A disk between vertebrae in the spine is subjected to a shearing force of 375 N. Find its shear deformation, taking it to have a shear modulus of 1.60×109 N/m2. The disk is equivalent to a solid cylinder 0.750 cm high and 6.50 cm in diameter.

Answer:

 Δy = 1 10⁻⁴ m

Explanation:

In double-slit experiments the constructive interference pattern is described by the equation

           d sin θ = m λ

In this case we have two wavelengths, so two separate patterns are observed, let's use trigonometry to find the angle

         tan θ = y / L

as the angles are small,

         tan θ = sin θ / cos θ = sin θ

substituting

         sin θ = y / L

         d y / L = m λ

         y = m λ / d L

let's apply this formula for each wavelength

λ = 450 nm = 450 10⁻⁹ m

m = 5

d = 5.0 mm = 5.0 10⁻³ m

      y₁ = 5 450 10⁻⁹ / (5 10⁻³  1.4)

      y₁ = 3.21 10⁻⁴ m

we repeat the calculation for lam = 590 nm = 590 10⁻⁹ m

      y₂ = 5 590 10⁻⁹ / (5 10⁻³  1.4)

      y₂=  4.21 10⁻⁴ m

the separation of these two lines is

        Δy = y₂ - y₁

        Δy = (4.21 - 3.21) 10⁻⁴ m

        Δy = 1 10⁻⁴ m

Answer:

[tex]\theta=10.20^{\circ}[/tex]  

[tex]\Delta l=0.10 ft[/tex]    

Explanation:

First of all, we analyze the system of blocks before starting to move.

[tex]\Sum F_{x}=P_{A}sin(\theta)+P_{B}sin(\theta)-F_{fA}-F_{fB}=0[/tex]  

[tex]\Sum F_{x}=11sin(\theta)+5sin(\theta)-0.16N_{A}-0.23N_{B}=0[/tex]

[tex]11sin(\theta)+5sin(\theta)-0.16P_{A}cos(\theta)-0.23P_{B}cos(\theta)=0[/tex]

[tex]11sin(\theta)+5sin(\theta)-0.16*11cos(\theta)-0.23*5cos(\theta)=0[/tex]

[tex]11sin(\theta)+5sin(\theta)-0.16*11cos(\theta)-0.23*5cos(\theta)=0[/tex]  

[tex]16sin(\theta)-2.91cos(\theta)=0[/tex]  

[tex]tan(\theta)=0.18[/tex]  

[tex]\theta=arctan(0.18)[/tex]  

[tex]\theta=10.20^{\circ}[/tex]  

Hence, the incline angle θ for which both blocks begin to slide is 10.20°.

Now, if we do a free body diagram of block A we have that after the block moves, the spring force must be taken into account.  

[tex]P_{A}sin(\theta)-F_{fA}-F_{spring}=0[/tex]

Where:

[tex]F_{spring} = k\Delta l=2.1\Delta l[/tex]

[tex]P_{A}sin(\theta)-0.16*11cos(\theta)-2.1\Delta l=0[/tex]

[tex]\Delta l=\frac{11sin(\theta)-0.16*11cos(\theta)}{2.1}[/tex]

[tex]\Delta l=0.10 ft[/tex]    

Therefore, the required stretch or compression in the connecting spring is 0.10 ft.

I hope it helps you!

(a) The inclined angle for which both blocks begin to slide is 10.3⁰.

(b) The compression of the spring is 0.22 ft.

