The sun generates both mechanical and electromagnetic waves. Which statement about those waves is true?
OA. The mechanical waves reach Earth, while the electromagnetic waves do not.
OB. The electromagnetic waves reach Earth, while the mechanical waves do not.
OC. Both the mechanical waves and the electromagnetic waves reach Earth.
OD. Neither the mechanical waves nor the electromagnetic waves reach Earth.

Answer:

you are going to expend energy to give a lot of velocity (and momentum) to your foot in order to transfer it the stone air drag this time the kicking speed is for superior to walking speed.

                                                  Thank You

Answer:

The linear velocity, v = 5.93 m/s

Explanation:

To find the linear velocity after 5 seconds, we find its angular velocity after 5 seconds using

ω' = ω + αt where ω = initial angular speed = 4.00 rev/s = 4.00 × 2π rad/s = 25.13 rad/s, ω' =  = final angular speed, α = angular acceleration = 2.25 rad/s² and t = time = 5.00 s

ω' = ω + αt

= 25.13 rad/s + 2.25 rad/s² × 5.00 s

= 25.13 rad/s + 11.25 rad/s

= 36.38 rad/s

The linear velocity v is gotten from v = rω' where r = radius of pulley = 326 mm/2 = 163 mm = 0.163 m

v = rω'

= 0.163 m × 36.38 rad/s

= 5.93 m/s

So, the linear velocity  v = 5.93 m/s

Answer:   The volume of the block will be [tex]100cm^3[/tex]

Explanation:

Density is defined as the mass contained per unit volume.

[tex]Density=\frac{mass}{volume}[/tex]

Given : Mass of cube = 100 grams

Density of cube = [tex]1g/cm^3[/tex]

Putting in the values we get:

[tex]Volume=\frac{mass}{density}[/tex]

[tex]Volume=\frac{100g}{1g/cm^3}=100cm^3[/tex]

 Thus volume of the block will be [tex]100cm^3[/tex]

Answer:

 Good Diet: ! gallon of water a day, Fruits, Vegetables, White meats(Chicken), Don't eat past 3 PM.

Bad Diet: Pizza, Red meat, Baked goods, Eating at late hours.

Explanation: I know the difference because, When you drink water first thing in the morning it gets your metabolism running. Than means you can digest foods better, you want to feed your body good foods but you should not eat until you feel stuffed. You should eat until you are no longer starving. Than you should drink a cup of water in between meals. I know you should not eat past 3 pm because your body needs time to digest foods because you should never go to sleep with a full stomach. I know the difference between good food and bad food because when you eat healthy food and a balanced diet, your body will have more energy and you wont feel tired afterwards. Eating bad foods and food with artificial sugars will clump up in your kidneys, and your body will have small bursts of energy but you will feel lazy afterwards...Your body is supposed to stay energized from a healthy meal in order to give you the energy your body needs to exercise. If you feel droopy all the time and you don't want to do anything, than you are unhealthy.

Answer:

A vegetarian diet is an example of a good fad diet if you do it correctly. It can help you get lots of veggies and good nutrients from them while still following the non-meat diet you want. This can be effective and good for weight loss becasue you are still eating and getting all the good nutrients and calories from less fatty foods. 

Vegan diet (some can be successful but many people fail and do not do good that is why I choose this) The problem with this fad diet is that it can cause nutritional deficiencies and lead to a host of additional health problems, including negatively impacting hormonal health and metabolism. Many people also struggle to find healthy vegan food and end up eating bad and fatty foods instead. 

Explanation:

Got a 100

Answer:

p-aminoazobenzene is formed

Explanation:

The reaction of benzene diazonium chloride and aniline takes place in a basic medium and leads to the formation of an azo compound which is also a dye. The terminal diazonium nitrogen of the benzene diazonium ion is coupled to the aniline at the para-position. The product of the reaction, p-aminoazobenzene is a yellow dye.

Benzene diazonium chloride is prepared by diazotization of aniline in the presence of hydrochloric acid. The full reaction of aniline and benzene diazonium chloride​ is shown in the image attached to this answer.

