the acceleration due to gravity jupiter is 25m/s Square . what does it mean
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Answer:

Change in the frequency (in Hz) = 104.96 Hz

Explanation:

Given:

Speed of sound in air (v) = 343 m/s

Speed of car (v1) 36 m/s

Frequency(f) = 500 Hz

Find:

Change in the frequency (in Hz)

Computation:

Frequency hear by the observer(before)(f1) = [f(v+v1)] / v

Frequency hear by the observer(f1) = [500(343+36)] / 343

Frequency hear by the observer(f1) = 552.48 Hz

Frequency hear by the observer(after)(f2) = [f(v-v1)] / v

Frequency hear by the observer(f2) = [500(343-36)] / 343

Frequency hear by the observer(f2) = 447.52 Hz

Change in the frequency (in Hz) = f1 - f2

Change in the frequency (in Hz) = 552.48 Hz - 447.52 Hz

Change in the frequency (in Hz) = 104.96 Hz

We know

[tex]\boxed{\sf m=-\dfrac{v}{u}}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto 3=-\dfrac{-40}{u}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto 3=\dfrac{40}{u}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto u=\dfrac{40}{3}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto u=13.3cm[/tex]

Answer:

a. to the west.

Explanation:

An electron in a magnetic field always experience a force that tends to change its direction of motion through the magnetic field. According to Lorentz left hand rule (which is the opposite of Lorentz right hand rule for a positive charge), the left hand is used to represent the motion of an electron in a magnetic field. Hold out the left hand with the fingers held out parallel to the palm, and the thumb held at right angle to the other fingers. If the thumb represents the motion of the electron though the field, and the other fingers represent the direction of the field, then the palm will push in the direction of the force on the particle.

In this case, if we point the thumb (which shows the direction we shot the electron) to the south (towards your body), with the palm (shows the direction of the force) facing up to the roof, then the fingers (the direction of the field) will point west.

Complete Question

A voltaic cell utilizes the following reaction and operates at 298 K:

3Ce4+(aq)+Cr(s)→3Ce3+(aq)+Cr3+(aq).

What is the emf of this cell under standard conditions? Express your answer using three significant figures.

Answer:

The value is [tex]E^o_{cell} = 2.35 V[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The ionic equation is  

               [tex]3 Ce^{4 +} _{(aq)} + Cr _{(s)} \to 3 Ce^{3+} _{(aq)} + Cr^{3r} _{(aq)}[/tex]

Now under standard conditions the reduction  half reaction  is

      [tex]Ce^{4+} + e \to Ce^{3+} ; \ \ E^o_r = 1.61 V[/tex]

And the oxidation half reaction is

      [tex]Cr^{3+} + 3e^{-} \to Cr ; \ \ \ E^o_o = - 0.74 V[/tex]

The emf of this cell under standard conditions  is mathematically represented as

     [tex]E^o_{cell} = E^o _r - E^o _o[/tex]

substituting values

     [tex]E^o_{cell} = 1.61 - (- 0.74)[/tex]

    [tex]E^o_{cell} = 2.35 V[/tex]

Answer:

momentum (m)=36.9N

velocity (v)=7.56m/s

now,

momentum (m)=m×v

36.9=m×7.56

36.9÷7.56=m

m=4.89kg

Answer:

(a). The largest value of θ is 71.9°.

(b). The second largest value of θ is 57.7°.

(c). The third largest value of θ is 47.7° .

Explanation:

Given that,

Width of diffraction grating [tex]w= 19.2\ mm[/tex]

Number of rulings[tex]N=6010[/tex]

Wavelength = 337 nm

We need to calculate the distance between adjacent rulings

Using formula of distance

[tex]d=\dfrac{w}{N}[/tex]

Put the value into the formula

[tex]d=\dfrac{19.2\times10^{-3}}{6010}[/tex]

[tex]d=3.19\times10^{-6}\ m[/tex]

We need to calculate the value of m

Using formula of constructive interference

[tex]d \sin\theta=m\lambda[/tex]

[tex]\sin\theta=\dfrac{m\lambda}{d}[/tex]

Here, m = 0,1,2,3,4......

