees between 2000 and 2008. B. Humans living in this area began an extensive forest restoration program between 2000 and 2008. C. Humans began leaving this area to find jobs in nearby cities between 2000 and 2008. D. This area changed appearance between 2000 and 2008 because trees were cleared.
Answer:
D.)
Explanation:
am smart
Answer:
D. This area changed appearance between 2000 and 2008 because trees were cleared
Explanation:
I got it right on study island
In prokaryotic cells, regulator proteins bind to a section of DNA called alan (1 point)
O repressor
o promoter
O chromatin.
o operon.
Answer:
promoter
Explanation:
Answer: Operon
Explanation:
A client reports extremely frequent urination, sometimes urinating 10 to 12 times each day.
What fluid balance disorder would be expected with these symptoms?
Answer:
Lack of Antidiuretic hormone.
Explanation:
Antidiuretic hormone is a type of hormone which is responsible for controlling urination. It is produced in hypothalamus which is a part of a brain. Antidiuretic hormone is responsible to tell the kidney how much water in the body should be conserve to avoid dehydration. If less antidiuretic hormone is produced by the body so more urine is produced. Frequent urination is also occurs due to Diabetes insipidus. This disease produce more urination in order to control the concentration of glucose in the blood.