The given parameters;

The normal force on block A and B:

[tex]F_n_A = m_Agcos \ \theta\\\\F_n_B = m_Bgcos \ \theta[/tex]

The frictional force on block A and B:

[tex]F_f_A = \mu_s_AF_n_A \\\\F_f_B = \mu_s_BF_n_A[/tex]

The net force on the blocks when they starts sliding;

[tex](m_Ag sin \theta+ m_Bgsin\theta) - (F_f_A + F_f_B) = 0\\\\m_Ag sin \theta+ m_Bgsin\theta = F_f_A + F_f_B\\\\m_Ag sin \theta+ m_Bgsin\theta = \mu_Am_Agcos\theta \ + \ \mu_Bm_Bgcos\theta\\\\gsin\theta(m_A + m_B) = gcos\theta (\mu_Am_A + \mu_Bm_B)\\\\\frac{sin\theta}{cos \theta} = \frac{\mu_Am_A\ + \ \mu_Bm_B}{m_A\ + \ m_B} \\\\tan\theta = \frac{(0.16\times 11) \ + \ (0.23 \times 5)}{11 + 5} \\\\tan\theta = 0.1819\\\\\theta = tan^{-1}(0.1819)\\\\\theta = 10.3 \ ^0[/tex]

The change in the energy of the blocks is the work done in compressing the spring;

[tex]\Delta E = W\\\\F_A (sin \theta )d- \mu F_n d= \frac{1}{2} kd^2\\\\F_A sin\theta \ - \ \mu F_A cos\theta = \frac{1}{2} kd\\\\d = \frac{2F_A(sin\theta - \mu cos \theta) }{k} \\\\d = \frac{2\times 11(sin \ 10.3\ - \ 0.16\times cos \ 10.3) }{2.1} \\\\d = 0.22 \ ft[/tex]

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Answer:

A simple arrangement by means of which e.m.f,s. are compared is known as?

(a)Voltmeter

(b)Potentiometer

(c)Ammeter

(d)None of the above

Explanation:

Answer:

The probability that it will take a week for it three wet weather on 3 separate days is 0.06166 and its standard deviation is 0.9447

Explanation:

We are given that A city of Punjab has 15 percent chance of wet weather on any given day.

So, Probability of wet weather = 0.15

Probability of not being a wet weather = 1-0.15 =0.85

We are supposed to find probability that it will take a week for it three wet weather on 3 separate days

Total number of days in a week = 7

We will use binomial over here

n = 7

p =probability of failure = 0.15

q = probability of success=0.85

r=3

Formula :[tex]P(r=3)=^nC_r p^r q ^{n-r}[/tex]

[tex]P(r=3)=^{7}C_{3} (0.15)^3 (0.85)^{7-3}\\P(r=3)=\frac{7!}{3!(7-3)!} (0.15)^3 (0.85)^{7-3}\\P(r=3)=0.06166[/tex]

Standard deviation =[tex]\sqrt{n \times p \times q}[/tex]

Standard deviation =[tex]\sqrt{7 \times 0.15 \times 0.85}[/tex]

Standard deviation =0.9447

Hence The probability that it will take a week for it three wet weather on 3 separate days is 0.06166 and its standard deviation is 0.9447

Answer:

a. 0.058°

b.  0.117°

Explanation:

a. The angular position of the first-order is:

[tex] d*sin(\theta) = m\lambda [/tex]

[tex] \theta = arcsin(\frac{m \lambda}{d}) = arcsin(\frac{1* 590 \cdot 10^{-9} m}{0.580 \cdot 10^{-3} m}) = 0.058 ^{\circ} [/tex]

Hence, the angular position of the first-order, two-slit, interference maxima is 0.058°.

b. The angular position of the second-order is:

[tex] \theta = arcsin(\frac{m \lambda}{d}) = arcsin(\frac{2* 590 \cdot 10^{-9} m}{0.580 \cdot 10^{-3} m}) = 0.12 ^{\circ} [/tex]

Therefore, the angular position of the second-order, two-slit, interference maxima is 0.117°.

I hope it helps you!

Answer:

30cm

Explanation:

assume that the eyes are substantially above the water so that sin(theta) is approximately theta.

( small angle approximation).