Answer:

The longest wavelength for closed at one end and open at the other is

y / 4      where y is the wavelength - that is node - antinode

The next possible wavelength is 3 y / 4 -    node - antinode - node -antinode

y / 4 = 3 m     y = 12 meters    the longest wavelength

3 y / 4 = 3 m      y = 4 meters   1 / 3 times as long

Answer:

a. 0.058°

b.  0.117°

Explanation:

a. The angular position of the first-order is:

[tex] d*sin(\theta) = m\lambda [/tex]

[tex] \theta = arcsin(\frac{m \lambda}{d}) = arcsin(\frac{1* 590 \cdot 10^{-9} m}{0.580 \cdot 10^{-3} m}) = 0.058 ^{\circ} [/tex]

Hence, the angular position of the first-order, two-slit, interference maxima is 0.058°.

b. The angular position of the second-order is:

[tex] \theta = arcsin(\frac{m \lambda}{d}) = arcsin(\frac{2* 590 \cdot 10^{-9} m}{0.580 \cdot 10^{-3} m}) = 0.12 ^{\circ} [/tex]

Therefore, the angular position of the second-order, two-slit, interference maxima is 0.117°.

I hope it helps you!

Answer:

129900

Explanation:

Given that

Mass of the particle, m = 1 g = 1*10^-3 kg

Speed of the particle, u = ½c

Speed of light, c = 3*10^8

To solve this, we will use the formula

p = ymu, where

y = √[1 - (u²/c²)]

Let's solve for y, first. We have

y = √[1 - (1.5*10^8²/3*10^8²)]

y = √(1 - ½²)

y = √(1 - ¼)

y = √0.75

y = 0.8660, using our newly gotten y, we use it to solve the final equation

p = ymu

p = 0.866 * 1*10^-3 * 1.5*10^8

p = 129900 kgm/s

thus, we have found that the momentum of the particle is 129900 kgm/s

Answer:

C. 450v

Explanation:

Using

Voltage= B*distance of separation*velocity

3mm x 0.3T x 5E5m/s

= 450v

Complete Question

Two stationary positive point charges, charge 1 of magnitude 3.25 nC and charge 2 of magnitude 2.00 nC , are separated by a distance of 58.0 cm . An electron is released from rest at the point midway between the two charges, and it moves along the line connecting the two charges.

Required:

What is the speed of the electron when it is 10.0 cm from the +3.25-nC charge?

Answer:

The velocity is [tex]v = 80.82 \ m/s[/tex]

Explanation:

From  the question we are told that

   The magnitude of charge one is  [tex]q_1 = 3.25 nC = 3.25 *10^{-9} \ C[/tex]

   The  magnitude of charge two  [tex]q_2 = 2.00 \ nC = 2.00 *10^{-9} \ C[/tex]

   The distance of separation is   [tex]d = 58.0 \ cm = 0.58 \ m[/tex]

Generally the electric potential of the electron at the midway point is mathematically represented as

         [tex]V = \frac{ q_1 }{\frac{d}{2} } + \frac{ q_2}{\frac{d}{2} }[/tex]

substituting values

         [tex]V = \frac{ 3.25 *10^{-9} }{\frac{ 0.58}{2} } + \frac{ 2 *10^{-9} }{\frac{ 0.58}{2} }[/tex]

          [tex]V = 1.8103 *10^{-8} \ V[/tex]

Now when the electron is 10 cm   =  0.10 m  from charge 1 , it is  (0.58 - 0.10 =  0.48 m ) m from charge two

Now the electric potential  at that point is mathematically represented as

       [tex]V_1 = \frac{q_1}{ 0.10} + \frac{q_2}{ 0.48}[/tex]

 substituting values

      [tex]V_1 = \frac{3.25 *10^{-9}}{ 0.10} + \frac{2.0*10^{-9}}{ 0.48}[/tex]

      [tex]V_1 = 3.67*10^{-8} \ V[/tex]

Now the law of energy conservation ,

   The  kinetic energy of the electron  =  potential energy of the electron

i.e     [tex]\frac{1}{2} * m * v^2 = [V_1 - V]* q[/tex]

where q is the magnitude of the charge on the electron with value

      [tex]q = 1.60 *10^{-19} \ C[/tex]

While m is the mass of the electron with value  [tex]m = 9.11*10^{-31} \ kg[/tex]

        [tex]\frac{1}{2} * 9.11 *10^{-19} * v^2 = [ (3.67 - 1.8103) *10^{-8}]* 1.60 *10^{-19}[/tex]

         [tex]v = \sqrt{6532.4}[/tex]

        [tex]v = 80.82 \ m/s[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]\theta=10.20^{\circ}[/tex]  

[tex]\Delta l=0.10 ft[/tex]    

Explanation:

First of all, we analyze the system of blocks before starting to move.