[tex]\lambda[/tex]=wavelength

For largest value of  θ

[tex]\dfrac{m\lambda}{d}>1[/tex]

[tex]m>\dfrac{d}{\lambda}[/tex]

Put the value into the formula

[tex]m>\dfrac{3.19\times10^{-6}}{337\times10^{-9}}[/tex]

[tex]m>9.46[/tex]

[tex]m = 9[/tex]

(a). We need to calculate the largest value of θ

Using formula of constructive interference

[tex]\theta=\sin^{-1}(\dfrac{m\lambda}{d})[/tex]

Now, put the value of m in to the formula

[tex]\theta=\sin^{-1}(\dfrac{9\times337\times10^{-9}}{3.19\times10^{-6}})[/tex]

[tex]\theta=71.9^{\circ}[/tex]

(b). We need to calculate the second largest value of θ

Using formula of constructive interference

[tex]\theta=\sin^{-1}(\dfrac{m\lambda}{d})[/tex]

Now, put the value of m in to the formula

[tex]\theta=\sin^{-1}(\dfrac{8\times337\times10^{-9}}{3.19\times10^{-6}})[/tex]

[tex]\theta=57.7^{\circ}[/tex]

(c). We need to calculate the third largest value of θ

Using formula of constructive interference

[tex]\theta=\sin^{-1}(\dfrac{m\lambda}{d})[/tex]

Now, put the value of m in to the formula

[tex]\theta=\sin^{-1}(\dfrac{7\times337\times10^{-9}}{3.19\times10^{-6}})[/tex]

[tex]\theta=47.7^{\circ}[/tex]

Hence, (a). The largest value of θ is 71.9°.

(b). The second largest value of θ is 57.7°.

(c). The third largest value of θ is 47.7° .

Answer:

Explanation:

The fundamental frequency f₀ is expressed as f₀ =V/2L where;

V is the speed of the string = [tex]\sqrt{\frac{T}{M} }[/tex]

m is the mass of the string

L is the length of the string

T is the tension in the string

f₀ = [tex]\frac{1}{2L} \sqrt{\frac{T}{m} }[/tex]

Given datas

m = 5.69g = 0.00569 kg

T = 440N

L = 0.630 m

Required

Fundamental frequency of the steel piano wire f₀

[tex]f_0 = \frac{1}{2(0.630)}\sqrt{\frac{440}{0.00569} } \\ \\f_0 = \frac{1}{1.26}\sqrt{77,328.65 } \\\\f_0 = \frac{1}{1.26} * 278.08\\\\f_0 = 220.698Hz[/tex]

Hence the frequency of the fundamental mode of vibration of the steel piano wire stretched to a tension of 440N is 220.698Hz

1. Identification of the problem whether the new drug works in cancer patients.

2. Create a hypothesis like, if the new drugs works on all types of cancers.

3. Variables like placebo effect of the drug and its dosages to be administered.

4. Creating experiments to test the viability of the drug.

5. Analyzing results of the experimentation.

6. Form a conclusion and test further depending on the result of the experiments.

Answer:

Distance = 13 units

Explanation:

The overall path covered by an object during its journey is called distance covered.

In this problem, a person starts at position zero, walks to position 8, then walks to position 5.

We need to find the person's distance traveled. It can be calculated simply by adding all the positions i.e.

Distance = 0+8+5

Distance = 13

Hence, the distance covered by the person is 13 units.

Answer:

Explanation:

Before calculating the work function, we must know the formula for calculating the kinetic energy of an electron. The kinetic energy of an electron is the taken as the difference between incident photon energy and work function of a metal.