The point at which a ray leaving the fish hits the surface of the water is x to the side of the centreline and the depth of the water is d

x/d = sin( angle of incidence)

if the apparent depth of the water is h then

x/h = sin( angle of refraction)

and applying snells law

1 sin ( theta air) = 1.33 sin( theta water)

1 * x/h = 1.33 * x/d

d/h = 1.33

or h/d = 1/1.33

h/39 = 1.33

h = 39 /1.33 so that is the apparent depth of the stream assuming:-

1. Your eyes are almost directly overhead

and

2. your eyes are a significant distance above the surface of the water.

x/d = 1.33 x/h

h/d =39/1.3

= 30cm

Answer:

The  rotational kinetic energy is  [tex]K = 2116.3 \ J[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The moment of inertia  is  [tex]I = 0.35 \ kg \cdot m^2[/tex]

    The number of revolution is N  =  70 revolution

     The  time taken is  t  =  4.0  s

Generally the angular velocity is mathematically represented as

      [tex]w = \frac{2 \pi N }{t }[/tex]

substituting values

      [tex]w = \frac{2* 3.142 * 70 }{4 }[/tex]

       [tex]w = 109.97 \ rad/s[/tex]

The rotational kinetic energy K i mathematically represented as

       [tex]K = \frac{1}{ 2} * I * w^2[/tex]

substituting values

       [tex]K = \frac{1}{ 2} * 0.35 * (109.97)^2[/tex]

       [tex]K = 2116.3 \ J[/tex]

Answer:

Abstracto

Los ácidos nucleicos y las proteínas comprenden una red de biomacromoléculas que almacenan y transmiten información que sustenta la vida de la célula. El estudio de estos mecanismos es un campo llamado biología molecular. El desarrollo de esta ciencia siempre ha ido acompañado de avances técnicos que permiten romper barreras metodológicas para probar hipótesis novedosas. Entre los métodos disponibles para los biólogos moleculares, destacan cinco: electroforesis, secuenciación, clonación, transferencia y reacción en cadena de la polimerasa. Su impacto llega a la genética, la medicina y la biotecnología. Aquí, se revisan la relevancia histórica, los fundamentos técnicos y las tendencias actuales de estos cinco métodos esenciales. La revisión pretende ser útil tanto para estudiantes como para científicos profesionales que buscan adquirir conocimientos avanzados sobre el valor de estos métodos para investigar los mecanismos moleculares que sostienen la vida.

Answer:

Explanation:

Given the intensity level 10 m from a point sound source is 85 dB, then;

L1 = 10m, I1= 85dB ...1

The intensity level 50 m away from the same source cal be calculated using the equivalent expression;

when L2 = 50m, I2 = ? ... 2

Solving equation 1 nad 2;

10m = 85db

50m = x

Cross multiplying;

50 * 85 = 10 * x

10x = 50*85

10x = 4250

Divide both sides by 10

10x/10 = 4250/10

x = 425 dB

Hence, the intensity level 50 m away from the same source is 425dB

Answer:   The volume of the block will be [tex]100cm^3[/tex]

Explanation:

Density is defined as the mass contained per unit volume.

[tex]Density=\frac{mass}{volume}[/tex]

Given : Mass of cube = 100 grams

Density of cube = [tex]1g/cm^3[/tex]

Putting in the values we get:

[tex]Volume=\frac{mass}{density}[/tex]

[tex]Volume=\frac{100g}{1g/cm^3}=100cm^3[/tex]

 Thus volume of the block will be [tex]100cm^3[/tex]

Answer:

d)    α = 1693.5 rad / s² , a = 392.7 m / s² ,   a_total = α √(R² +1) ,

e)   tan θ = a / α

Explanation:

This is an exercise in linear and angular kinematics.

We initialize reduction of all the magnitudes to the SI system

   w₀ = 3000 rev / min (2π rad / 1rev) (1min / 60s) = 314.16 rad / s

   w = 6000 rev / mi = 628.32 rad / s

   θ = 12 rev = 12 rev (2π rad / 1 rev) = 75.398 rad

d) ask for centripetal, tangential and total acceleration.