[tex]\Sum F_{x}=P_{A}sin(\theta)+P_{B}sin(\theta)-F_{fA}-F_{fB}=0[/tex]  

[tex]\Sum F_{x}=11sin(\theta)+5sin(\theta)-0.16N_{A}-0.23N_{B}=0[/tex]

[tex]11sin(\theta)+5sin(\theta)-0.16P_{A}cos(\theta)-0.23P_{B}cos(\theta)=0[/tex]

[tex]11sin(\theta)+5sin(\theta)-0.16*11cos(\theta)-0.23*5cos(\theta)=0[/tex]

[tex]11sin(\theta)+5sin(\theta)-0.16*11cos(\theta)-0.23*5cos(\theta)=0[/tex]  

[tex]16sin(\theta)-2.91cos(\theta)=0[/tex]  

[tex]tan(\theta)=0.18[/tex]  

[tex]\theta=arctan(0.18)[/tex]  

[tex]\theta=10.20^{\circ}[/tex]  

Hence, the incline angle θ for which both blocks begin to slide is 10.20°.

Now, if we do a free body diagram of block A we have that after the block moves, the spring force must be taken into account.  

[tex]P_{A}sin(\theta)-F_{fA}-F_{spring}=0[/tex]

Where:

[tex]F_{spring} = k\Delta l=2.1\Delta l[/tex]

[tex]P_{A}sin(\theta)-0.16*11cos(\theta)-2.1\Delta l=0[/tex]

[tex]\Delta l=\frac{11sin(\theta)-0.16*11cos(\theta)}{2.1}[/tex]

[tex]\Delta l=0.10 ft[/tex]    

Therefore, the required stretch or compression in the connecting spring is 0.10 ft.

I hope it helps you!

(a) The inclined angle for which both blocks begin to slide is 10.3⁰.

(b) The compression of the spring is 0.22 ft.

The given parameters;

The normal force on block A and B:

[tex]F_n_A = m_Agcos \ \theta\\\\F_n_B = m_Bgcos \ \theta[/tex]

The frictional force on block A and B:

[tex]F_f_A = \mu_s_AF_n_A \\\\F_f_B = \mu_s_BF_n_A[/tex]

The net force on the blocks when they starts sliding;

[tex](m_Ag sin \theta+ m_Bgsin\theta) - (F_f_A + F_f_B) = 0\\\\m_Ag sin \theta+ m_Bgsin\theta = F_f_A + F_f_B\\\\m_Ag sin \theta+ m_Bgsin\theta = \mu_Am_Agcos\theta \ + \ \mu_Bm_Bgcos\theta\\\\gsin\theta(m_A + m_B) = gcos\theta (\mu_Am_A + \mu_Bm_B)\\\\\frac{sin\theta}{cos \theta} = \frac{\mu_Am_A\ + \ \mu_Bm_B}{m_A\ + \ m_B} \\\\tan\theta = \frac{(0.16\times 11) \ + \ (0.23 \times 5)}{11 + 5} \\\\tan\theta = 0.1819\\\\\theta = tan^{-1}(0.1819)\\\\\theta = 10.3 \ ^0[/tex]

The change in the energy of the blocks is the work done in compressing the spring;

[tex]\Delta E = W\\\\F_A (sin \theta )d- \mu F_n d= \frac{1}{2} kd^2\\\\F_A sin\theta \ - \ \mu F_A cos\theta = \frac{1}{2} kd\\\\d = \frac{2F_A(sin\theta - \mu cos \theta) }{k} \\\\d = \frac{2\times 11(sin \ 10.3\ - \ 0.16\times cos \ 10.3) }{2.1} \\\\d = 0.22 \ ft[/tex]

Learn more here:https://brainly.com/question/16892315

Answer:In the case of two proton beams the protons repel one another because they have the same sign of electrical charge. There is also an attractive magnetic force between the protons, but in the proton frame of reference this force must be zero! Clearly then the attractive magnetic force that reduces the net force between protons in the two beams as seen in our frame of reference is relativistic. In particular the apparent magnetic forces or fields are relativistic modifications of the electrical forces or fields. As such modifications, they cannot be stronger than the electrical forces and fields that produce them. This follows from the fact that switching frames of reference can reduce forces, but it can’t turn what is attractive in one frame into a repulsive force in another frame.