Mathematically, KE =  hf - Ф where;

h is the Planck constant

f is the frequency = c/λ

c is the speed of light

λ is the wavelength

Ф is the work function

The formula will become KE =  hc/λ - Ф. Making the work function the subject of the formula we have;

Ф = hc/λ - KE

Ф = hc/λ - 1/2mv²

Given parameters

c = 3*10⁸m/s

λ = 97*10⁻⁹m

velocity of the electron v = 3.48*10⁵m/s

h = 6.62607015 × 10⁻³⁴

m is the mass of the electron = 9.10938356 × 10⁻³¹kg

Substituting the given parameters into the formula Ф = hc/λ - 1/2mv²

Ф =  6.63 × 10⁻³⁴*3*10⁸/97*10⁻⁹ -  1/2*9.11*10⁻³¹(3.48*10⁵)²

Ф = 0.205*10⁻¹⁷ - 4.555*10⁻³¹*12.1104*10¹⁰

Ф = 0.205*10⁻¹⁷ - 55.163*10⁻²¹

Ф = 0.205*10⁻¹⁷ - 0.0055.163*10⁻¹⁷

Ф = 0.1995*10⁻¹⁷Joules

Since 1eV = 1.60218*10⁻¹⁹J

x = 0.1995*10⁻¹⁷Joules

cross multiply

x = 0.1995*10⁻¹⁷/1.60218*10⁻¹⁹

x = 0.1245*10²

x = 12.45eV

Hence the work function of the metal in eV is 12.45eV

Answer:

b) the heavier one will have twice the kinetic energy of the lighter one.

Explanation:

The kinetic energy of object with mass, m

K.E₁ = ¹/₂mv²

where;

m is mass of the object

v is the velocity of the object

Since, the two objects are falling under same acceleration due to gravity, their velocity will be increasing at the same rate

The kinetic energy of object with mass, 2m

K.E₂ = ¹/₂(2m)v²

K.E₂ = 2(¹/₂mv²)

BUT K.E₁ = ¹/₂mv²

K.E₂ = 2(K.E₁)

Therefore, the heavier one will have twice the kinetic energy of the lighter one.

b) the heavier one will have twice the kinetic energy of the lighter one.

Answer:

A) 0.1477

B) 0.65388 mm

C) object is inverted

Explanation:

The formula for object - image relationships for spherical reflecting surface is given as;

n1/s + n2/s' = = (n2 - n1)/R

Where;

n1 & n2 are the Refractive index of both surfaces

s is the object distance from the vertex of the spherical surface

s' is the image distance from the vertex of the spherical surface

R is the radius of the spherical surface

We are given;

index of refraction of glass; n2 = 1.60

s = 24 cm = 0.24 m

R = 4 cm = 0.04 m

index of refraction of air has a standard value of 1. Thus; n1 = 1

a) So, making s' the subject from the initial equation, we have;

s' = n2/[((n2 - n1)/R) - n1/s]

Plugging in the relevant values, we have;

s' = 1.6/[((1.6 - 1)/0.04) - 1/0.24]

s' = 0.1477

b) The formula for lateral magnification of spherical reflecting surfaces is;

m = -(n1 × s')/(n2 × s) = y'/y

Where;

m is the magnification

n1, n2, s & s' remain as earlier explained

y is the height of the object

y' is the height of the image

Making y' the subject, we have;

y' = -(n1 × s' × y)/(n2 × s)

We are given y = 1.7 mm = 0.0017 m and all the other terms remain as before.

Thus;

y' = -(1 × 0.1477 × 0.0017)/(1.6 × 0.24)

y' = - 0.00065388021 m = -0.65388 mm

C) since y' is negative and y is positive therefore, m = y'/y would result in a negative value.

Now, in object - image relationships for spherical reflecting surface, when magnification is positive, it means the object is erect and when magnification is negative, it means the object is inverted.

Thus, the object is inverted since m is negative.

Answer:

The magnitude of the average induced emf is 90V

Explanation:

Given;

area of the square coil, A = 0.4 m²

number of turns, N = 15 turns

magnitude of the magnetic field, B = 0.75 T

time of change of magnetic field, t = 0.05 s

The magnitude of the average induced emf is given by;

E = -NAB/t

E = -(15 x 0.4 x 0.75) / 0.05

E = -90 V

|E| = 90 V

Therefore, the magnitude of the average induced emf is 90V

Answer:

Both Ellen and Mary are correct.