Let's start by looking for centripetal acceleration, let's use the formula

          w² = w₀² + 2 α θ

          α = (w²- w₀²) / 2θ

we calculate

           α = (628.32²2 - 314.16²) / 2 75.398

           α = 1693.5 rad / s²

the quantity is linear and angular are related

the linear or tangential acceleration is

            a =    α  R

where R is the radius of the drum

            a = 1693.5 R

Unfortunately you do not give the radius of the drum for a complete calculation, but suppose it is a washing machine drum R = 20 cm = 0.20 m

           a = 1693.5 0.20

           a = 392.7 m / s²

the total acceleration is

           a_total = √(a² + α²)

           a_total = √ (α² R² + α²)

           a_total = α √(R² +1)

e) The centripetal acceleration is directed towards the center of the movement is radial and its magnitude is constant

Tangential acceleration is tangency to radius and its value varies proportionally radius

the total accelracicon is the result of the vector sum of the two accelerations and their directions given by trigonometry

            tan θ = a / α

the angular velocity increases linearly when with centripetal acceleration

Answer:

The magnitude of the charge is 54.9 nC.

Explanation:

The charge on each bead can be found using Coulomb's law:

[tex] F_{e} = \frac{k*q_{1}q_{2}}{r^{2}} [/tex]

Where:

q₁ and q₂ are the charges, q₁ = q₂  

r: is the distance of spring stretching = 4.8x10⁻² m

[tex]F_{e}[/tex]: is the electrostatic force

[tex] F_{e} = \frac{k*q^{2}}{r^{2}} \rightarrow q = \sqrt{\frac{F_{e}}{k}}*r [/tex]    

Now, we need to find [tex]F_{e}[/tex]. To do that we have that Fe is equal to the spring force ([tex]F_{k}[/tex]):

[tex] F_{e} = F_{k} = -kx [/tex]

Where:

k is the spring constant

x is the distance of the spring = 4.8 - 4.0 = 0.8 cm

The spring constant can be found by equaling the sping force and the weight force:

[tex] F_{k} = -W [/tex]

[tex] -k*x = -m*g [/tex]

where x is 5.2 - 4.0 = 1.2 cm, m = 1.8 g and g = 9.81 m/s²

[tex] k = \frac{mg}{x} = \frac{1.8 \cdot 10^{-3} kg*9.81 m/s^{2}}{1.2 \cdot 10^{-2} m} = 1.47 N/m [/tex]      

Now, we can find the electrostatic force:

[tex] F_{e} = F_{k} = -kx = -1.47 N/m*0.8 \cdot 10^{-2} m = -0.0118 N [/tex]

And with the magnitude of the electrostatic force we can find the charge:

[tex]q = \sqrt{\frac{F_{e}}{k}}*r = \sqrt{\frac{0.0118 N}{9 \cdot 10^{9} Nm^{2}/C^{2}}}*4.8 \cdot 10^{-2} m = 54.9 \cdot 10^{-9} C = 54.9 nC[/tex]

Therefore, the magnitude of the charge is 54.9 nC.

I hope it helps you!  

The magnitude of the charge (in nC) on each bead is equal to 55.21 nC.

Given the following data:

Extension, e = [tex]0.052 - 0.048[/tex] = 0.012 m

Scientific data:

To calculate the magnitude of the charge (in nC) on each bead, we would apply Coulomb's law:

First of all, we would determine the spring constant of this lightweight spring by using this formula:

[tex]W = mg = Ke \\\\K=\frac{mg}{e} \\\\K=\frac{0.0018 \times 9.8}{0.012} \\\\K=\frac{0.01764}{0.012}[/tex]

Spring constant, K = 1.47 N/m.

For the electrostatic force:

[tex]F = ke\\\\F = 1.47 \times 0.08[/tex]

F = 0.01176 Newton.

Coulomb's law of electrostatic force.