In the case of wires the net charges in two wires are zero everywhere along the wires. That makes the net electrical forces between the wires very nearly zero. Yet the relativistic magnetic forces and fields will be of the same sort as in the case of two beams of charges of a single sign. This is true even in the frame of reference of what we think as the moving charges, that is, the electrons. In the frame of reference moving at the drift velocity of these current-carrying electrons, it is the protons or positively charged ions that are moving in the other direction. Consequently in any frame of reference for current-carrying wires in parallel, the net electrical force will be essentially zero, and there will be a net attractive magnetic force

Explanation:                                                                              

Explanation:

Particles with similar charges (both positive or both negative) will always repel each other, regardless of their speed or direction.

The bullet's vertical velocity at time [tex]t[/tex] is

[tex]v=1400\dfrac{\rm m}{\rm s}-gt[/tex]

where [tex]g=9.80\frac{\rm m}{\mathrm s^2}[/tex] is the acceleration due to gravity.

At its highest point, the bullet's vertical velocity is 0, which happens

[tex]0=1400\dfrac{\rm m}{\rm s}-gt\implies t=\dfrac{1400\frac{\rm m}{\rm s}}g\approx\boxed{142.857\,\mathrm s}[/tex]

(or about 140 s, if you're keeping track of significant figures) after being fired.

Answer:

Explanation:

Given the intensity level 10 m from a point sound source is 85 dB, then;

L1 = 10m, I1= 85dB ...1

The intensity level 50 m away from the same source cal be calculated using the equivalent expression;

when L2 = 50m, I2 = ? ... 2

Solving equation 1 nad 2;

10m = 85db

50m = x

Cross multiplying;

50 * 85 = 10 * x

10x = 50*85

10x = 4250

Divide both sides by 10

10x/10 = 4250/10

x = 425 dB

Hence, the intensity level 50 m away from the same source is 425dB

Answer:

Explanation:

This depends on where you are.

The YMCA where I grew up was affordable. Very. Or my mother would not have let me go.

Answer:

We can think the water stream as a solid object that is fired.

The distance between the fireperson and the building is 50m. (i consider that the position of the fireperson is our position = 0)

The angle is 30 above the horizontal. (yo wrote 300, but this has no sense because 300° implies that he is pointing to the ground).

The initial speed of the stream is 40m/s.

First, using the fact that:

x = R*cos(θ)

y = R*sin(θ)

in this case R = 40m/s and θ = 30°

We can use the above relation to find the components of the velocity:

Vx = 40m/s*cos(30°) = 34.64m/s

Vy = 20m/s.

First step:

We want to find the time needed to the stream to hit the buildin.

The horizontal speed is 34.64m/s and the distance to the wall is 50m

So we want that:

34.64m/s*t = 50m

t = 50m/(34.64m/s) = 1.44 seconds.

Now we need to calculate the height of the stream at t = 1.44s

Second step:

The only force acting on the water is the gravitational one, so the acceleration of the stream is:

a(t) = -g.

g = -9.8m/s^2

For the speed, we integrate over time and we get:

v(t) = -g*t + v0

where v0 is the initial speed: v0 = 20m/s.

The velocity equation is:

v(t) = -g*t + 20m/s.

For the position, we integrate again over time:

p(t) = -(1/2)*g*t^2 + 20m/s*t + p0

p0 is the initial height of the stream, this data is not known.

Now, the height at the time t = 1.44s is

p(1.44s) = -5.9m/s^2*(1.44s)^2 + 20m/s*1.44s + po

             = 16.57m + p0

So the height at wich the stream hits the building is 16.57 meters above the initial height of the fire hose.