Explanation:

Both are correct, it's just different ways of saying the same thing.

When the acceleration is always opposite in direction to the displacement, then, the acceleration is directly proportional to the displacement of an object from its equilibrium position

Answer:

The magnification is  [tex]m = -2.15[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The  radius is  [tex]r = 14.0 \ m[/tex]

    The  focal length eyepiece is  [tex]f_e = 3.25 \ m[/tex]

Generally the objective focal length is mathematically represented as

        [tex]f_o = \frac{r}{2}[/tex]

=>     [tex]f_o = \frac{14}{2}[/tex]

=>     [tex]f_o = 7 \ m[/tex]

The  magnification is mathematically represented as

      [tex]m = - \frac{f_o }{f_e }[/tex]

=>    [tex]m = - \frac{7 }{ 3.25 }[/tex]

=>   [tex]m = -2.15[/tex]

Answer:

Option B: T ≈ 0.16 μs

Explanation:

We are given;

Mass; m = 6.68 × 10^(-27) kg

Magnetic field;B = 0.80 T

Charge;q = 2e

Now, e is the charge on an electron and it has a value of 1.6 × 10^(-19) C

So, q = 2 × 1.6 × 10^(-19)

q = 3.2 × 10^(-19) C

The period of the circular motion of the alpha particles moving along a in the presence of the magnetic field is given by;

T = 2πm/qB

Where ;

m, q and B are as stated earlier.

Plugging in the relevant values, we have;

T = (2π × 6.68 × 10^(-27))/(3.2 × 10^(-19) × 0.8)

T = 0.16395 × 10^(-6) s

This can also be written as;

T ≈ 0.16 μs

Answer:

13.33 rad/s

Explanation:

Applying,

v = ωr......................... Equation 1

Where v = linear speed, ω = angular speed and r = radius.

Note that,

r = d/2................. Equation 2

Where d = diameter of the wheel.

Substitute equation 2 into equation 1

v = ωd/2............... Equation 3

make ω the subject of the equation

ω = 2v/d................ Equation 4

Given: v = 4 m/s, d = 60 cm = 0.6 m

Substitute these values into equation 4

ω = 2(4)/0.6

ω = 13.33 rad/s

Answer:

A. magnetic field

Explanation:

The magnetic field is produced around a wire when an electrical current is in the wire because of the magnetic effect of the electric current therefore the correct answer is option A .

A magnetic field could be understood as an area around a magnet, magnetic material, or an electric charge in which magnetic force is exerted.

As given in the problem statement we have to find out what is produced around a wire when an electrical current is in the wire.

The magnetic field is produced as a result when an electrical current is passed through the conducting wire .

Option A is the appropriate response because a wire's magnetic field is created when an electrical current flows through it due to the magnetic influence of the electric current .

Learn more about the magnetic fields here, refer to the link given below;

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Answer:

1. F = 569 N

2. F_net = 101N

3. a = 1.74m/s²

Explanation:

Weight is a force measurement.

F = m*a

F = 58.0kg*9.81m/s²

F = 568.98 N

F_net = 670N+(-569N)

F_net = 101N

a = F/m

a = 101N/58.0kg

a = 1.74m/s²

The combined weight of the parachutist and parachute is equal to 568.98 N and the net force due to air resistance exerts a total upward force of 101.02N on her and her parachute, then the magnitude of the acceleration of the parachutist is 1.74 m/s².

Newton's second law states that the resultant force acting on a body is proportional to the rate of change of momentum of that body.

If a  parachutist relies on air resistance to decrease her downward velocity.

The mass of the parachutist and her parachute is 58 kg

The air resistance exerts a total upward force of 670 N

The combined weight of the parachutist and parachute, W = mg

W = 58 × 9.81

W = 568.98 N

The net force on the parachutist = 670 - 568.98 = 101.02 N

The acceleration of the Parachutist = Net force/mass

a = F/m

a = 101.02/58

a  = 1.74 m/s²

Thus, the magnitude of the acceleration of the parachutist would be 1.74m/s².