Mathematically, the charge in an electric field is given by this formula:

[tex]q = \sqrt{\frac{F}{k} } \times r[/tex]

Substituting the given parameters into the formula, we have;

[tex]q = \sqrt{\frac{0.01176 }{8.99 \times 10^9} } \times 0.048\\\\q=\sqrt{1.3228 \times 10^{-12}} \times 0.048\\\\q=1.1502 \times 10^{-6} \times 0.048\\\\q= 5.521 \times 10^{-8}\;C[/tex]

Note: 1 nC = [tex]1 \times 10^{-9}\;C[/tex]

Charge, q = 55.21 nC.

Read more on electric field here: https://brainly.com/question/14372859

Answer:

A. True

Explanation:

Answer:In the case of two proton beams the protons repel one another because they have the same sign of electrical charge. There is also an attractive magnetic force between the protons, but in the proton frame of reference this force must be zero! Clearly then the attractive magnetic force that reduces the net force between protons in the two beams as seen in our frame of reference is relativistic. In particular the apparent magnetic forces or fields are relativistic modifications of the electrical forces or fields. As such modifications, they cannot be stronger than the electrical forces and fields that produce them. This follows from the fact that switching frames of reference can reduce forces, but it can’t turn what is attractive in one frame into a repulsive force in another frame.

In the case of wires the net charges in two wires are zero everywhere along the wires. That makes the net electrical forces between the wires very nearly zero. Yet the relativistic magnetic forces and fields will be of the same sort as in the case of two beams of charges of a single sign. This is true even in the frame of reference of what we think as the moving charges, that is, the electrons. In the frame of reference moving at the drift velocity of these current-carrying electrons, it is the protons or positively charged ions that are moving in the other direction. Consequently in any frame of reference for current-carrying wires in parallel, the net electrical force will be essentially zero, and there will be a net attractive magnetic force

Explanation:                                                                              

Explanation:

Particles with similar charges (both positive or both negative) will always repel each other, regardless of their speed or direction.

Answer:

The reason for the increase or decrease of the moon is due to the angular perception of the moon.

Explanation:

Also called lunar illusion, this phenomenon is due to the position in which the moon is, it can be at the zenith or on the horizon, both distances are different from each other with respect to the position of the person.

The zenith is the highest part of the sky and the horizon the lowest.

When there are landmarks such as trees, buildings or mountains on the horizon, the illusion of closeness is given and the illusion of distance is misinterpreted.

But when looking up at the sky as there is no reference point there will be a failure in the perception of size.

Answer:

The current is  [tex]I = 1420 \ A[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The  diameter of the wire is  [tex]d = 5.68 \ mm = 0.00568 \ m[/tex]

    The  magnetic field is  [tex]B = 0.100 \ T[/tex]

Generally the radius of the wire is mathematically evaluated as

       [tex]r = \frac{d}{2}[/tex]

substituting values

     [tex]r = \frac{ 0.00568}{2}[/tex]

     [tex]r = 0.00284 \ m[/tex]

Generally the magnetic field is mathematically represented as

       [tex]B = \frac{\mu_o * I}{ 2 \pi r }[/tex]

=>    [tex]I =\frac{ B * 2 \pi r }{\mu_o}[/tex]

Here [tex]\mu_o[/tex] is the permeability of free space  with value [tex]\mu_o = 4 \pi *10^{-7} N/A^2[/tex]

substituting values

=>     [tex]I =\frac{ 0.100 * 2 * 3.142 * 0.00284 }{ 4 \pi * 10^{-7}}[/tex]

=>     [tex]I = 1420 \ A[/tex]

Complete Question

Two stationary positive point charges, charge 1 of magnitude 3.25 nC and charge 2 of magnitude 2.00 nC , are separated by a distance of 58.0 cm . An electron is released from rest at the point midway between the two charges, and it moves along the line connecting the two charges.

Required:

What is the speed of the electron when it is 10.0 cm from the +3.25-nC charge?