Answer:

C $0.75 my friend I wish it is right answer

Answer:

Explanation:

We shall apply Brewster's law to solve the problem . Let i be the angle of reflection required. According to this law ,

tan i = μ where i is angle of incidence , μ is refractive index of the medium .

Here i = ? , μ = 1.31

tani = 1.31

i = 53° approx .

At the angle of 53° incidence , the reflected ray will be completely polarised .

Answer:

A) P_rad.abs = 2.4 × 10^(-8) Pa and P_rad.ref = 4.8 × 10^(-8) Pa

B) P_rad.abs = 2.369 × 10^(-13) atm and P_rad.ref = 4.738 × 10^(-13) atm

Explanation:

A) The formula for radiation pressure for absorbed light is given as;

P_rad = I/c

Where I is the intensity = 7.20 W/m² and c is the speed of light = 3 × 10^(8) m/s

Thus;

P_rad = 7.2/(3 × 10^(8))

P_rad.abs = 2.4 × 10^(-8) Pa

Now formula for radiation pressure for reflected light is given as;

P_rad = 2I/c

Thus;

P_rad = (2 × 7.2)/(3 × 10^(8))

P_rad.ref = 4.8 × 10^(-8) Pa

B) Now, 1.013 × 10^(5) Pa = 1 atm

Thus, for the absorbed surface, we have;

P_rad.abs = (2.4 × 10^(-8))/(1.013 × 10^(5))

P_rad.abs = 2.369 × 10^(-13) atm

For the reflecting surface, we have;

P_rad_ref = (4.8 × 10^(-8))/(1.013 × 10^(5))

P_rad.ref = 4.738 × 10^(-13) atm

Answer:

 Δy = 1 10⁻⁴ m

Explanation:

In double-slit experiments the constructive interference pattern is described by the equation

           d sin θ = m λ

In this case we have two wavelengths, so two separate patterns are observed, let's use trigonometry to find the angle

         tan θ = y / L

as the angles are small,

         tan θ = sin θ / cos θ = sin θ

substituting

         sin θ = y / L

         d y / L = m λ

         y = m λ / d L

let's apply this formula for each wavelength

λ = 450 nm = 450 10⁻⁹ m

m = 5

d = 5.0 mm = 5.0 10⁻³ m

      y₁ = 5 450 10⁻⁹ / (5 10⁻³  1.4)

      y₁ = 3.21 10⁻⁴ m

we repeat the calculation for lam = 590 nm = 590 10⁻⁹ m

      y₂ = 5 590 10⁻⁹ / (5 10⁻³  1.4)

      y₂=  4.21 10⁻⁴ m

the separation of these two lines is

        Δy = y₂ - y₁

        Δy = (4.21 - 3.21) 10⁻⁴ m

        Δy = 1 10⁻⁴ m

Answer:

Explanation:

Answer:

A)     K / K₀ = 4   b)     v / v₀ = 4

Explanation:

A) For this exercise we can use the conservation of mechanical energy

in the problem it indicates that the displacement was doubled (x = 2xo)

starting point. At the position of maximum displacement

      Em₀ = Ke = ½ k (2x₀)²

final point. In the equilibrium position

      [tex]Em_{f}[/tex] = K = ½ m v²

        Em₀ = Em_{f}

        ½ k 4 x₀² = K

        (½ K x₀²) = K₀

         K = 4 K₀

          K / K₀ = 4

B) the speed value

          ½ k 4 x₀² = ½ m v²

          v = 4 (k / m) x₀

if we call

           v₀ = k / m x₀

          v = 4 v₀

         v / v₀ = 4

Answer:

300 W

Explanation:

power of each bulb P = 75 W

voltage in the circuit = 120 V

we know that electrical power P = IV    ....1

and V = IR

we can also say that I = V/R

substituting for I in  equation 1, we have

P = [tex]V^{2}/R[/tex]    ....2

The total total power in the circuit = 75 x 2 = 150 W

from equation 2, we have

150 = [tex]120^{2} /R[/tex]

R = [tex]120^{2}/150[/tex] = 96 Ω    this is the resistance of the whole circuit.