Learn more about Newton's second law, here:

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Answer:

f = 1.8 10² Hz

Explanation:

With the readings of the oscilloscope screen we can calculate the period of the wave

       T = #_divisions    time_base  

       T = 5.5  1 10⁻³

       T = 5.5 10⁻³ s

the period and frequency are related

        f = 1 / T

        f = 1 / 5.5 10⁻³

        f = 1.8 10² Hz

Answer:

382Hz

Explanation:

The question lacks the required option. Find the complete question in the attachment.

The long organ pipe open at both ends is called an open pipe. The fundamental frequency for an open pipe is expressed as F0 = V/2L

Harmonics are integral multiples of the fundamental frequency. For open pipes its harmonics are 2fo, 3fo, 4fo, 5fo...

Given fundamental frequency f0 to be 85 Hz, the following frequencies will be present as a standing wave;

First overtone f1 = 2fo = 2(85) = 170Hz

Second overtone f2 = 3fo = 3(85) = 255Hz

Third overtone = 4fo = 4(85) = 340Hz

Based on the option it can be seen that the only frequency that is not present as a standing wave is 382Hz

Answer:

  K = 1.6 10⁻¹⁵ J

Explanation:

In an electron microscope, electrons are used to form images, these electrons are accelerated in electric fields so that they have a kinetic energy that allows obtaining a good amplification with the microscope.

electrical potential energy is converted to kinetic energy

                U = K

                e V = ½ m v²

                v = √2eV /m

the wavelength of these electrons we obtain from the de Broglie equation

                λ = h / p

p = mv

               λ = h / mv

               λ = h / mra 2eV / m

               λ = h / ra 2eVm

where we can see that as the potential energy increases, it electrifies the shorter the wavelength of the electrons and consequently the greater the magnification of the microscope

in general these microscopes use from 10000X onwards therefore for this saponification

                K = e V

               K = 1.6 10⁻¹⁹ 10000

               K = 1.6 10⁻¹⁵ J

Answer:

Coefficient of kinetic friction (Cof. KE) = 0.153

Explanation:

Given:

Mass of box (M) = 5 kg

Distance = 3 m

Initial speed (v) = 3 m/s

Find:

Coefficient of kinetic friction (Cof. KE)

Computation:

v² = u² + 2as

a = v² / 2s

a = 9 / 2(3)

a = 1.5 m/s²

Coefficient of kinetic friction (Cof. KE) = a / g

Coefficient of kinetic friction (Cof. KE) = 1.5 / 9.8

Coefficient of kinetic friction (Cof. KE) = 0.153

Answer:

K.E = 5.53 eV = 8.85 x 10⁻¹⁹ J

Explanation:

First we calculate the energy of photon:

E = hc/λ

where,

E = Energy of Photon = ?

h = Plank's Constant = 6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ J.s

c = speed of light = 3 x 10⁸ m/s

λ = wavelength = 120 nm = 1.2 x 10⁻⁷ m

Therefore,

E = (6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ J.s)(3 x 10⁸ m/s)/(1.2 x 10⁻⁷ m)

E = (16.565 x 10⁻¹⁹ J)(1 eV/1.6 x 10⁻¹⁹ J)

E = 10.35 eV

Now, from Einstein's Photoelectric equation we know that:

Energy of Photon = Work Function + K.E of Electron

10.35 eV = 4.82 eV + K.E

K.E = 10.35 eV - 4.82 eV

K.E = 5.53 eV = 8.85 x 10⁻¹⁹ J

The maximum kinetic energy of the ejected photoelectrons will be "8.85 × 10⁻¹⁹ J".