Answer:

The velocity is [tex]v = 80.82 \ m/s[/tex]

Explanation:

From  the question we are told that

   The magnitude of charge one is  [tex]q_1 = 3.25 nC = 3.25 *10^{-9} \ C[/tex]

   The  magnitude of charge two  [tex]q_2 = 2.00 \ nC = 2.00 *10^{-9} \ C[/tex]

   The distance of separation is   [tex]d = 58.0 \ cm = 0.58 \ m[/tex]

Generally the electric potential of the electron at the midway point is mathematically represented as

         [tex]V = \frac{ q_1 }{\frac{d}{2} } + \frac{ q_2}{\frac{d}{2} }[/tex]

substituting values

         [tex]V = \frac{ 3.25 *10^{-9} }{\frac{ 0.58}{2} } + \frac{ 2 *10^{-9} }{\frac{ 0.58}{2} }[/tex]

          [tex]V = 1.8103 *10^{-8} \ V[/tex]

Now when the electron is 10 cm   =  0.10 m  from charge 1 , it is  (0.58 - 0.10 =  0.48 m ) m from charge two

Now the electric potential  at that point is mathematically represented as

       [tex]V_1 = \frac{q_1}{ 0.10} + \frac{q_2}{ 0.48}[/tex]

 substituting values

      [tex]V_1 = \frac{3.25 *10^{-9}}{ 0.10} + \frac{2.0*10^{-9}}{ 0.48}[/tex]

      [tex]V_1 = 3.67*10^{-8} \ V[/tex]

Now the law of energy conservation ,

   The  kinetic energy of the electron  =  potential energy of the electron

i.e     [tex]\frac{1}{2} * m * v^2 = [V_1 - V]* q[/tex]

where q is the magnitude of the charge on the electron with value

      [tex]q = 1.60 *10^{-19} \ C[/tex]

While m is the mass of the electron with value  [tex]m = 9.11*10^{-31} \ kg[/tex]

        [tex]\frac{1}{2} * 9.11 *10^{-19} * v^2 = [ (3.67 - 1.8103) *10^{-8}]* 1.60 *10^{-19}[/tex]

         [tex]v = \sqrt{6532.4}[/tex]

        [tex]v = 80.82 \ m/s[/tex]

Answer:

Post indicator valve

Explanation:

Post Indicator Valves are commonly used to control the water flow of sprinkler systems used in public and private buildings, warehouses, and factories for fire suppression. PIVs control water flow from the public system into the building's fire suppression system.

Answer:

The values is  [tex]B = 3.2 *10^{-8} \ T[/tex]

The  direction is out of the plane

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

  The  magnitude of the electric field is  [tex]E = 9.6 \ V/m[/tex]

The  magnitude of the magnetic field is mathematically represented as

       [tex]B = \frac{E}{c}[/tex]

where c is the speed of light with value

      [tex]B = \frac{ 9.6}{3.0 *10^{8}}[/tex]

     [tex]B = 3.2 *10^{-8} \ T[/tex]

Given that the direction off the electromagnetic wave( c ) is  northward(y-plane ) and  the electric field(E) is eastward(x-plane ) then the magnetic field will be acting in the out of the page  (z-plane  )

Answer:

The linear velocity, v = 5.93 m/s

Explanation:

To find the linear velocity after 5 seconds, we find its angular velocity after 5 seconds using

ω' = ω + αt where ω = initial angular speed = 4.00 rev/s = 4.00 × 2π rad/s = 25.13 rad/s, ω' =  = final angular speed, α = angular acceleration = 2.25 rad/s² and t = time = 5.00 s

ω' = ω + αt

= 25.13 rad/s + 2.25 rad/s² × 5.00 s

= 25.13 rad/s + 11.25 rad/s

= 36.38 rad/s

The linear velocity v is gotten from v = rω' where r = radius of pulley = 326 mm/2 = 163 mm = 0.163 m

v = rω'

= 0.163 m × 36.38 rad/s

= 5.93 m/s

So, the linear velocity  v = 5.93 m/s

Answer:

Explanation:

Christian Huygens

Light Is a Wave!