This resistance is due to the two light bulbs, for each light bulb since they are arranged in series

R = 96/2 = 48 Ω

From P =  [tex]V^{2}/R[/tex]  

for each light bulb, power is

P = [tex]120^{2} /48[/tex] = 300 W

Answer:

In parallel

Explanation:

Ctotal = C1 + C2 + ... + Cn

Answer:

The probability that it will take a week for it three wet weather on 3 separate days is 0.06166 and its standard deviation is 0.9447

Explanation:

We are given that A city of Punjab has 15 percent chance of wet weather on any given day.

So, Probability of wet weather = 0.15

Probability of not being a wet weather = 1-0.15 =0.85

We are supposed to find probability that it will take a week for it three wet weather on 3 separate days

Total number of days in a week = 7

We will use binomial over here

n = 7

p =probability of failure = 0.15

q = probability of success=0.85

r=3

Formula :[tex]P(r=3)=^nC_r p^r q ^{n-r}[/tex]

[tex]P(r=3)=^{7}C_{3} (0.15)^3 (0.85)^{7-3}\\P(r=3)=\frac{7!}{3!(7-3)!} (0.15)^3 (0.85)^{7-3}\\P(r=3)=0.06166[/tex]

Standard deviation =[tex]\sqrt{n \times p \times q}[/tex]

Standard deviation =[tex]\sqrt{7 \times 0.15 \times 0.85}[/tex]

Standard deviation =0.9447

Hence The probability that it will take a week for it three wet weather on 3 separate days is 0.06166 and its standard deviation is 0.9447

Answer:

a) for the torque to be maximum, sin should be maximum

i.e (sinФ)maximum = 1

b) therefore the Maximum torque is

Tmax = 0.1838 × 1 = 0.1838  N.m

c) Given the torque is 71.0% of its maximum value; Ф  = 45.24⁰ ≈ 45⁰

Explanation:

Given that; Diameter is 8.40 cm,

Radius (R) = D/2 = 8.40/2 = 4.20 cm = 0.042 m

Number of turns (N) = 17

Current in the loop (I) = 3.20 A

Magnetic field (B) = 0.610 T

Let the angle between the loop's area vector A and the magnetic field B be

Now. the area of the loop is;

A = πR²

A = 3.14 ( 0.042 )²

A =  0.005539 m²

Torque on the loop (t) = NIABsinФ

t = 17 × 3.20 ×0.005539 × 0.610 × sinФ

t = 0.1838sinФ N.m

for the torque to be maximum, sin should be maximum

i.e (sinФ)maximum = 1

therefore the Maximum torque is

Tmax = 0.1838 × 1 = 0.1838  N.m

Given the torque is 71.0% of its maximum value

t = 0.71 × tmax

t = 0.71 × 0.1838

t = 0.1305

Now

0.1305 N.m =  0.1838 sinФ N.m

sinФ = 0.1305 / 0.1838

sinФ = 0.71001

Ф = sin⁻¹ 0.71001

Ф  = 45.24⁰ ≈ 45⁰

Answer

The capacitor should be connected in parallel as parallel connection gives the arithmetic sum of capacitance which will give a corresponding sum of energy while capacitors in series gives the sum of the reciprocal if the individual capacitance

Answer:

The reason for the increase or decrease of the moon is due to the angular perception of the moon.

Explanation:

Also called lunar illusion, this phenomenon is due to the position in which the moon is, it can be at the zenith or on the horizon, both distances are different from each other with respect to the position of the person.

The zenith is the highest part of the sky and the horizon the lowest.

When there are landmarks such as trees, buildings or mountains on the horizon, the illusion of closeness is given and the illusion of distance is misinterpreted.

But when looking up at the sky as there is no reference point there will be a failure in the perception of size.

Answer:

ΔT = 1ºC , 2ºCand 3ºC

Explanation:

In this exercise they indicate the specific heat of lithium

let's calculate the temperature increase as a function of the heat introduced

          Q = m [tex]c_{e}[/tex] ΔT

          ΔT = Q / m c_{e}

calculate

 for Q = 3.5 J

         ΔT = 3.5 / (1 3.5)

         ΔT = 1ºC

For Q = 7.0 J

         ΔT = 7 / (1 3.5)

         ΔT = 2ºC

for Q = 10.5 J

         ΔD = 10.5 / (1 3.5)

         ΔT = 3ºC

we see that this is a straight line, see attached