According to the question,

Speed of light, c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s

Wavelength, λ = 120 nm or,

                        = 1.2 × 10⁻⁷ m

Plank's Constant, h = 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J.s

Now,

The energy of photon will be:

→ E = [tex]\frac{hc}{\lambda}[/tex]

By substituting the values,

     = [tex]\frac{6.626\times 10^{-34}\times 3\times 20^8}{1.2\times 10^{-7}}[/tex]

     = [tex]\frac{16.565\times 10^{-19}}{\frac{1 \ eV}{1.6\times 10^{-19}} }[/tex]

     = 10.35 eV

By using Einstein's Photoelectric equation,  

Energy of Photon = Work function + K.E

                   10.35 = 4.82 + K.E

                       K.E = 10.35 - 4.82

                             = 5.53 eV or,

                             = 8.85 × 10⁻¹⁹ J

Thus the response above is correct.

Find out more information about Kinetic energy here:

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[tex]\\ \rm\longmapsto a=\dfrac{v-u}{t}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \rm\longmapsto a=\dfrac{12.6-9.5}{12}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \rm\longmapsto a=\dfrac{3.1}{12}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \rm\longmapsto \overrightarrow{a}=0.25m/s^2[/tex]

Answer:

1.true

Explanation:

Answer:

1. True

2. True

3. True

Explanation for Question 1.

A nucleus consists of a bunch of protons and neutrons; these are known as nucleons. The atomic mass number, which is the total number of nucleons;

So, this sentence says that the atomic number is the number of protons and neutrons.

Explanation for Question 2.

Iron has 26 protons.

The number of protons = the atomic number.

So, the atomic number should be 26 also,

When we see the periodic table, Iron's atomic number is 26, so the statement is true.

Explanation for Question 3.

Red photons of light carry about 1.8 electron volts of energy. Infrared radiation has longer waves than red light, and thus oscillates at a lower frequency and carries less energy.

So, the above statement proves that the photon of infrared light has less energy than the photon of red light.

Answer:

t = 23.6 min

Explanation:

First we need to find the mass of air in the room:

m = ρV

where,

m = mass of air in the room = ?

ρ = density of air at room temperature = 1.2041 kg/m³

V = Volume of room = 16 m x 16.5 m x 12.3 m = 3247.2 m³

Therefore,

m = (1.2041 kg/m³)(3247.2 m³)

m = 3909.95 kg

Now, we find the amount of energy consumed to heat the room:

E = m C ΔT

where,

E = Energy consumed = ?

C = Specific Heat of air at room temperature = 1 KJ/kg.⁰C

ΔT = Change in temperature = 21 °C - 13.5 °C = 7.5 °C

Therefore,

E = (3909.95 kg)(1 KJ/kg.°C)(7.5 °C)

E = 29324.62 KJ

Now, the time period can be calculated as:

P = E/t

t = E/P

where,

t = Time needed = ?

P = Power of heater = 20.7 KW

Therefore,

t = 29324.62 KJ/20.7 KW

t = (1416.65 s)(1 min/60 s)

t = 23.6 min

Answer:

103nm

Explanation:

Pls see attached file

Answer:

the analog along the diameter of the acceleration of the particle executing simple harmonic motion is the projection along the diameter of the centripetal acceleration of the particle in the circle

Complete Question    

The magnetic field of a plane-polarized electromagnetic wave moving in the z-direction is given by

[tex]B=1.2* 10^{-6} sin [2\pi[(\frac{z}{240} ) - ( \frac{t * 10^7}{8} ) ] ][/tex]    in SI units.

Answer:

The  value  is  [tex]f = 1.98918*10^{5}\ Hz[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The magnetic field is    [tex]B=1.2* 10^{-6} sin [2\pi[(\frac{z}{240} ) - ( \frac{t * 10^7}{8} ) ] ][/tex]

 This above  equation can be modeled as

       [tex]B=1.2* 10^{-6} sin [2\pi[(\frac{z}{240} ) - ( \frac{t * 10^7}{8} ) ] ] \equiv A sin ( kz -wt )[/tex]

So  

       [tex]w = \frac{10^7}{8}[/tex]

Generally the frequency is mathematically represented as

       [tex]f = \frac{w}{2 \pi}[/tex]

=>    [tex]f = \frac{ \frac{10^7}{8} }{2 \pi}[/tex]

=>    [tex]f = 1.98918*10^{5}\ Hz[/tex]