Then, in 1678, Dutch physicist Christian Huygens (1629 to 1695) established the wave theory of light and announced the Huygens' principle.

Answer:

The longest wavelength for closed at one end and open at the other is

y / 4      where y is the wavelength - that is node - antinode

The next possible wavelength is 3 y / 4 -    node - antinode - node -antinode

y / 4 = 3 m     y = 12 meters    the longest wavelength

3 y / 4 = 3 m      y = 4 meters   1 / 3 times as long

Answer:

Binding Energy = 2.24 eV

Explanation:

First, we need to find the energy of the photon of light:

E = hc/λ

where,

E = Energy of Photon = ?

h = Plank's Constant = 6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ J.s

c = speed of light = 3 x 10⁸ m/s

λ = wavelength of light = 400 nm = 4 x 10⁻⁷ m

Therefore,

E = (6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ J.s)(3 x 10⁸ m/s)/(4 x 10⁻⁷ m)

E = (4.97 x 10⁻¹⁹ J)(1 eV/1.6 x 10⁻¹⁹ J)

E = 3.1 eV

Now, from Einstein's Photoelectric Equation:

E = Binding Energy + Kinetic Energy

Binding Energy = E - Kinetic Energy

Binding Energy = 3.1 eV - 0.86 eV

Binding Energy = 2.24 eV

Answer:

ΔT = 1ºC , 2ºCand 3ºC

Explanation:

In this exercise they indicate the specific heat of lithium

let's calculate the temperature increase as a function of the heat introduced

          Q = m [tex]c_{e}[/tex] ΔT

          ΔT = Q / m c_{e}

calculate

 for Q = 3.5 J

         ΔT = 3.5 / (1 3.5)

         ΔT = 1ºC

For Q = 7.0 J

         ΔT = 7 / (1 3.5)

         ΔT = 2ºC

for Q = 10.5 J

         ΔD = 10.5 / (1 3.5)

         ΔT = 3ºC

we see that this is a straight line, see attached

Answer:

C. 450v

Explanation:

Using

Voltage= B*distance of separation*velocity

3mm x 0.3T x 5E5m/s

= 450v

The problem arose due to a difference in length. This was due to father not knowing the exact length of shoe used by the son. And this can be mitigated by the use of shoe fillers.

The length of an object implies how long the object is. And it is one of the fundamental unit of quantities measured in SI unit of meters.

Considering the given question, it can be observed that the father do not know the exact length of shoe that would fit the son appropriately. Thus the realized problem of the pair of shoes too long arose due to difference in length of the pair of shoes and the son's leg. This variation would not have occurred if the exact length of pair of shoes has been bought.

To mitigate this little problem, shoe fillers can be used.

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1. Which example best describes a restoring force?

B) the force applied to restore a spring to its original length

2. A spring is compressed, resulting in its displacement to the right. What happens to the spring when it is released?

C) The spring exerts a restoring force to the left and returns to its equilibrium position.

3. A 2-N force is applied to a spring, and there is displacement of 0.4 m. How much would the spring be displaced if a 5-N force was applied?

D) 1 m

4. Hooke’s law is described mathematically using the formula Fsp=−kx. Which statement is correct about the spring force, Fsp?

D)It is a vector quantity.

5. What happens to the displacement vector when the spring constant has a higher value and the applied force remains constant?

A) It decreases in magnatude.

Hope this Helps!! Sorry its late

Answer:

2.1×10¹⁸ C

Explanation:

Using,

E = kq/r²...................... Equation 1

Where E = Electric field, q = charge, r = distance, k = coulombs constant.

make q the subject of the equation

q = Er²/k.................. Equation 2

Given: E = 180000 N/C, r = 2.8 cm = 0.028 m

Constant: k = 9×10⁹ Nm²/C².

Substitute these values into equation 2

q = 180000(9×10⁹)/0.028²

q = 2.1×10¹⁸ C

Hence the object charge is 2.1×10¹⁸ C

Answer:

North

South

East

West

Explanation:

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